AVA 286 - 342
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286 Cada vez que el piloto al mando de una aeronave ejerza la autoridad de emergencia, deberá reportar a
la UAEAC en los siguientes:
5 días hábiles
8 días hábiles
10 días hábiles
287 La responsabilidad de reportar irregularidades mecánicas que ocurran durante el tiempo de vuelo es
El piloto al mando
El técnico de mantenimiento
El explotador de la aeronave
288 La responsabilidad de que se efectúe un prevuelo antes de iniciar un vuelo en una aeronave es de:
El piloto al mando
El técnico de mantenimiento
289 El reglamento del aire es parte de:
El Manual de Operaciones de Vuelo de un operador
El Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia
El Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos
290 Se define como hora prevista de aproximación:
Hora en la que el ATC prevé que una aeronave que llega después de experimentar una demora,
abandone el fijo de espera para completar su aproximación, a fin de aterrizar
La hora en la cual se estima que una aeronave aterrice en su aeropuerto de destino
Ninguna de las anteriores
291 La altura mínima de decisión para una aproximación ILS categoría I es igual:
292 Se considera como aproximación de precisión:
293 Si volamos en condiciones VMC queremos decir que:
Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y volando IMC
Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y nuestro plan de vuelo puede ser IFR
Todas las respuestas anteriores son ciertas
294 If on an IFR flight plan, you are advised to be in radar contact, you must:
Obey all instructions from ATC regardless
Obey all instructions from ATC only while in cloud
Follow all possible instructions and advise ATC when unable to comply.
295 When flying a commercial route you are familiar with and you are in congested airspace, you may
instead of reading back all clearances and instructions repetitively simply:
Say “Roger” to ATC without repeating your call sign or flight number again, once you know ATC
recognizes your voice
Simply click your mike when answering obvious things to ATC. So as to not congest the frequency
Read back all clearances including your call sign and or flight # even if this is going to congest the
frequency even more.
296 You must advice ATC if you cannot climb or descent to your assigned altitude if you cannot maintain at
No restriction if cleared at pilot discretion
500 ft on climb and 1.500 ft on descent
297 An IFR clearance must include the following:
a. Dep. Airport, aircraft ID. Flight level and route
Only the aircraft ID and transponder code if advised as filed on a passenger carrying
Aircraft ID, Clearance limit, Dep. Procedure, route and transponder code
298 You are expected to read back clearances containing altitude assignments, radar vectors or any
instructions requiring verification:
As well as those containing wind direction and intensity
299 If while on a hold and this is not your IAF, you lose 2 way voice communications, you should:
Leave the hold at the EFC time
Immediately fly in VMC and land as soon as possible
Stay on the hold until your EAT
300 You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-W36-FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you experience 2
way Com. Failure and just before this you were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards to the correct
route to fly you should:
Maintain present course and filed altitude until Com is reestablished
Continue your flight route as per original flight plan as it was read back on ground to clearance delivery
As you cross ABL, fly direct RNG
301 During preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the
Tested and when done, ensure the switch is selected to ARMED
Tested by selecting 243 mhz on the radio and listening for a tone when the switch is selected to ON
Selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to test, it should only be done by selecting it to ON for
no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour
302 Señalar lo que es cierto
El MMEL (Master MEL) lo prepara el explotador
El MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL)
El MEL es preparado por el explotador del avión
303 Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.
Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.
304 For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.
305 What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?
Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
306 When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of
assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.
500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.
307 For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or
VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Fixes selected to define the route.
There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
At the changeover points.
308 What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled
airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has
VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability.
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required.
Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.
309 During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure).
The pilot should
Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
310 During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action
Set transponder to code 1200.
Resume normal position reporting
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.
311 During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach
fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure.
Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the
312 Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at
a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.
313 Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach
Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.
314 What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio
a. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned
altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least
1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of
clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
315 In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR
conditions the pilot should continue
By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
The flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
316 While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR
conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
VFR and land as soon as practicable.
VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.
IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.
317 What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?
The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute
the published approach procedure.
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must
be reported to ATC.
318 What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb
to the assigned altitude?
Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000
Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per
minute the last 1,000 feet.
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet
below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
319 When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a
void time indicates that
ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off
by the void time.
ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
320 What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
321 Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar
Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
322 On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE
DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO
FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT
NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the
Departure control frequency.
Destination airport and route.
Requested enroute altitude.
323 When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
When priority has been given.
Any time an emergency occurs.
When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
324 Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
DPs, STARs, and contact approaches.
Contact and visual approaches.
DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.
325 What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the
published approach procedure.
It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including
6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
326 A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
Climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.
Use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.
327 While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance.
What action must be taken?
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
328 An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name
And number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
Of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment
329 14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as
Maximum landing gear extended speed.
Maximum landing gear operating speed.
Maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
330 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as
Maximum landing gear extended speed.
Maximum nose wheel extend speed.
331 14 CFR part 1 defines VY as
Speed for best rate of descent.
Speed for best angle of climb.
Speed for best rate of climb.
332 Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the
airplane is controllable?
333 Define Calibrated Air Speed?
Normal operating speed.
Is the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error
Speed corrected by Warm climate.
334 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
Design flap speed.
Flap operating speed.
Maximum flap extended speed.
335 Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified
336 Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?
The never-exceed speed.
The power-off stall speed.
The maneuvering speed.
337 If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
338 To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
The current altimeter setting.
29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
The field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.
339 What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn
Is always electric, the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven.
Indicates bank angle only, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
Indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and
340 What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other
It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.
It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.
341 A Standard rate turn is :
a. A turn at a rate of 3% min at 100 Kts
(TAS in Kts / 3o) + 5
A turn at a rate of 3o / sec
342 Magnetic dip is responsible for:
Northerly turning errors only in the northern hemisphere counteracted by magnetic dip
Nothing on a commercial transport category Aircraft equipped with EFIS
Errors during acceleration or turns on only magnetic compasses
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