RT 123 Midterm

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noah.aisner
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RT 123 Midterm
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2010-07-31 12:31:40
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RT 123 Midterm
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  1. 1. PRVC uses what flow pattern to deliver a breath?
    A. Square wave
    B. Sine wave
    C. Constant flow
    D. Decelerating wave
    e. None of the above
    D. Decelerating wave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. 2. A pre-use check on the Servo i contains which of the following:
    a. Circuit leak check
    b. Measurement of compressible volume factor
    c. 02 cell check
    d. All of the above are coned
    e. The Servo i does not have a pre use check
    d. All of the above are coned
  3. 3. How long will the Oxygen Breath button deliver 100% 02 on the Servo i?
    A. 1 minute
    B. 5 minutes
    C. 2 minutes
    d Until you turn it off
    C. 2 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. 4. T or F The Servo i has the option of compensating for circuit compressible volume (aka Tube Compliance Factor, TCF).
    True
  5. 5. Which of the following is NOT controlled by a direct access knob on the user nterface in Volume Control mode:
    A. PEEP
    B. Inspiratory Time
    C. Fi02
    D. Respiratory Rate
    e. All of the above can be directly controlled in volume control mode
    B. Inspiratory Time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. 6. Which of the following statements is true about the servo i?
    A. The ventilator cannot freeze (save) pressure volume loops
    B. The ventilator can only be used on adult patients
    C. The ventilator has a back up battery power source for its compressor
    D. The ventilator can be used for transport with gas cylinder attached
    D. The ventilator can be used for transport with gas cylinder attached
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. 1. T or F When transporting a patient on a transport ventilator it isn’t necessary to bring a self-inf1ating and mask of appropriate size.
    False
  8. 2. T or F Transport ventilators have not been shown to provide a more constant minute ventilation than manual ventilation during short term in-house patient transports.
    False
  9. 3. Contraindications to in-house transports include:
    I. inability to provide adequate oxygenation
    II. inability to maintain acceptable hemodynamic performance during transport
    III. inability to adequately monitor patient cardiopulmonary status during transport,
    IV. inability to maintain artificial airway control
    A. I
    B. I, II
    C. I, II, III, IV
    D. I, II, III,
    C. I, II, III, IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. 4. T or F Loss of the artificial airway is potential risk during in-hospital transport.
    True
  11. 5. T or F In One major study regarding in-hospital transport, approximately 70% of the in-hospita] transports caused significant physiologic events lasting at least 5 minutes.
    True
  12. 7. Which mode of ventilation on the Servo i adjusts the pressure support level automaticall for the spontaneously breathing patient?
    A. Pressure Regulated Volume Control
    B. Volume Support
    C. Pressure Support
    D. Volume Control
    A. Pressure Regulated Volume Control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 8. T or F The Servo i has the option for monitoring the end-tidal PCO2 (PetCO2), and calculating the VCO2, which is half of the respiratory quotient.
    True
  14. 9. T or F When the Automode is activated it will allow the patient to increase the inspiratory flow rate above the set flow rate, and shorten the Ti.
    True
  15. 10. T or F The default flow pattern in all volume modes is a decelerating waveform.
    False
  16. 1 T or F A patient-ventilator system check must include both the set and observed ventilator frequency, and the delivered tidal volume (either measured or calculated).
    True
  17. 2. All of the following complications are possible if you disconnect a patient, except
    A. Bradycardia
    B. Hypotension
    C. Hyperventilation
    D. Hypoxemia
    C. Hyperventilation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 3. When should you drain the ventilator tubing?
    A. We don’t need to remove any condensation because it’s sterile.
    B. During the ventilator check so you demonstrate the effects of removing the condensation.
    C. After the ventilator check so you demonstrate the effects of the condensation.
    D. Before the ventilator check so the condensation doesn’t influence the readings and calculations.
    D. Before the ventilator check so the condensation doesn’t influence the readings and calculations.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 4. What is the minimum time that it takes to begin to get an accurate plateau pressure?
    a. 0.2 seconds
    b 0.5 seconds
    c. 2.0 seconds
    d. 5.0 seconds
    b 0.5 seconds
  20. 5. Which of the following are reasons to do a Patient-Ventilator Check?
    I. Routine -Q 2-4 hrs.
    II. Before each ABG.
    III. With ventilator orders/settings changes.
    IV. With any acute change in patient conditions
    V. Upon arrival back from a transport to MRI for 2 hrs.
    VI. Whenever the ventilator performance is questionable.
    A. I, II, III, IV only
    B. I, II, III only
    C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
    D. I. II. IlL IV, VI
    C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 6. T or F Patient vital signs belong in the Nursing Notes, not in our Patient-Ventilator Check charting.
    False
  22. 7. T or F An “error of omission” in charting can be grounds for malpractice.
    True
  23. 8. T or F Spelling errors and math errors have no effect on the perception of our professionalism; the other Healthcare Workers understand the complexities and time constraints.
    False
  24. 9. T or F Brief narrative regarding the clinical observations of the patient’s response to the current mechanical ventilator settings are not necessary, according to the AARC — CPG on Patient Ventilator Check.
    False
  25. 10. All of the following are direct complications of suctioning except:
    A. Cardiac —Respiratory arrest
    B. Infection (patient and/or caregiver)
    C. Bronchoconstriction/bronchospasm
    D. Cardiac dysrhythmias
    E. Mesenteric ischemia
    E. Mesenteric ischemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 11. All of the following are considered evidence of effective suctioning, except:
    A. Increased dynamic compliance
    B. Increased tidal volume delivery during pressure-limited ventilation
    C. Decreased peak inspiratory pressure (PIP)
    D. Decreased static compliance
    E. A narrowing of PIP - Pplateau
    D. Decreased static compliance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 12 T or F One of the stated reasons for doing a Patient-Ventilator Systems Check, according to the AARC CPG, is to verify and document that the ventilator alarms are appropriate and active
    True
  28. 13. T or F According to the AARC CPG, an acceptable order for mechanical ventilation cannot be solely based on the desired blood gas results or ranges, leaving you to manipulate the settings to obtain the desired results.
    False
  29. 14. T or F A to the AARC CPG, the volume monitoring devices should have an accuracy of within ± 10% of the set Vt, and the oxygen analyzer accuracy should be within ±3% official concentrations.
    True
  30. 15. According to the AARC CPG, the routine patient-ventilator check should do which of the following?
    I. Prevent untoward incidents
    II. Warn of impending events
    III. Assure proper ventilator functioning
    IV. March the physician’s orders
    A. I II, III
    B. II, III, IV
    C. I, III, IV
    D. I, II, III, IV
    D. I, II, III, IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 1. Acute dyspnea can be caused by which of the following ventilator setting
    I. High pressure control setting
    II. Setting the tidal volume low enough that the peak airway pressure is kept <30 cm H20
    III. The assist-control back-up rate is set so that the patient must trigger the ventilator
    IV. A long inspiratory time
    a. I, II, IV
    b. I, II, III
    c. I, III, IV
    d. All of the above can cause dyspnea
    d. All of the above can cause dyspnea
  32. 2. T or F Ventilator settings that “exercise” the patient can cause patient-ventilatoi dys-synchrony.
    True
  33. 3. T or F The setting of the alarm threshold for the minute ventilation (ye) may be too high if it allows the patient to double their current Ve.
    True
  34. 4. T or F Delirium can cause patient distress sufficient to cause adverse patient- ventilator interactions.
    True
  35. 5. T or F Ventilator alarm systems will always alert you to a ventilator malfunction
    False
  36. 6. T or F Malposition of the ET tube down the mainstem bronchus will always trigger a high peak airway alarm.
    False
  37. 7. Slow ETT cuff leaks most often lead to which of the following problems?
    I. Hypoventilation
    II. Hypoxemia
    III. Aspiration
    IV. High peak airway pressures
    A. I, II, III, IV
    B. I, III
    C. I, II, III
    D. II, III, IV
    C. I, II, III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 8. T or F Assuming pulmonary compliance and resistance, and properly set alarms, a new onset of Kussmaul’s breathing while on a ventilator should cause a low minute ventilation alarm.
    False
  39. 9. T or F One of the first steps in responding to high peak airway pressures alarms is to confirm that the artificial airway is not obstructed by trying to suction down the tube.
    True
  40. 10. T or F The ventilator alarms will always alert us to increasing expiratory airway résistance due to HMEs.
    False
  41. 11. Which of the following is a potential cause of dyspnea?
    A. acidemia
    B. hypoxemia
    C. hypercapnia
    D. central apnea
    D. central apnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 12. T or F Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is always a good indicator that the patient is dyspnic.
    False
  43. 13 T or F most patients’ can sense the magnitude of inspiratory effort necessai to take a breath, which becomes the basis for their sense of breathlessness.
    True
  44. 14. T or F Dyspnea is an objective sign, which is easy to measure and treat.
    False
  45. 15. T or F Our ‘hypoxic drive” is mediated through our central chemoreceptor
    False
  46. 16. T or F Morphine is the drug of choice to treat a dyspnic emphysema patient
    False
  47. 17. T or F Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is most often associated with congestive heart failure/pulmonary edema.
    True
  48. 18. T or F in addition to history taking, it is often necessary to do both pulmonary function tests and a cardiac stress test to quantify the severity of dyspnea on exertion (DOE), particularly if the patient is seeking disability insurance.
    True
  49. 19. T or F In patients with c pulmonary edema (CPE), dyspnea is seldom a major symptom at the time of presentation in ER.
    False
  50. 20. T or F air across the patient’s face is totally ineffective for the reliel of dvsonea in COPD and cancer patients.
    False

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