Card Set Information

2014-10-24 01:11:56

Show Answers:

  1. NAVTEX is a navigational warning system that uses the internationally designated frequency of ______ kHz to broadcast
  2. ________ is an unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of unintentional signals that, if intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information transmitted, received, handled, or otherwise processed by telecommunication or automated information systems equipment
  3. Medium Frequency Range
    250-525 kHz
  4. High Frequency Range
    2.0-30.0 MHz
  5. Very High Frequency Range
    118-175 MHz
  6. Ultra High Frequency Range
    225-400 MHz
  7. Each VTS system may consisit of up to ____ remote sites
  8. ________ is the SMEF for VTS
  9. DGPS provides a reliable position accuracy of better than ____ meters.
  10. The Globabl Positioning System employs approximately ___ satellites.
  11. GPS is designed so that _____ to ______ satellites are in view at anytime and from any position.
    six, eleven
  12. GPS satellites use ____ frequencies to continually transmit data that includes information such as the satellite position and ranging information.
  13. GPS most have ____ satellites to define latitude and longitude.
  14. A minimum of _____ satellites must be used to obtain a GPS fix.
  15. GPS must have ______ satellites to define latitude, longitude, and altitude.
  16. _______ is the SMEF for DGPS.
  17. DGPS is controlled from two control stations in the following locations:
    Alexandria, VA (NAVCEN)
  18. Petaluma, CA (NAVCEN Detachment)
  19. Each DGPS control staion uses how many T-1 data circuits?
  20. SRAN equipment provides navigational coverage from __ to __ miles.
    1, 30
  21. The AN/USQ-91(V) ACMS are designed for mounting in a ___-inch electronic equipment rack. The monitor group and interconnecting group occupy ___feet of vertical space in a 24-inch deep equipment rack.
    19, three
  22. The Control Display Group unit displays the status of up to __ monitored functions and allows the control of _____ functions at each remote unit.
    32, eight
  23. The GCF-RWL-2231 NAVAID Sensor Module is a small gray box approximately ___ inches square, about __ pounds.
    12, 10
  24. The CEVV-VM100 Fog Detector is __ inches square that is mounted to a __-foot pedestal and weighs ___ pounds.
    18, 6, 60
  25. The LPC equipment is ___ inches square and weigh ___pounds.
    24, 100
  26. The GCF-RWL-2098 AVC is __ inches square and weighs __ pounds
    24, 40
  27. The SRAN AC Flash Controller uses an internal CG-181 flasher to provide daylight control of the main light. The main light is up to _____ W at ___ VAC.
    1000, 120
  28. The Fog Detector contains ____ plugs to facilitate testing and repair.
  29. The GCF-RWL-2105 AC Flash Controller is __ inches square and weighs __ pounds.
    18, 20
  30. Setting the CG-181 at a voltage of __-__volts usually ensures proper operation.
    12, 13
  31. The SRAN RACON responds to radar pulses in the marine ____-____ and ____-____ MHz microwave bands.
    2900-3100, 9300-9500
  32. The CFAF-SEABEACON RACON is ___pounds and __ inches in length.
  33. The CDPD Sound Signals weighs ____ pounds.
  34. The GCF-W-1201 RLC-CU Range Light Controller is ___ inches square, weighs ___ pounds.
    24, 60
  35. A radio frequency request must be made to Commandant (CG-62) at least ___ days prior to the first transmission.
  36. Commandant (CG-62) has earmarked _____ frequencies for use in the SRAN automation program
  37. IFF Stage 1
  38. IFF Stage:
  39. The IFF interrogator equipment :
  40. Identifies a craft on search radar, and
  41. challenges the craft to identify itself
    Stage 1, Challenge
  42. IFF Stage 2
  43. IFF Stage:
  44. The IFF transponder equipment replies automatically
    IFF Stage 2, Reply
  45. IFF Stage 3
  46. IFF Stage:
  47. When the IFF interrogator recognizes the craft as friendly, a decision is made outside the scope of this manual.
    IFF Stage 3, Recognition
  48. IFF Mode 1
    Field Command: Determines type of aircraft of mission
  49. IFF Mode 2
    Platform Identity: Identifies a specific airframe or ship
  50. IFF Mode 3/A
    AFC identity codes
  51. IFF Mode 4
    Secure identification of friendly platform
  52. IFF Mode C
    Barometric pressure altitude of aircraft in 100 foot increments
  53. THe range for IFF altitude measurements is from ___ to ___ feet mean sea level.
    100- 125,500
  54. IFF modes used to respond to Anti-Air Warfare
    Modes 1, 2, 3/A and 4
  55. IFF modes used to respond to Air Control.
    Modes 2, 3/A, and C
  56. IFF modes used to respond Surface Identification
    Modes 1, 2, 3/A, and 4
  57. IFF code for emergency
  58. IFF code for communications failure
  59. ______ is a short-range, omni-bearing, distance-measuring navigation system that provides a continuous indication of the
  60. bearing and distance of the airplane
  61. TACAN surface line of sight distance is up to ___ nautical miles
  62. A TACAN beacon from suitably equipped, cooperating aircraft located within a line-of-sight distance up to ____ nautical miles.
  63. The TACAN system has ___ channels available.
  64. The TACAN channels are equally divided into ____ X channels and ___ Y channels.
    126, 126
  65. Both X and Y TACAN channels are spaced +++ MHz apart.
  66. The TACAN transmitter section transmits interrogation pules in the ____-____ MHz frequency range.
    1025, 1150
  67. The TACAN receiver section operates in the ___ to ___ MHz frequency range.
    962, 1213
  68. The number of antenna elements on a Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) varies from ____ to as many as ____.
    4, 16
  69. When working within ____ feet of exposed energized circuits, do not wear metal items, such as
  70. • rings
  71. • watches
  72. • bracelets
  73. • dog tags, or
  74. • metal-framed eyewear.
  75. Rubber insulating loves are rated for voltages less than _____ VAC to ground, and high voltages of _____ and ______ VAC to ground
    5000, 7500, 17000
  76. For both men and women, gloves rated for high voltages must be __ inches in total length with a __-inch gauntlet.
    14, 4
  77. When working on live electrical circuits of __ volts or more, non-conductive shoes that meet American National Standards Institute (ANSI)-Z41 requirements must be worn.
  78. Specifications for rubber or plastic matting and sheet floor coverings used around electrical apparatus or circuits to prevent accidental exposure to electrical potentials not exceeding _____ volts.
  79. Shorting probes, rated at ______ volts, must be located conspicuously in all spaces where electronic equipment is installed.
  80. Currently, ___ types of matting for covering an entire space have been approved for use.
  81. Rubber matting is designed to protect personnel from accidental exposure to electric potentials not exceeding ____ volts.
  82. At a minimum, _____-inch wide 3M electrical insulating tape should be used for sealing the seams of rubber floor matting.
  83. How long are rubber floor matting rolls?
    75 feet
  84. How many colors of rubber floor matting?
  85. Blue
  86. Marbelized Blue
  87. Green
  88. Marbelized Green
  89. Black
  90. What colors are High Voltage signs?
  91. Size of high voltage warning and danger signs?
    10 inches by 14 inches
  92. A labeling plate must be affixed to equipment with more than ____ power source (that is, ____ volts or more).
    1, 12
  93. A __ inch by__ inch cardboard safety tag, with an attached cord, must be
  94. attached to equipment when personnel are working on circuits.
    7.5, 4
  95. A _________ is a shock absorbing fall restraint device that attaches to the body harness.
    deceleration lanyard
  96. Deceleration lanyards must be no more than ____ feet in total length to limit free falls to ____ feet.
    six, six
  97. Records show that _____ of ten electric shock victims revive when CPR is begun immediately (less than ______ minutes) after the shock occurred.
    seven, three
  98. The temperature in battery compartments must be maintained at less than __ Fahrenheit (F).
  99. Lead acid batteries should only be opened in an extreme emergency if the room temperature is more than ____ F.
  100. Lead acid batteries must be stored in the _______ state.
  101. How long should you flush your eyes with water after they come in contact with acid?
    15, 20
  102. If there is acid exposure to the skin continuously flush the affected skin for ___ - ___ minutes.
  103. NiCad batteries are capable of operating in temperatures ranging from -____ F to +____ F
    -140, +140
  104. NiCad batteries temperature range for charging?
    +32 F to +113 F
  105. The recommended constant current charging rate for NiCad batteries is ____.
  106. A completely discharged NiCad battery requires __-__hours of charging.
  107. The trickle charge rate for a NiCad batttery should be _______
  108. Rubber insulating gloves should be rated at _____ volts.
  109. ________ (which is extremely explosive) is emitted from wet cell lead acid batteries when charging.
    Hydrogen gas
  110. Tools or equipment that display more than ___ milliroentgen per hour must be decontaminated with soap and water.
  111. The DGPS Broadcast frequencies are between _____ - ______.
    285.5 kHz- 325 kHz
  112. Range of the RF spectrum.
    0- 3000 GHz
  113. S-band and X-band radar systems operate within what RF frequency band?
    Super High Frequency
  114. Super High Frequency band range.
    3 GHz -30 GHz
  115. What RF band is used for ship-to-aircraft communications?
  116. What RF band is used for ship-to-ship communications?
  117. The maximum rate of absorption by the human body can occur within the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit frequency range of _________.
    30–300 MHz (VHF band).
  118. Exposure time limit for occupational population/controlled exposure.
    6 minutes
  119. Exposure time limit for general population/uncontrolled exposure.
    30 minutes
  120. When a worker is exposed to a power density limit two times higher than the limit the workere must be away from thee field for ______ minutes before or after exposure.
  121. When a worker is exposed to a power density limit three times higher than the limit the workere must be away from thee field for ______ minutes before or after exposure.
  122. DGPS Broadcast sites use several different types of antennae that broadcast on an MF frequency from ____ to _____ watts.
    250 to 2500
  123. The standard PEL boundary at all DGPS sites is ___ feet from the broadcast antenna.
  124. Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used in areas surrounding RF antennae to advise personnel not to remain within the permissible exposure limit (PEL) boundary longer than the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) time limit allows
  125. Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to restrict personnel from proceeding past a designated point unless they are in compliance with the established radiation hazard safety procedures.
  126. Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to advise personnel of an RF burn hazard source and not to touch metal objects or use special handling procedures when touching metal objects.
  127. Type __ RF (RADHAZ warning signs are used to warn personnel of Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuel (HERF).
  128. Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are labels that are generally used below deck in a system equipment room to advise system operators of specific safety precautions.
  129. Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to advise personnel not to operate transmitters, cellular telephones, or other wireless communication devices within a designated area.
  130. Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to ensure that personnel follow the Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) safety practices.
  131. Type __ RF RADHAZ warning signs are used to advise operators to refer to the unit Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to
  132. Ordnance (HERO) Emission Control Plan before operating a transmitter, and ensure that the procedures for restricting RF emissions are followed
  133. Electronic equipment is expected to have a service life of __ years.
  134. Major acquisitionas are over $__ or are under $__ but require management attention (normally between $__ and $__/
    50M, 50M( normally between $5M and $50M)
  135. Non-major acquisitions range from $__ to $__/
    100K to $5M
  136. Simplified Acquisitions are up to $___
  137. Funding code for:
  138. Ground and ship-based electronic equipment
  139. • acquisition
  140. • installation, and
  141. • major maintenance.
  142. The ELC’s electronic repairables are identified by the Cognizance (COG) code __.
  143. A preprinted form that was packed with the serviceable item when it was shipped from the ELC.
  144. DD-1348-1
  145. A tag that is
  146. • used to describe the problem with the defective equipment, and
  147. • affixed to the equipment before shipment to the ELC.
    Serviceable/Unserviceable Material Tag (CG-5236)
  148. Mandatory turn-in items are considered overdue if not received at the ELC within __ days from the date the item was shipped by the ELC
  149. Units with overdue MTI items are
  150. • notified via MSG when items are overdue, and
  151. • given __ days to respond or to return the overdue item.
  152. Hazardous location Class:
  153. The presence of a flammable gas or vapor
    Class I
  154. Hazardous location Class:
  155. The presence of a flammable dust.
    Class II
  156. Hazardous location class:
  157. The presence of flammable fibers of flyings
    Class III
  158. An index of all applicable MPCs for a given piece of equipment of system.
    Index of Maintenance Procedures
  159. A list of all CGPMS materials for electronic equipment installed at or supported by the unit, and the total annual maintenance hours for all the listed equipment.
    List of Effective IMPs
  160. A three-part form used to ensure continuous improvement to the CGPMS.
  161. Feedback Report CG-5451
  162. Form number for the Monthly PMS Maintenance Schedule
  163. Form number for the Annual PMS Maintenance Schedule
  164. Form number for the Equipment History form
  165. MTRTS Quarterly submissions should be sent no later than ___ days following the end of the quarter.
  166. Typical coax line pressure should be from ___ - ___ pounds.
  167. Utilize a ______ to test a wire antennae.
    Time Domain Reflectometer
  168. Use __________ to record the results of megger testing on transmitting and receiving antenna systems and submarine cables.
  169. When megging an antenna, a resistance measurement of _____ or less means maintenance is needed.
    200 Megaohms
  170. A resistance of _____ or less indicates an immediate and urgent need to find and correct the cause of the problem.
    5 megaohms
  171. For equipment that has been immersed in saltwater you should blow out all moisture with low-pressure air and dry it thorougly for __ hours at a temperature of approximately _____ F.
    24, 150
  172. What should be done to prepar whip antennas for cold weather?
    Drill a 1/8" hole in the base of each antenna
  173. Extreme cold weather operations start at what temperature?
    below -35
  174. Thaw dry batteries for one hour at about ___F, then for a second hour at ___F.
    27, 70
  175. Type __ field change furnishes a field change parts kit (which is assigned an Activity Control number, and includes documentation, parts, and special tools) required to complete a change.
  176. Type __ field change furnishes documentation only.
  177. Type __ field change furnishes documentation and some of the parts or special tools needed in a field change parts kit.
  178. Type __ field change implements changes to technical documentation only. It requires no alterations to the equipment.
  179. Field changes on NTNO equipment initiated by the Navy start with __.
  180. Field changes on NTNO equipment initiated by the Coast Guard start with __.
  181. A field change parts kit is included with Type __ and Type __ field changes.
  182. The GCF-RWL-2106 AC Flash Controller weighs about ___ pounds and is approximately ___ inches square.
    20, 18
  183. The maximum rate of absorption by the human body can occur within the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit frequency range of ____________.
    30–300 MHz (VHF band)
  184. Extended exposure at the frequency range of _________ MHz is dangerous.
  185. Determining the location and size of PEL fences is the responsibility of the :
  186. SMEF
  187. CEU
  188. ++++++ creates PEL boundaries
  189. ++++++ Identifies radiation hazards in the unit
  190. IFF has +++ challenge modes
  191. TACAN's transmitter section transmits interrogation pulses in the ++++ - ++++ MHz range
    1025, 1150
  192. MH/HF ADF's have an accuracy of less than ++++ degrees
  193. Open lead acid batteries
  194. • only in a well-ventilated space, and
  195. • if the room temperature is more than +++ F only in an extreme emergency.
  196. MH/HF ADFs have a useful range of less than ++++ miles at 200 KHz and ++++ miles at 2 MHz
    200, 50
  197. Some CRTs use phosphors, which contain small amounts of the
  198. harmful chemical ++++
  199. An area is considered safe from contamination when less than +++ milliroentgen per hour is emitted at the surface of the area.
  200. Many ship-to-shore communication systems use the ++++ band
  201. The frequency range for the purpose of exposure guidelines is ++++ - ++++
    300 kHz - 100 GHz
  202. SRAN frenquncies?
    406-420 MHz