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685 (Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical
area when short of which symbol?
686 To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should
Rely on body sensations.
Increase the breathing rate.
Rely on aircraft instrument indications.
687 Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
Excessive carbon monoxide.
Insufficient carbon dioxide.
688 To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should
Swallow or yawn.
Slow the breathing rate.
Increase the breathing rate.
689 Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
Decreased breathing rate.
A sense of well-being.
690 Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?
A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.
An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.
691 Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.
Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
692 Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as
Oxygen demand increases.
693 Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart?
At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures.
To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.
To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard
694 (Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at
Glide slope intercept.
ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.
695 (Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is
11,000 feet MSL.
7,000 feet MSL.
9,000 feet MSL.
696 (Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed
697 (Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM,
what MDA applies?
698 (Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope
2,365 feet MSL.
2,400 feet MSL.
3,000 feet MSL.
699 The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as
practical to ATC when
Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in
Requested to contact a new controlling facility.
Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
700 (Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A
One VOR receiver.
One VOR receiver and DME.
Two VOR receivers and DME.
701 Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are
Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.
To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.
Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion.
702 While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be
Reaching the FAF.
Advised to begin descent.
Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.
703 (Refer to figure 34.) The symbol  in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN
represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
Dymon outer marker.
Cruup I-AQD DME fix.
704 What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A procedure turn is not authorized.
Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.
Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
705 A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when
Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.
Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.
706 On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or
continue the approach unless the
Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.
Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,
can be made.
707 Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.
708 (Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the
glide slope becomes inoperative?
709 For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport
on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.
710 For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on
an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the
following weather minimums.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.
Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
711 (Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which
extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
8,000 feet MSL.
2,100 feet AGL.
712 VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC.
True, they are both the same
False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.
False, but they are correlated
713 Hypoxia is the result of:
The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream
The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen
All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic
714 A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc:
2.0 DME to either side of the arc
0.0. (No deviations are allowed)
715 If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are:
6.0 Nm from the VOR
4.5 Nm from the VOR
3.0 Nm from the VOR
716 TERPs are a US standard used for:
All ICAO special charts
IFR departure design criteria
. Non Jeppesen stars
717 When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:
Continue flying the DP as published
Return for a landing
Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included
718 Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:
True, except as published on STARs
False, every airport is different
True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs
719 Departure Procedures must:
Be flown if available for that airport
Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan
Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC
720 On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean:
V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight
V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation
V stands or “Victor Collins” whom in 1935 invented the airways between VORs and 344 is the airway
721 MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and:
Both navigation and communications
1.500 ground clearance around mountains
722 When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:
Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side
Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway
Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line
723 1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on:
MVA, MEA and MOCA
MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA
Neither, as the radio altimeter is never activated (2.500 Ft or less) when the aircraft flies in mountainous
724 In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of
navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need:
A Hi or Lo enroute chart
A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used
A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation
725 When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed
off from TWR:
Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code
Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code
Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code
726 When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should:
Write a maintenance report at your next stop
Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements
Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing
727 Position reports when required should include:
Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point
Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you
Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any
728 You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:
Report leaving present altitude.
Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times
Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic
729 You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should:
Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles
If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time
Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt.
730 In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs.
You will fly two complete racetrack patterns
You will fly three complete racetrack patterns
The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.
731 If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should:
Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts
Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category
Maintain the speed up so as to hold at the fastest speed possible to be the first to leave the fix and
732 When is an IFR flight plan required?
When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone
In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.
733 Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?
Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.
Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.
734 To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate
ATC clearance prior to
Entering controlled airspace.
Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums.
735 To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received
Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.
Entering weather conditions in any airspace.
Entering controlled airspace.
736 When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
When operating in the Class E airspace.
When operating in the Class A airspace.
When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.
737 When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR
flight plan and receive a clearance before
Entering IFR conditions.
Entering Class E airspace.
738 No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
739 During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing
has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before
through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet
the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
740 What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first
airport of intended landing,
And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
741 What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a
VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR
800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and
landing under basic VFR.