Flight Operations (LL)

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lalerlang
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285467
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Flight Operations (LL)
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2014-10-13 17:40:21
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Flight operations questions
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  1. 3120.  While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

    A.  Maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.
    B.  Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
    C.  Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power - off landing.
    B.
  2. 3121.  When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator(VASI), the pilot shall

    A.  Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
    B.  Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
    C.  Remain on the glide slope and land between the two - light bar.
    B.
  3. 3221.  Excessively high engine temperatures will

    A.  Cause damage to heat - conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
    B.  Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
    C.  Cause a loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. 3222.  If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

    A.  The mixture set too rich.
    B.  Too much power and with the mixture set too mean.
    C.  Higher - than - normal oil pressure.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. 3223.  One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

    A.  Improved engine performance.
    B.  Balanced cylinder head pressure.
    C.  Uniform heat distribution.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. 3224.  On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

    A.  All the time to aid the engine - driven fuel pump.
    B.  Constantly except in starting the engine.
    C.  In the event engine- driven fuel pump fails.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. 3225.  The operating principle of float - type carburetors is based on the

    A.  Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
    B.  Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
    C.  Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet. 
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. 3226.  The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

    A.  Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
    B.  Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
    C.  Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. 3227.  During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check.  Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

    A.  Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
    B.  Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
    C.  Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. 3228.  While cruising at 9500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted.  What will occur if a descent to 4500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

    A.  The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
    B.  The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause the detonation.
    C.  There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. 3229.  Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

    A.  Temperature between 32° and 50° F and low humidity.
    B.  Temperature between 20° and 70° F and high humidity.
    C.  Any temperature below freezing in a relative humidity of less than 50%.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 3230.  The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

    A.  Low as 0° F and the relative humidity is high
    B.  High as 70° F and the relative humidity is high.
    C.  High as 95° F and there is visible moisture.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 3231.  If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

    A.  A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
    B.  Engine roughness.
    C.  Loss of RPM.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 3232.  Applying carburetor heat will

    A.  Not affect the fuel/air mixture.
    B.  Enrich the fuel/air mixture.
    C.  Result in more air going through the carburetor.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. 3233.  What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied

    A.  The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. 
    B.  A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture
    C.  The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 3234.  Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

    A.  Have no effect on engine performance.
    B.  Decrease engine performance.
    C.  Increase engine performance.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. 3235.  The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

    A.  An increase in RPM than a gradual decrease in RPM.
    B.  A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
    C.  a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 3236.  With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

    A.  Susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
    B.  Equally susceptible to icing.
    C.  More susceptible to icing. 
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 3237.  If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

    A.  Lower cylinder head temperatures.
    B.  Detonation.
    C.  A mixture of fuel and a air that is not uniform and all cylinders.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 3238.  Destination occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

    A.  The unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
    B.  Hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
    C.  The spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 3239.  If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

    A.  Lean the mixture.
    B.  Apply carburetor heat.
    C.  Lower the nose slightly to increase air speed.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. 3240.  The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

    A.  Combustion
    B.  Detonation
    C.  Pre ignition
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. 3241.  Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and the engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

    A.  Operating with higher than normal oil pressure
    B.  Using fuel that has a higher than specified fuel rating
    C.  Using a fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 3242.  What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available

    A.  The next higher octane aviation gas.
    B.  The next lower octane aviation gas. 
    C.  Unleaded Automotive Gas of the same octane rating.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. 3243.  Five and the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day he is considered a good operating procedure because this will

    A.  Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
    B.  Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine. 
    C.  Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 3244.  For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

    A.  Air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
    B.  A properly functioning thermostat.
    C.  The circulation of lubricating oil.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 3245.  An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

    A.  Operating with an excessive a rich mixture.
    B.  Operating with a too high viscosity oil.
    C.  The oil level being too low.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 3302.  When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

    A.  Aileron down on the downwind side. 
    B.  Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
    C.  Ailerons neutral.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 3303.  Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering head winds? 

    A.  Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
    B.  Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
    C.  Aileron neutral.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 3304.  Which wind condition would be the most critical in taxiing a nose wheel equipped high-wing airplane?

    A.  Direct crosswind.
    B.  Quartering headwind.
    C.  Quartering tailwind.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 3305. (Fig.9 area A) how should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane into the left quartering headwind?  But

    A.  Left Aileron down, elevator neutral.
    B.  Left Aileron up, elevator neutral.
    C.  Left Aileron up, elevator down.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 3306. (Fig.9 area B) how should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

    A.  Right Aileron up, elevator down.
    B.  Right Aileron up, elevator up.
    C.  Right Aileron down, elevator neutral
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. 3307. (Fig.9 area C) how should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tail-wheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

    A.  Left Aileron down, elevator down
    B.  Left Aileron down, elevator neutral.
    C.  Left Aileron up, elevator neutral.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 33O8. (Fig.9 area C) how should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

    A.  Left Aileron down, elevator down.
    B.  Left Aileron up, elevator down.
    C.  Left Aileron up, elevator info.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 3619. (Fig.25 area 1, Legend 1) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to

    A.  The Airport/facility directory.
    B.  Notes on the border of the chart.
    C.  The Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. 3651.  What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

    A.  Reduce climb speed and increase RPM. 
    B.  Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
    C.  Reduce the rate of climb and increase air speed.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 3652.  What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

    A.  Enrichen the fuel mixture. 
    B.  Increase the RPM.
    C.  Reduce the airspeed.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 3653.  How his engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller?

    A.  The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
    B.  The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
    C.  The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 3654.  What is an advantage of a constant speed propeller?

    A.  Permits of the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
    B.  Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
    C.  Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 3655.  A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to

    A.  Avoid high in manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
    B.  Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
    C.  Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. 3656.  What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

    A.  Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
    B.  Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
    C.  Test each break and the parking brake.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 3657.  Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important than a competent pilot

    A.  Call "contact" before touching the propeller.
    B.  Be at the controls in the cockpit.
    C.  Be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 3658.  During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

    A.  The certified mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
    B.  The pilot in command.
    C.  The owner or operator.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 3659.  How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

    A.  Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
    B.  Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
    C.  Any sequence as determined by the pilot in command.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. 3709.  FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by

    A.  Ordering those desired from the government printing office.
    B.  Subscribing to the Federal register.
    C.  Distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. 3711.  Most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

    A.  Immediately established the proper gliding attitude in airspeed.
    B.  Quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.
    C.  Determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. 3712.  What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

    A.  Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
    B.  Look only at far away dim lights. 
    C.  Scan slowly to permit off center viewing.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. 3713.  The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

    A.  Scan the visual field very rapidly.
    B.  Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.
    C.  Look to the side of the object in scan slowly.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. 3714.  The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

    A.  A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30° sector. 
    B.  Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.
    C.  Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9 -, and 12 - o'clock positions.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 3718.  Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

    A.  White directional lights.
    B.  Alternate red and green lights.
    C.  Blue Omni directional lights.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. 3719.  VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

    A.  With a steeper decent. 
    B.  The same as during daytime.
    C.  At a higher airspeed
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. 3759.  To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a

    A.  40196 - code transponder.
    B.  VHF transmitter and receiver.
    C.  VOR receiver and DME
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. 3760 a slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator he is

    A.  Four white lights. 
    B.  Two white lights and two red lights.
    C.  Three white lights and one red light.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. 3761.  A  below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

    A.  Green light signal.
    B.  Red light signal.
    C.  Pink light signal.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. 3762.  An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

    A.  An amber light signal
    B.  A green light signal
    C.  A white light signal
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. 3763.  An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

    A.  A white light signal.
    B.  A green light signal.
    C.  An amber light signal.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. 3764.  A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

    A.  Pulsating red light.
    B.  Steady white light.
    C.  Pulsating white light.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. 3765. (Fig.48) illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

    A.  Below the glide slope.
    B.  On the glide slope.
    C.  Above the glide slope.
    B.
  59. 3766. (Fig.48) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is

    A.  Off course to the left.
    B.  Above the glide slope.
    C.  Below the glide slope.
    B.
  60. 3767. (Fig.48) while on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D.  This means that the aircraft is

    A.  Below the glide slope.
    B.  Above the glide slope.
    C.  On the glide slope.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. 3768.  To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

    A.  One time within 4 seconds. 
    B.  Three times within 3 seconds.
    C.  Five times within 5 seconds.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. 3773. (Fig.49) that portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

    A.  Taxiing and landing
    B.  Landing
    C.  Taxiing and takeoff
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. 3774. (Fig.49) according to the Airport diagram, which statement is true

    A.  Runway 32 is equipped at positioned E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.
    B.  Takeoffs may be started at position A on runway 25, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
    C.  The takeoff and landing portion of runway 25 begins at position B
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. 3775.(Fig.49) what is the difference between area A and area E on the Airport depicted?

    A.  "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun. 
    B.  "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may only be used as an overrun.
    C.  "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. 3776. (Fig.49) area C on the Airport depicted is classified as a

    A.  Multiple heliport.
    B.  Closed runway.
    C.  Stabilized area. 
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. 3777. (Fig.50) the arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area

    A.  May be used only for taxiing.
    B.  Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
    C.  It is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. 3778.  The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

    A.  009° and 027° true.
    B.  090° and 270° true.
    C.  090° and 270° magnetic
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. 3805. (Fig.50) select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

    A.  Left-hand traffic and runway 18.
    B.  Right-hand traffic and runway 18.
    C.  Left-hand traffic and runway 22.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. 3806. (Fig.50) if the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

    A.  Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. 
    B.  Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
    C.  Runway 22 directly into the wind.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. 3807. (Fig.51) the segmented circle indicates that the Airport traffic is

    A.  Left-hand for runway 36 and Right-hand for runway 18. 
    B.  Right-hand for runway 9 and Left-hand for runway 27.
    C.  Left-hand for runway 18 and Right-hand for runway 36. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. 3808. (Fig.51) the traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

    A.  South east of the Airport.
    B.  North of the Airport. 
    C.  South of the Airport. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. 3809. (Fig.51) the segmented circle indicates that a landing on a runway 26 will be with a

    A.  Left quartering headwind.
    B.  Right quartering headwind.
    C.  Right quartering tailwind.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. 3810. (Fig.51) which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

    A.  Right-hand traffic on runway 18.
    B.  Right-hand traffic on runway 9.
    C.  Left-hand traffic on runway 36.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. 3815. (Fig.52) if more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in block 7 of the flight plan?

    A.  Initial cruising altitude.
    B.  Highest cruising altitude.
    C.  Lowest cruising altitude.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. 3816. (Fig.52) what information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?

    A.  The name of destination Airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.
    B.  The name of the Airport where the aircraft is based.
    C.  The name of the Airport of the first intended landing.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. 3817. (Fig.52) what information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?

    A.  The estimated time en route expressed in hours and minutes.
    B.  The actual time en route expressed in hours and minutes.
    C.  The total amount of usable fuel on board expressed in hours and minutes.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. 3818.  How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled Airport?

    A.  The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway.
    B.  The pilot must close of the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.
    C.  The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. 3832.  Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

    A.  Loss of muscular power.
    B.  An increased sense of well being.
    C.  Tightness across the forehead.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. 3833.  What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

    A.  The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
    B.  Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
    C.  All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. 3834.  The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

    A.  A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10° sector.
    B.  Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.
    C.  Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12 o'clock positions.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. 3835.  Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

    A.  Concentrate on relative of movements detected in the peripheral vision area.
    B.  Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
    C.  Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. 3836.  How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? 

    A.  There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
    B.  The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
    C.  The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. 3838. (Fig.53) when approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with

    A.  Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz. 
    B.  Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.
    C.  Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. 3839. (Fig.52) which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?

    A.  Sequencing to the primary class C Airport and standard separation.
    B.  Sequencing to the primary class C Airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1000 feet vertical separation. 
    C.  Sequencing to the primary class C Airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. 3840. (Fig.53) what is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

    A.  Use up roach control for traffic advisories approaching the Airport and switch to CTAF 118.5 to monitor Airport traffic and announce your position and intentions when instructed by approach control.
    B.  Monitor ATIS four Airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
    C.  Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. 3841. (Fig.53) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?

    A.  Northwest approximately 1 mile.
    B.  Northeast approximately 1 mile.
    C.  East approximately 7 miles.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. 3842. (Fig.53) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

    A.  To the right on runway 17 and runway 35; to the left on runway 18 and runway 35.
    B.  To the left on runway 17 and runway 36; to the right on runway 18 and runway 35.
    C.  To the right on runways 14-32.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. 3843.  The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/facility directory for a certain Airport indicate that

    A.  This Airport is designated as an Airport of entry.
    B.  This Airport has a direct line phone to the flight service station.
    C.  The flight service station has equipment with which to determine your direction from this station.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. 3844.  Which statement best defines hypoxia?

    A.  A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.
    B.  The state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
    C.  An abnormal increase in the volume of the air breathed.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. 3845.  Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as

    A.  Aerotitis
    B.  Hyperventilation
    C.  Aerosinusitis
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. 3846.  Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

    A.  Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. 
    B.  The excessive consumption of alcohol.
    C.  An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. 3847.  A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

    A.  Increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.
    B.  Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.
    C.  Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. 3848.  Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

    A.  Altitude increases. 
    B.  Air pressure increases.
    C.  Altitude decreases.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. 3849.  What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

    A.  Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight. 
    B.  Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before a flight.
    C.  Avoid a red at least 30 minutes before the flight.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. 3850.  The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by

    A.  Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
    B.  Shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field in the instrument panel.
    C.  Leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. 3851.  A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as

    A.  Spatial disorientation.
    B. .Hypoxia
    C.  Hyperventilation. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. 3852.  Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

    A.  They ignore the sensations of muscles an inner ear.
    B.  Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
    C.  Eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. 3853.  If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to

    A.  Consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear then resume a normal breathing rate.
    B.  Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
    C.  Concentrate on the yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. 
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. 3854.  FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airmen are issued under which subject number?

    A.  90
    B.  60
    C.  70
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. 3855.  FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airspace are issued under which subject number?

    A.  60
    B.  90
    C.  70
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. 3856.  FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? 

    A.  60
    B.  90
    C.  70
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. 3931.  What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

    A.  Mindset
    B.  Scud running
    C.  Peer pressure
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. 3932.  What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"? 

    A.  Follow the rules.
    B.  I know what I am doing.
    C.  Rules do not apply in this situation.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. 3933.  What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "impulsivity"? 

    A.  Do it quickly to get it over with .
    B.  Not so fast, think first .
    C.  It could happen to me .
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. 3934.  What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as " invulnerability"?

    A.  It could happen to me
    B.  It will not happen to me
    C.  It can not be that bad
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. 3935.  What is the antidote when a pilot as a hazardous attitude, such as " macho"?

    A.  I can do it.
    B.  Nothing will happen.
    C.  Taking chances is foolish.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. 3936.  What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as " Resignation"?

    A.  What is the use. 
    B.  Someone else is responsible. 
    C.  I am not helpless.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. 3937.  Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

    A.  The pilot.
    B.  The FAA.
    C.  The medical examiner. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. 3938.  What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?

    A.  Human error.
    B.  Structural failure.
    C.  Mechanical malfunction.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. 3939.  What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

    A.  Getting behind the aircraft.
    B.  Duck-under syndrome.
    C.  Continual flight into instrument conditions.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. 3940.  What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long-term memory for repetitive tasks?

    A.  Flying outside the envelope
    B.  Situation awareness
    C.  Checklists
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. 3951.  Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

    A.  Student pilots.
    B.  Military pilots. 
    C.  Recreational pilots only.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. 3952.  Who has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO)clearance?

    A.  Air traffic controller.
    B.  Second in command.
    C.  Pilot in command.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. 3953.  When should pilots decline in land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

    A.  Only when the tower operator concurs. 
    B.  When it will compromise safety. 
    C.  Pilots cannot decline clearance.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. 3954.  Where is the" Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an Airport that utilizes of Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

    A.  14 CFR part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules. 
    B.  Special Notices section of the Airport/facility directory (A/FD). 
    C.  Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. 3955.  What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

    A.  3 statute miles.
    B.  3 nautical miles.
    C.  1 statute mile.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. 3983.  Detonation may occur at high power settings when

    A.  An excessively which fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
    B.  The fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.
    C.  The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. 3985.  Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

    A.  Aircraft Power, pitch, bank, and trim. 
    B.  Starting, taxiing, take off, and landing.
    C.  Straight and level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. 3987. (Fig.67) while practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line.  This would most likely a occur in turn

    A.  4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.
    B.  1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn. 
    C.  4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. 3999.  Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will

    A.  Increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to increased heat.
    B.  Result in damage to heat conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fins.
    C.  Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. 4000.  When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

    A.  Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
    B.  May continue taxiing.
    C.  Should not continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. 4001.  The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

    A.  080° and 260° magnetic
    B.  080° and 260° true
    C.  008° and 026° true
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. 4002.  The recommended entry position to an Airport traffic pattern is

    A.  45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
    B.  To cross to directly over the Airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
    C.  To enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. 4003.  To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

    A.  Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
    B.  Direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
    C.  Downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. 4004. (Fig.63) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90°?

    A.  Corners 1 and 2
    B.  Corners 2 and 4
    C.  Corners 1 and 4
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. 4005.  Most midair collision accidents occur during

    A.  Cloudy nights
    B.  Clear days
    C.  Hazy days
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. 4006.  Hazardous attitudes occurs to every pilot to some degree at some time.  What are some of these hazardous attitudes?

    A.  Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
    B.  Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
    C.  Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision-making process.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. 4007.  In the aeronautical decision-making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

    A.  Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation.
    B.  Making a rational judgment.
    C.  Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. 4008.  Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision-making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

    A.  Application of stress management and risk element procedures.
    B.  The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.
    C.  Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. 4009.  An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight.  In this situation, you would

    A.  Experience avionics equipment failure.
    B.  Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating.
    C.  Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. 4010.  What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign

    A.  Denotes intersecting runways.
    B.  Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. 
    C.  Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. 4012.  Two properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

    A.  Lowest point in the fuel system.
    B.  Fuel straighter drain.
    C.  Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. 4013.  If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster

    A.  Ground speed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
    B.  Air speed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll.
    C.  Ground speed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. 4014.  Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

    A.  Airport/facility directory
    B.  Graphic notices and supplemental data
    C.  NOTAMs
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. 4025.  When executing an emergency approach to land in a single engine airplane, it is important to maintain a consistent glide speed because variations in glide speed

    A.  Assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare.
    B.  Increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.
    C.  Nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. 4026. (Fig.52) what information should be entered into a block 9 for a VFR day flight?

    A.  The destination city and state.
    B.  The destination Airport identifier code and name of the FBO where the airplane will be parked.
    C.  The destination Airport identifier code and city name.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. 4027. (Fig.52) what information should be entered in block 7 for a VFR day flight?

    A.  The initial altitude assigned by ATC.
    B.  The altitude assigned by the FSS.
    C.  The appropriate VFR cruising altitude.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. 4034.  What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

    A.  All current NOTAMs.
    B.  Current NOTAM (L) and FDC NOTAMs.
    C.  Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs. 
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. 4039.  When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as

    A.  Aerosinusitis
    B.  Hyperventilation
    C.  Aerotitis
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. 4040. (Fig.52) what information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?

    A.  The estimated time en route plus 45 minutes.
    B.  The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.
    C.  The estimated time en route plus 30 minutes.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. 4048.  What does the outbound destination sign identify?

    A.  Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
    B.  Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
    C.  Identifies direction to take-off runways.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. 4049.  How can a military Airport be identified at night?

    A.  Alternate green and white flashes.
    B.  White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
    C.  Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes. 
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. 4050.  If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine

    A.  Cannot be started with the switch in the ON position. 
    B.  Will run very rough.
    C.  Cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. 4058.  If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine

    A.  Will not operate on one magneto.
    B.  Cannot be started with the switch in the ON position. 
    C.  Could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. 4064. (Fig.65) which marking indicates a vehicle lane?

    A.  A
    B.  E
    C.  C
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. 4065.  The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates

    A.  Runway with a displaced threshhold that precedes the runway.
    B.  A hold line from a taxiway to a runway
    C.  The beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. 4066.  This sign is a visual clue that

    A.  Warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B".
    B.  Indicates "B" holding area is ahead.
    C.  Confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B". 
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. 4067.  This sign confirms your position on

    A.  Runway 22. 
    B.  Routing two runway 22. 
    C.  Taxiway 22.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. 4068.  From the cockpit, this marking confirms the aircraft to be

    A.  On a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
    B.  Near an instrument approach clearance zone.
    C.  On a runway, about to to clear.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. 4069.  The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating

    A.  Within 5 miles of a controlled Airport.
    B.  In conditions of reduced visibility.
    C.  In class B airspace.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. 4073.  A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

    A.  Increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.
    B.  Breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation.
    C.  Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. 4074.  A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

    A.  Hypoxia
    B.  Spatial disorientation
    C.  Hyperventilation
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. 4077.  Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glide path of the VASI?

    A.  Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
    B.  Runway identification and course guidance.
    C.  Lateral course guidance to the runway.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. 9977.  When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates

    A.  Designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
    B.  Designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
    C.  Direction to the take-off runway.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. 9978.  The " runway hold position" sign denotes

    A.  An entrance to runway from a taxiway.
    B.  Intersecting runways.
    C.  An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. 9979. (Fig.66) the red symbol at sign D would most likely be found

    A.  Near the approach and of ILS runways.
    B.  At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
    C.  Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. 9980. " runway hold position" markings on the taxiway

    A.  Allows an aircraft permission on to the runway.
    B.  Identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
    C.  Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
    B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. 9981. (Fig.66) the pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway.  This is when the aircraft

    A.  Is past the solid-line side of sign G.
    B.  Is on the dashed-line side of sign G. 
    C.  Passes sign D. 
    A.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. 9982.  The " taxiway ending" marker

    A.  Provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.
    B.  Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. 
    C.  Indicates taxiway does not continue. 
    C.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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