AVA 628 - 684

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AVA 628 - 684
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2014-09-30 20:24:35
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AVA 628 684
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AVA 628 - 684
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  1. 628 ¿La sigla NOTOC que significa?



    Notice to company.



    Notice to crew.



    Notice to Captain.
    C
  2. 629 ¿Si desea buscar una sustancia por su nombre y hallar sus propiedades, donde la buscaría?



    Manual de la aeronave.



    Páginas azules de manual de regulaciones de MP de IATA.



    En el manual de operaciones de vuelo.
    B
  3. 630 Que significa la sigla DL:



    Dosis letal.



    Dosis dosificada.



    Dosis limite.
    A
  4. 631 ¿Quien asigna el grupo de embalaje?



    El expedidor.



    La IATA.



    El explotador.
    A
  5. 632 En Las variaciones de los estados que significa la ultima letra que es una G:



    Gol.



    Gobierno.



    Ganancia de cada estado en cuanto MP se refiere.
    B
  6. 633 La letra Y en las instrucciones de embalaje significa:



    Que se puede transportar igual cantidad que en una instrucción que no tenga esa letra.



    La cantidad que se puede transportar es menor porque no es un embalaje aprobado para el transporte

    de MP.



    De acuerdo al estado se le pone la letra Y o la Z.
    B
  7. 634 Un embalaje puede ser reutilizado siempre y cuando:



    Sean removidas todas las etiquetas.



    La sustancia a empacar no vaya a reaccionar con algún componente Anterior.



    A y B son correctas
    C
  8. 635 TCAS II provides



    traffic and resolution advisories.



    proximity warning.



    maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.
    A
  9. 636 Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify
    ATC and



    Mantain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.



    Request a new ATC clearance.



    expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
    C
  10. 637 Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is
    expected to



    Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.



    Request a new ATC clearance.



    notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.
    C
  11. 638 With no traffic identified by TCAS, you



    can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area



    must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions.



    must scan only for hot air balloons.
    B
  12. 639 While being radar vectored, to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot
    descend to published altitudes?



    Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart.



    When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.



    Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
    C
  13. 640 What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR
    approach?



    Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.



    Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.



    Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
    B
  14. 641 What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?



    A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is an VFR authorization.



    A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact apprach is initiated by the pilot.



    Both are the same but classified according to the part initiating the approach.
    B
  15. 642 How should a pilot describe braking action?



    00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent.



    Zero-zero, fifty-fift, or normal.



    Nil, poor, fair or good
    C
  16. 643 When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed



    1 minute.



    1-1/2 minutes.



    1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
    B
  17. 644 Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?



    When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.



    If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.



    If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
    C
  18. 645 You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon
    reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.



    This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.



    ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.



    If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing,

    declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
    C
  19. 646 What is the hijack code?



    7200



    7500



    7777
    B
  20. 647 What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?



    Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.



    When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.



    When distress conditions such as fie, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
    A
  21. 648 Wich range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?



    0000 through 1000.



    7200 and 7500 series.



    7500, 7600 and 7700 series.
    C
  22. 649 How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?



    Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.



    Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.



    Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
    B
  23. 650 Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to mantain altitude?



    Compensate for loss of vertical component of the lift.



    Increase the horizontal component of the lift equal to the vertical component.



    Compensate for increase in drag.
    A
  24. 651 Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff?



    Higher-than-recomended airspeed before rotation.



    Lower-than-standard air density.



    Increase headwind component.
    C
  25. 652 Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?



    Critical engine failure speed.



    Rotation speed.



    Accelerate-stop distance.
    A
  26. 653 What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions
    relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?



    Higher than at low elevation.



    Lower than at low elevation.



    The same as at low elevation.
    A
  27. 654 When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated
    to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?



    5° to 10°.



    10° to 12°.



    18° to 20°.
    B
  28. 655 An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a
    course centerline deviation of approximately



    6 miles.



    2 miles.



    1 mile.
    B
  29. 656 Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?



    Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.



    Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located.



    Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the

    station.
    A
  30. 657 To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to



    360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.



    180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.



    180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
    C
  31. 658 To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to







    215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.



    215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.



    035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
    C
  32. 659 What is the primary cause off all changes in the Earths weather?



    Variations of solar energy at the Earths surface.



    Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface.



    Movment of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
    A
  33. 660 Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?



    Calm.



    High pressure area.



    COL.
    B
  34. 661 Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?



    Freezing rain.



    Clear air turbulence.



    Embedded thundrestorms.
    C
  35. 662 What phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?



    The appearance of an anvil top.



    The start of rain at the surface.



    Growth rate of cloud is ai its maximum.
    B
  36. 663 What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?



    Supercooled water drops.



    Water vapor.



    Visible water.
    C
  37. 664 The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the
    magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be



    150°.



    285°.



    330°.
    C
  38. 665 If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the
    magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be



    040°.



    065°.



    220°.
    A
  39. 666 (Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic
    bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned



    Left to a heading of 270°.



    Right to a heading of 330°.



    Right to a heading of 360°.
    C
  40. 667 Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?



    Wet snow.



    Freezing rain.



    Ice pellets.
    B
  41. 668 Which weather condition is present when the tropical strom is upgraded to a hurricane?


    Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more.



    A clear area or hurricane eyes has formed.



    Sustained winds of 65 Knots or mire.
    C
  42. 669 ILS critical area sign indicates



    Where aircraft are prohibited.



    The edge of the ILS critical area.



    The exit boundary.
    B
  43. 670 Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have



    yellow inscriptions on a black background.



    white inscriptions on a black background.



    black inscriptions on a yellow background.
    C
  44. 671 Holding position signs have



    white inscriptions on a red background.



    red inscriptions on a white background.



    yellow inscriptions on a red background.
    A
  45. 672 (Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at



    The surface.



    3,823 feet MSL.



    700 feet AGL.
    B
  46. 673 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?



    May conduct operations under visual flight rules.



    Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).



    Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
    C
  47. 674 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?



    The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.



    Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.



    Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
    A
  48. 675 When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the
    boundary of



    Special VFR airspace.



    Class D airspace.



    Class B airspace
    B
  49. 676 (Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco
    International Airport is



    The outer segment of Class B airspace.



    An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace

    from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.



    A Mode C veil boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains

    below 8,000 feet MSL.
    B
  50. 677 (Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which



    There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is
    hazardous to aircraft.



    The flight of aircraft is prohibited.



    The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.
    A
  51. 678 Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower,
    within the Class C airspace area?



    Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.



    Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.



    Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving

    facility.
    C
  52. 679 (Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is



    700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.



    1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.



    Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
    C
  53. 680 Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?



    The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.



    The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.



    Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
    B
  54. 681 (Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is



    The surface.



    700 feet AGL.



    1,200 feet AGL.
    B
  55. 682 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?



    Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.



    Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).



    Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
    A
  56. 683 When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
    establish communications prior to



    4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.



    10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.



    30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
    A
  57. 684 (Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area
    when you pass which sign?



    Top red.



    Middle yellow.



    Bottom yellow.
    C

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