Micro final 09

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Micro final 09
2009-12-12 01:02:12
Micro Final Fall09

Micro Final Fall09
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  1. A type of bacteria that thrives in bacic environment?
  2. A tye of bacteria that thrives in acidic environments?
  3. A type of bacteria that thrives in neutral environment?
  4. A type of bacteria that thrives in moderate temperatures (25-40'C)?
  5. A type of bacteria that thrives in hot temperatures?
  6. A type of bacteria that thrives in cold termperatures (15-20'C)?
  7. A type of archaen that lives in very high salt environment?
    Extreme Halophile.
  8. A type of archaen that lives in very high termperatures (360'C)
    Extreme Thermoacidicophile.
  9. A type of archaen that produces methane in the abscense of oxygen?
  10. A type of bacteria that can only divide inside a host cell?
  11. Eukaryotic, generally unicellular organism that do not have an embroyonic stage of development are in Kingdom___________?
  12. Eukaryotic, multicellular organisms that do not have cell walls, and reproduce by sexual reproduction are in Kingdom____________?
  13. Eukaryotic, mostly multicellular organisms that feed by absorption, produce spores are in Kingdom ___________?
  14. An Acellular, disease-causing microorganism?
  15. When you want to view bacteria that are encapsulated, the best stain to use is a...?
    Negative stain.
  16. Prokaryotic cells have____________ ribosomes and eukaryotic cells have____________ribosomes.
  17. A bacterial cell placed in a hypertonic soluction will...?
    Undergo plasmolysis because water exits the cell.
  18. Bacterial cells divide by the process of ...?
    Binary fission.
  19. Most pathogenic bacteria are ...?
  20. Describe the patterns of growth in a bacterial colony growing on an agar plate?
    Dying cells are located in the center of the colony, and rapidly growing cells are located on the edge.
  21. Observe the name of the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. The name Staphylococcus is the ...?
  22. The type of cells most susceptible to penicillian are...?
    Gram Positive.
  23. Certain ypes of bacteria have an outer membrane. This OM is composed of ...?
    • Phospholipid.
    • Lipipolysaccharide.
  24. Observe the drawing of a group of bacteria. Identify the Morphologyj and arrangement of the cells.
  25. Observe the drawing of a group of bacteria. Identify the morphology and arrangement of the cells.
  26. Simple stains are used to identify.
    • Cell shape.
    • Cell arrangement.
  27. Which region of the outer membrane is toxic to humans?
    Lipid A.
  28. An extremely tough structure that resist heat, drying and disinfectants, which is made by soem bacteria to preserve their existence in unfavorable conditions is a ...?
  29. A bacterium with two flagella, one located at each end of the cell is described as ...?
  30. If you want to view a specimen as small as a virus, which method of microscopy would you use?
    Electron Microscopy.
  31. Which subatomic particles are located in the nucleus of an atom?
    Both Protons and Neutrons.
  32. In phage-typing, bacteria that lysed by the same type of bacteriophage thought to be ...?
    More closely related to one another.
  33. When sodium (Na) loses an electron, it becomes a...?
  34. A substance with a pH of 2 is ....?
  35. When water disolves a crystal of salt (NaCl), how do the water molecules orient themselves?
    The positive hydrogens surround the negative chlorides, and the negative oxygens surround the positive sodiums.
  36. Protein are composed of ...?
    Amino Acids.
  37. The scientist who discovered penicillin was ...?
    Alexander Fleming.
  38. The bending of light waves moving from one medium to another is termed...?
  39. A type of carbohydrate that is made of many repeated subunits is a ...?
  40. If you want to perform a quick diagnosis of a patient with a possible case of syphilis, you could add some antibodies to a blood sample, and use the microsope to deterin if the antibodies have bound the syphilis antigen. What type of microsopy would you use?
    Fluorescence Microscopy.
  41. Phospholipids have...?
    Polar heads and nonpolar tails.
  42. The germ theory of disease states that ...?
    Microorganisims can invade other organisms and cause disease.
  43. The atomic number of an attom is 22. How many protons does this atom have?
  44. The scientist who developed the first microscopes and therefore, was the first to view microbial organisms was...?
    Anton van Leeuwenhoek.
  45. A type of chemical bond in which electrons are shared is a...?
    Covalent bond.
  46. A method for classifying bacteria that generate protein profiles/fingerprints is ...?
  47. A method of classifying bacteria that involves mixing dNA from two different bacteria, allowing them to anneal, and determining the amount of binding to determine relatedness is...?
    DNA Hybridization.
  48. A division withing a bacterial species is a ...?
  49. The ability to see two objects as separate and discreet units is....?
  50. A type of microscopy that does not use stainig, but instead changes the degre of brightness of internal structures of an organism by exploiting their different indices of refraction is...?
    Phase-Contrast Microscopy.
  51. Bacteria that lack cell walls are in the genus____________?
  52. Bacteria with a cell wall primarily composed of Mycolic acid are classified as ...?
    Acid Fast.
  53. A type of pilus used for transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another is a ______________ pilus?
  54. First stage of Bacterial growth curve is...?
    Lag stage.
  55. Second, upward stage of bacterial growth curve is...?
    Log stage.
  56. The third stage, high and flat, of bacterial growth curve is...?
    Stationary stage.
  57. The fourth stage, downward slope, is the...?
    Decline stage.
  58. The domain that includes the extremophiles is Domain....?
  59. The gram stain is a ______________ stain.
  60. Name two reasons for heat-fixing bacteria to a slide.
    • 1. Kill microorganisms.
    • 2. adhere microorganisms to the slide.
  61. Causative agent of Malaria?
    Plasmodium vivax.
  62. Causative agent of African Sleeping Sickness?
    Trypanosoma gambiense.
  63. Causative agent of Severe viral diarrhea in children.
  64. Causative agent of AIDS?
  65. Causative agent of Common cold?
  66. Causative agent of Chagas disease?
    Trypanosoma cruzi.
  67. Causative agent of Leishmaniasis?
    Leishmania donovani.
  68. Causative agent of Leukemia?
  69. Causative agent of Pandemic Flu?
    Influenza A.
  70. Causative agent of Cervical Cancer?
  71. Causative agent of Hepatitis A?
  72. The viral family for Herpes Virus?
  73. The viral family for Polio Virus?
  74. The viral family for Human Papilloma Virus?
  75. The viral family for Measles?
  76. The viral family for Rotavirus?
  77. The viral family for Rabies Virus.
  78. The viral family for Human Immunodeficiency Virus?
  79. The viral family for Rhinovirus?
  80. The viral family for Influenza?
  81. Short pieces of DNA produced on the lagging strand during DNA replication are called...?
    Okazaki fragments.
  82. The short pieces of DNA mentioned above (and the sugar-phosphate backbone of the new DNA strands) are fused togethe by the enzyme.
    DNA ligase.
  83. The products of the Krebs cycle are...?
    • ATP.
    • CO2.
    • FADH2.
    • NADH.
  84. Which type of RNA brings amino acids to the ribosomes?
    Transfer RNA.
  85. A type of mutation in which single nucleotide has been changed, resulting in a different amino acid in athe polypeptide chain is a ...?
    Missense Mutation.
  86. When FADH2 donates its electrons to the electron transport chain to power the formation of ATP this is an example of ....?
    Oxidative phosphorylation.
  87. Two strands of DNA are separated by the enzyme...?
  88. Which enzyme involved in DNA synthesis has the ability to correct mistakes?
    DNA Polymerase I
  89. When a bacteriophage transfers DNA randomly from one bacterium to another this is ...?
    Generalized Transduction.
  90. Which phylum includes the "imperfect fungi", which have no sexual cycle?
  91. What are the products of homolactic fermentation?
    Lactic acid.
  92. Viril RNA that must be copied to a complementary strand before the host cell can begin synthesizing its proteins is...?
    Minus (-) sense RNA.
  93. Protists that move by flagella belong to the phylum...?
  94. NADH is...?
    Reduced because it carries electrons.
  95. The total number of ATP produced from 1 molecule of glucose that proceeds through aerobic respiration is ...?
  96. An molecule that binds the active site of an enzyme and inhibits that enzyme from functioning is ...?
    Competitive Inhibitor.
  97. The products of glycolysis are...?
    • ATP.
    • NADH.
    • Pyruvate.
  98. The products of alcohol fermentation are...?
    • Alcohol.
    • Lactic Acid.
  99. When a phosphate group is transferred from one molecule directly to ADT to make ATP, this is called...?
    Substrate level Phosphorylation.
  100. Humans repair DNA by...?
    Excision repair.
  101. A bacterium that has the ability to produce a conjugation pilus must have a ...?
  102. The organism Toxoplasma gondii belongs to the phylum...?
    Sporozoa (Apicomplexans).
  103. Spongiform encephalopathies are caused by ...?
  104. A host that harbors a parasite during its sexual stage is referred to as a ...?
    Definitive host.
  105. Yeast are found in the phylum ________________ and they reproduce by ________________?
  106. A reaction that uses energy to build complex molecules is termed....?
  107. An atom, usually a metal ion, that improves the fit of the enzyme ant its substrate is an....?
  108. In prokaryotes, the Electron transport chain is located in the ...?
    Cell membrane.
  109. DNA synthesis is complicated because the to strands of the double helix are_________________, therefore there must be a leading strand and a lagging strand.
  110. When a bacterium takes up naked DNA and incorporates it into its chromosome, this is called....?
  111. During Catabolite repression...?
    Glucose is metabolized first, lactose is metabolized second.
  112. A type of medium that shows an observable color change in the medium or the colonies growing on the medium is called...?
  113. When a bacteriophage is in a virulent/actively replicating stage it is in the _________ phase, but when it remains dormant in the cell and does not replicate, it is in the __________ phase.
    • Lytic.
    • Lysogenic
  114. A bacterium with phage DNA incorporated into its chromosome is termed a...?
  115. A viral spike that facilitates entry of the virus into the host cell and causes red blood cells to clump is ...?
  116. When an influenza virus undergoes a seasonal change in its spikes, this is termed___________, but when it undergoes a sudden change in its spikes resulting in a pandemic strain, this is termed _____________.
    • Antigenic drift.
    • Antigenic shift.
  117. When the product of a metabolic pathway becomes a repressor and inhibits the enzyme at an early stage of the pathway, this is termed...?
    Feedback Inhibition.
  118. A set of genes under common control is a...?
  119. The antibody class that is the first to respond to an antigen upon initial exposure and as a pentamer, it can collect then antigens at once is...?
  120. The antibody class that attaches to basophils and is responsible for binding allergens is...?
  121. The antibody class that is the most prominent during the secondary response, and can cross the placenta is ...?
  122. The antibody class that is primarily found in mucosal surfaces and secretions such as saliva, tears, and colostrum is ...?
  123. An organism that lives on another organism, but does not help or harm the organsim exhibits which type of symbiosis?
  124. An organism that lives on another organism and benefits at the expense of its host (ie harms the host) exhibits which type of symbiosis?
  125. An organism that lives on another organism in an association in which both organisms benefit exhibits which type of symbiosis?
  126. The exoenzyme that dissolves the substance that holds cells of tissue together, allowing the pathogen to penetrate deeper into the host is ...?
  127. The mode of action usde by Tetracycline is...?
    Inhibition of protein synthesis.
  128. The mode of action used by Metronidazole is ...?
    Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
  129. The mode of action used by Penicillin is...?
    Inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
  130. The mode of action used by Trimethoprim is ...?
    Action as antimetabolites.
  131. The white blood cell that primarly attacks virally-infected cells by triggering the cell to die by apoptosis is ...?
    Natural Killer Cells.
  132. A white blood cell that ingests foreign invaders and infected or old cells by phagocytosis is a ...?
  133. A cardinal sign of inflammation is calor. This referes to ...?
  134. Fever is caused by ...?
  135. When complement proteins insert into the bacterial wall and membrane, essentially making a hole in the cell, this mechanism is ...?
    Membrane-Attack Complex (MAC)
  136. B-cells mature in the ....?
    Bone marrow.
  137. A drug that kills both gram-positive and grame negative bacteria?
  138. A hospital-acquired infection?
  139. Programmed cell death?
  140. Branch of immunity mediated by antibodies...?
  141. When pathogenic organisms penetrate the host defenses, enter the tissue, and multiply.
  142. A localized allergic reaction
  143. Proteins that allow pathogens to bind to receptors on target cells?
  144. Weakening of the diseases-producitn ability of pathogenic organisms usually for use in vaccines.
  145. When pathogenic organisms are established enough to alter the state of health of the host.
  146. When a drug is toxi to the pathogen but nontoxic to the host cells?
    Selective Toxicity.
  147. An overgrowth of an organsim in the body following desimation of the normal flora?
  148. Branch of the immune system that mediated by T-Cells?
  149. A systemic, explosive allergic reaction that results in airway obstruction and circulatory collapse?
  150. Dosage level of a drug that successfully eliminates the pathogen?
    Therapeutic dosage level.
  151. An accumulation of dead white blood cells, liquefied cell debris and bacteria.
  152. A nosocomial infection would be classified as which type of disease?
    Iatrogenic Disease.
  153. The enzyme secreted in your tears that cleave the bacterial cell wall is?
  154. When a cell is infected with a virus, it will release _____________ to signal other cells to make antiviral proteins.
  155. A structural or functional defect present at birth is classified as which type of disease?
  156. A type of disease whose cause is unknow an _______________ disease.
  157. When antibodies are passed from mother to child, this is an example of ____________ immunity.
    Natural Acquired Passive.
  158. When you make your own antibodies because you were infected by a pathogenic organism, this is an example of ____________ immunity.
    Natural Acquired Active.
  159. When you make your own antibodies because you received a vaccine, this is an example of _________________ immunity.
    Artificial Acquired Active.
  160. When you receive antibodies form another source like a hyperimmune serum, this is an example of ____________ immunity.
    Artificial Acquired Passive.
  161. T-cells mature in the ...?
  162. The complement molecule C3b functions as a....?
  163. TorF T-cells can make antibodies.
  164. TorF When a mother and her fetus are Rh incompatible, her antibodies will destroy the fetal red blood cells during the first and subsequent pregnancies.
  165. TorF T-cells cannot be activated directly by a free antigen.
  166. TorF Broad spectrum drugs can destroy your normal flora.
  167. TorF A person is contagious during the incubation stage.
  168. Complement activated by antibodies bount to an antigen is the ________________ pathway, and complement activated directly by the antigen is _____________ pathway.
    Classic; Alternative.
  169. The region of an antigen that is bound ty an antibody is the ...?
  170. The stage of infection in which a person has mild symptoms, but still feels well is the ____________ stage.
  171. The stage of infection in which the person is sick, experiencing all the signs and symptoms, and the pathogen is well established is the __________ stage.
  172. The type of B-Lymphocyte that shoots out mass amounts of antibodies (like a machine gun) is a _____________ cell.
  173. A type of hypersensitivity that involves T-Cells (no antibodies), which release cytokines to promote the inflammatory response is ____________________ hypersensitivity.
  174. A type of hypersensitivitiy that includes binding of an allergen to antibodies bound to mast cells, resulting in a release of histamine is _____________ hypersensitivity.
  175. A type of hypersensitivity that is caused by antigen-antibody formation taht remains in the body, and causes inflammation is ____________ hypersensitivity.
    Immune Complex.
  176. A type of hypersensitivity that is elicite by antigens on cells that the body recognizes as foreign, and therefore, attacks with antibodies is _____________ hypersensitivity.
  177. Refer to the diagram. This diagram shows _____________ ELISA, which detects _________________ in a person's serum.
  178. Causative agent for Scarlet Fever?
    Streptococcus pyrogenes.
  179. Causative agent for Dental caries?
    Streptococcus mutans.
  180. Causative agent for Diptheria?
    Corynebacterium diptheriae
  181. Causative agent for Smallpox?
    Variola Virus.
  182. Causative agent for Cholera?
    Vibrio Cholerae.
  183. Causative agent for Trachoma?
    Chlamydia trachomatis.
  184. Causative agent for Whooping cough?
    Bortadella pertussis.
  185. Causative agent for Q-fever?
    Coxiella burnettii
  186. Causative agent for Common Cold?
  187. Causative agent for Urban Plague?
    Yersinia pestis
  188. Causative agent for Scalded Skin Syndrome?
    Staphylococcus aureus
  189. Causative agent for Kaposi Sacoma?
    Human Herpes Virus 8
  190. Causative agent for Typhoid Fever?
    Salmonella typhi.
  191. Causative agent for Necrotizing Fascitis?
    Streptococcus pyrogenes.
  192. Causative agent for Buruli Ulcer?
    Mycobacterium ulcerans.
  193. Causative agent for Legionnaries Disease?
    Legionella pneumophila
  194. Causative agent for Acne Vulgaris?
    Propionibacterium acnes.
  195. Causative agent for Gas Gangrene?
    Clostridium perfringens
  196. Causative agent for Opthalmia Neonatum?
    Neisseria gonorrhea.
  197. Causative agent for Tuberculosis?
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  198. Causative agent for Glomerulonephritis?
    Streptococcus pyrogenes
  199. Causative agent for Rubella?
    Rubella virus
  200. Which toxin are produced by the causative agent of scalded skin syndrome?
    Exfoliation A&B
  201. Which toxins are produced by the causative agent of scarlet fever?
    erythorgenic toxin.
  202. A respiratory disease characterized by the formation of a pseudomembane is...?
  203. Infectious organisms in the nasopharynx can enter the eustaschian tubes and cause...?
    Otitis media.
  204. A pathogenic strain of E. coli that has a lasmid encoded K antigen allowing it to invade the intestinal mucosa is ...?
  205. One type of toxin produced by the causative agento f necrotizing fasciitis, which destroys tissue proteins is ...?
    exotoxin B.
  206. A toxin produced by the causative agent of whooping cough, which increases its virulence, has the ablility to...?
    Paralyze the cilia.
  207. Burn patients often suffer from infections caused by ...?
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
  208. A condition caused by Streptococcus pyogenes that results in crusted lesions on the skin (aka the booger disease) is...?
  209. An enzyme secreted in your tears is_____________ which is most effective against __________ bacteria.
    Lysozyme; Gram-postive.
  210. An inflammation of the gums is termed...?
  211. The causative agent of Diptheria can make toxins because....?
    The agent has a prophage allowing it to make the toxin.
  212. An inflammation of the kidneys, whcih can lead to leaking of proteins and blood in the urin is ______________, and it is caused by ________________.
    Glomerulonephritis; Streptococcus pyrogenes.
  213. Calcified, walled-off regions of the lungs, which contain live pathogenic organisms and macrophages are termed....?
  214. An inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is termed...?
  215. When bacteria enters the bloodstream this is termed _________________, but when they enter and grow and multipy in the bloodstream this is termed ________________.
    Bacteremia; Septicemia.
  216. A sty would primarly be caused by....?
    Staphylococcus aureus.
  217. A disease characterized by a rash and Koplick's spots is...?
  218. A continuously formed coating of microorganisms and organic matter on teeth is...?
    Dental Plaque.
  219. The primary cause of neonatal sepsis is....?
    Streptococcus agalactiae.
  220. The stage of plague characterized by necrosis of all parts of the body and shock is....?
  221. The stage of plague characterized by swollen, tender lymph nodes is...?
  222. TorF In necrotizing faschiitis, te causative agent litterally eats away the tissue.
  223. TorF Pneumocystis Pneumonia is caused by bacteria.
  224. TorF Some pathogenic organsims can survive and multiply within macrophages.
  225. TorF It is possible to make a vaccine for the common cold.
  226. TorF The causative agent of SARS is a type of rhinovirus.
  227. TorF Bacteria can acquire toxin-producing genes from bacteriophage infections.