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- - Unique in dog
- - Only one strain
- - Brucella canis
- - Bacteria
- - Enzoonotic
- - Gram negative
- - Reactive with Brucellosis ovis.
- - Epidemiology:
- 2% Nation & 7% South U.S.
What is the #1 cause of abortion in dogs and cats?
Transmission of Canine Brucellosis:
- - Transmitted through semen and vaginal discharge and aborted fetal tissues and urine.
- - Oronasal, direct contact and food/water.
- - Infection occurs by penetration of oronasal, conjunctival and genital mucous membranes.
- - Shedding of Brucellosis can occur for up to 6 weeks after abortion.
A cows placenta is considered retained after ___ hours.
A horses placenta is considered retained after ___ minutes.
What is secondary inertia?
Injecting Oxycontin into dog.
Pathogenesis for Brucellosis:
- - Venereal disease with Brucellosis canie found in lymph nodes, spleen and reproductive tissues.
- - Intracellular
- - Characterized by bacteremia.
- - Can last 6 months - 5 years.
- - Spontaneous immunity has happened, but depends on cell-mediated immunity.
Location of Brucellosis:
- - Uterus
- - Testicles/prostates
- - Lymphatics
- - Rarely the eye, kidney and invertebrae discs.
Treatment of Brucellosis:
- a) Dog - Castration
- b) Bitch - OHE (OVH)
- c) Tetracycline
Signs of Brucellosis in the bitch and dog:
- Bitch:- Abortion after 30 days of gestation
- - Early embryonic death and pregnancy termination
- - Generalized lymph nodes
- - Some pups born alive, some dead.
- - Infertility.
- Dog:- Infertility with sperm 30-80% abnormal
- - Orchitis
- - Scrotal swelling
Diagnoses of Brucellosis canis:
- 1. Rapid Slide Agglutination Test (RSAT)
- - Inexpensive
- - In office screening test
- 2. Tube Agglutination Test (TAT)
- - Titer info of positive RSAT
- - 1:200 = weak
- 3. Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGAD)
- - Sensitive
- - Specific test for antibodies to Brucellosis canis antigen.
Immunogeldiffusion Test =
Brucellosis is called what in humans?
- - Brucellosis in humans.
- - Lifelong infection
- - Never cured
- - Undulates every 3 months
Other forms of Brucellosis:
Brucella abortus =
Brucella melitensis =
Brucella ovis =
Brucella neotomae =
Brucella suis =
- - Cattle
- - Sheep/goats
- - Sheep
- - Rodents
- - Pig
Cat Scratch Disease =
- - Bacteria
- - Zoonotic
- - Attacks the RBC
- - Bartonella is the Genus
- - Gram negative
- - No longer self limiting disease
- - Chronic infection, debilitating and hard to diagnose.
- - Infects dogs, cats, cows, deer, squirrels, etc.
Lyme disease =
Bartonella - Big 4:
- 1) Bartonella henselae - most commonly
- known as
- "Cat Scratch Disease"
- 2) Bartonella clarridgeiae
- 3) Bartonella vinsonii - most common in US
- & #1 in humans/cats.
- 4) Bartonella koehlerae
- Others include:
- - Bartonella quintana
- - Bartonella bovis
- - Bartonella elizabethae
How is Bartonellosis transmitted?
- - Fleas and the inoculation of flea feces.
- - Infected nail beds and saliva of cats with bites/scratch.
- - Can lead to: arthritis.
- - Cat to cat; human to human.
Where is Bartonellosis more common?
Symptoms of Feline Bartonellosis:
- - Most asymptomatic
- - Appear after 2-16 days if they do show:
- - Fever
- - Skin inflammation
- - Pustules at site of infection
- - Muscle pain
- - Lymphadenopathies (enlarged lymph nodes)
- - Anterior uveitis
- - Lethargy
How prevalent is Bartonellosis?
50% of vets/RVTs tested were infected.
Symptoms of Bartonellosis in humans:
- - Show 3-20 days after exposure.
- - Mild to severe self limiting infection.
- - Skin rash (25-90% of people).
- - Enlarged lymph nodes (can last up to 2 yrs).
- - Complications such as brain inflammation, heart inflammation and nerve involvement in 5-16% of patients.
- 1) Polymerse Chain Reaction Test
- 2) Serology - IgG Titer of 1:128
Treatment of Bartonellosis:
- - Most self limiting and need no treatment.
- - Drugs to treat Bartonellosis:1) Clindamycin
- 2) Doxycycline
Prevention of Bartonellosis:
Imidacloprid (10%) and Moxidectin (1%) block transmission of Bartonella flea to flea.
- - French named "Cat Scratch Disease."
- - Ted Nugant called pyrexia of "Cat Scratch Disease", "Cat Scratch Fever."
- - Moves in blood via RBC.
Where is Bartonella cultured on a postive Bartonellosis cat?
- 1st Blood
- 2nd Skin
- 3rd Clawbed
- 4th Gingiva
40% of _____, which is known as the cat flea, carry Bartonella.
- Ctendocephalides felis
Bartonella is associated with what two diseases?
- 1) Skin diseases
- 2) Anemias with hookworms.
- - Prevalent in SE Texas.
- - Bacteria
- - Affects human and animals
- - CDC estimates 100-200 human cases annually in US.
Symptoms associated with Leptospirosis:
- - "Rice Field Fever" (contact w contaminated H2O)
- - "Swam Fever" (associated w Equine Infectious Anemia)
- - "Red Water"
5 Types of Leptospirosis:
- - Leptospirosis canicola - Primarily dogs
- - Leptospirosis grippotyphosa
- - Leptospirosis hardjo
- - Leptospirosis icterohaemorrhagiae
- - Leptospirosis pomona
Transmission of Leptospirosis:
- - Shed in urine
- - Rodents, wildlife, livestock, and dogs can be reservoirs.
- - Not common in cat.
- - Animals/human infected through contact with urine/water/soil.
- - Bacteria enters body through inhalation, ingestion and abrasions.
Leptospirosis in Dogs:
- - Incubate 3-20 days
- - Fever, vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia, diarrhea, lethargy, muscle pain and jaundice.
- - Elevated BUN and creatinine
Fort Bragg Disease =
- - Dirofilaria immitus
- - Nematode
- - Intermediate host = Mosquito (female)
- - Pathology: Related to # of adults
- - Incidence: Worldwide
3 types of Mosquito species associated with Heartworms:
- 1) Culex
- 2) Aedes
- 3) Anopheles
Diagnoses of Heartworms:
- a) Blood Sample
- b) History
- c) Radiology
- d) Echnocardiography
5 types of Blood Sample tests for Heartworms:
- 1) Direct Smear = 64% effective
- 2) Modified Knotts Method = 84% effective
- 3) Micropore Filtration Method = 84% effective
- 4) Microhematocrit Tube = Least effective
- 5) Occult Test = Most effective
- a) antigen
- b) antibody
- - cats
Occult Test - Antigen Test:
- - Produced by female mature adult.
- - Antigen is Glycoprotein substance.
- - Takes 3, or more females to produce a positive.
Occult Test - Antibody Test:
- measures host antibodies that have developed to that adult antigens.
50% (10-67%) of dogs with adult heartworms are _____ for microfilaria.
2-5% of dogs microfilaria with ________.
Adult heartworms live ____ years.
Microfilaria live ______ years.
Products that can react with Microfilariae:
- 1) Milbemysince oxime - Interceptor
- 2) Diethycarbamazine citrate - Filaribits
Lifecycle of the Heartworm:
- a) S1 (microfilariae) & S5 (adult) - Dog 1
- b) S1 in mosquito molts to S3 (infective stage) in 1 to 4 weeks depending on temperature.
- c) S3 enters dog 2 & molts to S4 in 1 to 2 weeks.
- d) S4 stays in subcutaneous area for 100 days.
- e) S4 moves to pulmonary artery & molts to premature S5, staying in pulmonary artery as S5 for 80 days.
- f) After 80 days in the pulmonary artery as the premature S% it will mature to S5 & begin mating & produce S1.
Why is Heartworms called The 3 Month Disease?
- Called the 3 month disease because the S5 immature form is in the pulmonary artery for 80 days (3 months) before maturing to the adult S5.
It takes __ months for the S1 to show.
(6 Month Infection)
S1 to S3 in Mosquito: Temperature & Days
- Temp: Days:
- 30°C 8
- 26°C 12
- 22°C 17
- 18°C 29
- 12°C Death
A mosquito can only carry ___ microfilariae before it dies.
- 10 dogs exposed to 100 S3 = ____ infected.
- Worms in each dog = ____ S5 immature adults
- ____ S5 immature develop to = ____ S5 mature adults
Average dog has ___ heartworms postmortem.
- 10 cats exposed to 100 S3 = ____ infected
- Worms in each cat = ____ S5 immature adult
- ____ S5 immature develop into = ____ mature
- - 7 infected
- - 7
- - 7
- - 0 to 1
The average cat has ____ heartworms post mortem.
0 to 1
Why is 14 the average # of adults post mortem?
- Protein recognition of the repeated Heartworm lifecycle and antibody production cause less worm to survive.
The ___ mosquito is a dual mosquito, meaning it feeds on dogs and cats.
Classification of Heartworm Severity:
- Class 1 = Asymptomatic, or mild signs.
- Class 2 = Moderate clinical & radiographic abnormalities.
- Class 3 = Severe clinical & radiographic abnormalities including right side CHF.
- Class 4 = Often included to identify the Class 3 patients that also have Caval Syndrome.
Complete Blood Count:
- - Eosinophil and Basophilia: Most common abnormalities on CBC.
- - Neutrophilic Leukocytosis: Seen with pulmonary thromboembolisms.
- - Thrombocytopenia: Seen with arterial and lunch associated diseases.
- - Hemoglobinuria: Seen with caval syndrome and pulmonary diseases.
- - Hepatic inefficiencies with elevated ALT and ALP hepatic enzyme levels high.
- - Protein uria and increase in BUN.
Prevention of Heartworms:
- a) Diethylcarbamazine citrate - Pfizer
- b) Ivermectin (Heartgard) - Merial
- c) Milbemycine oxime (Interceptor) - Novartis
- d) Selamectin (Revolution) - Pfizer
- e) Moxidectin (Advantage Multi) - Bayer
Diethylcarbamazine citrate (DEC):
- - Filaribits
- - Pfizer Corporation
- - Taken daily
- - Kills only S3
- - Heartgard
- - Merial Coroporation
- - Taken once a month orally
- - For dogs, cat and ferrets
- - Kills S3 and S4
- - Ivomec 1% = Cattle Dewormer
- - treats positive heartworm dogs with
- - Interceptor and Sentinel (add Lufeneron)
- - Novartis
- - Oral; every 30 days.
- - Kills S3 and S4.
- - Revolution
- - Pfizer
- - Parts of Avermectin
- - Topical; once a month
- - Prevent heartworm and flea replication
- - Proheart6
- - Fort Dodge
- - Injection
- - Every 6 months.
Moxidectin and Immidacloprid:
- - Advantage Multi (called Advocate in Europe)
- - Bayer (bought from Fort Dodge)
- - Topical
- - Treats demodectic mange.
- 1. Ivermectin 1% - Cattle Dewormer
- -1/4 mL/40# body weight oral
- - Drug of choice (Not FDA approved)
- 2. Selamectin (Revolution)
- 3. Ditniazine Iodide (Dizan)
- - FDA approved
- 4. Levamisole
- 5. Fenthion
Treating Adult Heartworms:
- - Melarsomine dihydrochloride - Immiticide
- - By Merial
- - Drug of choice
- - Monitor kidney/liver function b/c of arsenic compound
- - 1 cc per 22 pounds
- - 1 IM/SQ injection. Repeat in 30 days.
What are other drugs may need to be used to treat Heartworms?
- 1. Aspirin
- - reduces # of clots and improves blood flow.
- 2. Heparin
- - replaced by aspirin.
- 3. Corticoseteroids
- - reduce inflammation in lungs.
- 4. Oxygen
- - for anaphylactic reactions.
Routine for Dirofilaria Treatment:
- a) Office visit with Diagnoses (antigen lab)
- b) Schedule Lab Test
- - EX: BUN, Alhphos, ALT, CBC, Radiology
- c) Initiate Microfilaria Treatment/Preventative
- d) Treatment for Adults
- - 1 IM/subq/wait 1 month/repeat
- e) Treat for L1 if positive and check for antigen 4 months post treatment.
Why is there no documented correlation with # of adults and severity?
- Provides more Pulmonary Vascular Resistance in dogs with few adults.
Post Adult Heartworm Treatment Complications:
- 1) Dyspnea/coughing
- 2) Acute Lung Injury due to absorption of treated adults
- 3) Pulmonary Thromboembolisms
- 4) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Vena Cava Syndrome:
- - Caval Syndrome
- - Diagnose with echnocardiography
- - Treat with immiticide, it will produce acute cardiovascular collapse and shock.
Most fungal diseases result from _____ of fungal spores (saphrocytes) or wound contamination.
______ are fungi on the skin and _____ are fungi under the skin.
- - Not contagious
- - Infections contracted via inhalation of infected spores or mycelial fragments and rarely via skin penetration.
- - All fungi discussed are dimorphic, except Cryptococcosis.
- - Properties of both sexes
- - Self fertilizing
What are the two #1 symptoms with fungi (systemic mycotics)?
- - Chronic cough
- - Persistant fever
Who is more commonly affected by fungi?
- Cause death in dogs and humans more often in cats.
Symptoms of Fungal Infections:
- - Lesions caused by infections
- - Abscessations
- - Ulcerations
- - Nodular formations
Systemic fungal infections are _____.
North American Blastomycosis:
- Synonyms: Gilchrists Disease
- Etiology: Blatomyces dermatitis - N.American
- Paracoccidiodes brasilienses - S.American
- Clinical Signs:
- Respiratory Infection>>Vascular system>> subskin, eye, skeleton
- - Most common in SE Texas
- - Males infected more than females
- - Females more likley to survive treatment.
Clinical Signs of Blastomycosis:
- - Chronic wasting disease
- - Lungs commonly infected site, along with bronchial and lymph nodes.
- - Anorexia
- - Cough
- - Dyspnea
- - Ocular Disease
- - Lameness
- - Skin lesions
Blastomycosis: Clinical Signs
- 85% = lung lesions with dry harsh lung sounds
- 40% = ocular lesions
- 20-50% = pustular skin lesions
- 30% = bone involvement and lameness
Mode of Infection for Mycotics:
- - Spores enter airway and establish infection in lungs.
- - Yeast grows at body temperature.
- - Too large to enter airway in aerosol form.
- - Hence why its not contagious.
- Etiology: Histoplasma capsulatum
- Classical Clinical Signs:
- a) Intestinal Form - Bloody diarrhea
- b) Lymphoid Form - General
- - Saprophytic
- - Found in dung of chickens and bats.
- - Most common fungus in SE Texas.
Histoplasmosis in Cats:
- - Prevalent in wet weather.
- - Found in soil in 38 of 48 states.
- - TX is endemic zone.
- - Following inhalation, the Histoplasma spores convert to their active yeast phase at body temperature and proliferate in tissues.
What is the real scientific name for Histoplasmosis?
Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum
Clinical Signs of Histoplasmosis:
- - Similar to Blastomycosis
- - Site of infection is the lungs, bronchial and medistinal lymph nodes.
- - Infected at age 2 months - 14 years.
- - Intestinal form with bloody diarrhea
- - most common
- - Cats more susceptible
- Synonyms: Valley Fever, or San Joaquin
- Valley Fever
- Etiology: Coccidioides immitus
- - Haploid
- - Soil bone fungus
- - No known sexual state
Epidemiology of Coccidioides:
- - Lower sonoran life zone (SW US, Mexico, and Central and S. America).
- - Zone has sandy alkaline soil.
- - High temperatures
- - Low rainfall
- - Low elevations
- - Not contagious
- - Route of infections is inhalation.
- - SW U.S.
- Clinical Signs:
- - Infects lungs, bronchial and medistinal lymph nodes.
- - Chronic cough
- - Persistant fever
- - Bone lesions
________________, also known as Histoplasmosis, is the most common system mycotic infection in people.
San Joaquin Valley Fever
Cryptococcosis (European Blastomycosis):
- - Respiratory in origin
- - Predilection for the CNS and upper respiratory facts.
- - Etiology: Cryptococcosis neoformans (common)
- Cryptococcosis gatti
Epidemiology of Cryptococcosis:
- - Worldwide distribution with infections in cats, dogs, ferrets, horses, goats, birds, cattle, etc.
- - Affects more species than any other we've discussed.
Distribution of Cryptococcosis:
- - Worldwide
- - Pigeon excrement often source of infection, remaining viable for 2-5 years.
- - Pigeons not infected naturally.
Clinical Signs of Crytococcosis:
- - URD common with sneezing, sniffling, and mucopurulent discharges.
- - CRT and CNS and cutaneous lesions.
- - CRT and CNS major sites affected
Diagnoses of Fungal Infections:
- a) Skin Test Antigens
- 1. ID injections
- 2. 1/10 mL solution injected
- **Read 1 to 2 hours after injection**
- b) Serology- Determination of titers of circulating antibodies.
- - Same problem as skin test.
- c) Microscopic Identification of Fungi- #1
- - Common from puss subcutanous extractions on blastomycosis.
- - Look for buds.
Treatment of Fungal Infections:
- a) Amphotericin B (fungizone) - IV- Mixed with 5% Dextrose
- - Toxicity = Kidney failure with precipitate
- b) Ketoconazole (KTZ) - Oral1. Commonly used in humans for years.
- 2. Formulated as 200 mg.
- *Combining A & B will produce least expensive approach for client*
- c) Itraconazole (ITZ) - Orald) Fluconazole (triazole)- Best for Cryptococcosis
- e) Flucytosine- Improves effect of other drugs.
- f) Enilconazole- Not used anymore.
2 Fungus-Like Bacteria:
- - Nocardiosis
- - Actinomycosis
- Etiology: Nocardia asteroides
- Nocardia brazilienses
- a) Systemic form (looks like c. distemper)
- b) Primary Respiratory Form (dogs/cats)
- c) Cutaneous Form (pyogranulomatous formations and ulcerations)
Typical thoracic exudate ("tomatoe soup-like)
Infections via inhlation and subcutanous inoculations and ingestions.
- Clinical Signs:
- a) Respiratory - Inhale grass spores
- b) Penetrating - Mandibular osteitis with pyrexia and draining wounds.
Exudate = "sulfur granules"
Blood Types in Dogs:
- New I.D: Old I.D:
- DEA -1 A1
- DEA-2 A2
- DEA-3 B
- DEA-4 C
- DEA-5 D
- DEA-6 F
- DEA-7 Tr
- DEA-8 He
Blood Type Incidences in Dogs:
- Highest Incidence = DEA-4 and DEA-6
- Lowest Incidence = DEA-3
- Most Reactive = DEA-1 and DEA-2
Random blood transfusions should be avoided, why?
- 1. Risk of sensitization and subsequent severe transfusion reactions.
- 2. Transfused RBC will have shortened lifespan.
What is the universal blood type in cats?
West Nile Virus:
- - Serious illness
- - Causes encephalitis at primary location of people.
- - Mosquitos spread virus.
- - Incubation period is unknown.
- - First discovered in US in 1999
- - Found in TX since 2000
How is WNV spread?
- - Through bite of infected mosquito.
- - Culex is the most common species of mosquitos susceptible to WNV.
- - Birds are primary carriers for WNV.
- - A mosquito becomes infected after feeding on a bird.
Prevalence of WNV in Humans:
- - Harris County is #1 in number of reported WNV human cases.
- - Peak season is April-December with highest peak in August.
- - Peak season in horses is Jan-Dec. Highest peak in September.
How does WNV affect dogs and cats?
- - Dog exhibits fever, depression, spasms, seizures, muscle weakness and paralysis.
- - Cats have show neurological signs before.
- - Commonly affected animals:
- - Crows
- - Squirrels
- - Equine
- - Ravens
How does WNV affect people?
- - Most asymptomatic
- - When they do appear, they have fever, headache, muscle aches, nausea and vomiting.
- - Death can occire.
- - Can experience disorientation, coma, vision loss, convulsions and paralysis.
Chocolate contains 2 types of methylxanthine:
3 forms of chocolate:
- - Milk Chocolate = 60 mg/oz
- - Dark Chocolate = 150 mg/oz
- - Baking Chocolate = 450 mg/oz
Signs and Treatment of Chocolate Toxicity:
- GI Upset, hyperactivity, increased heart rate, agitation, restless, seizures (last 3 days).
- - Treat with Emesis within 1 hour.
- - Stabilize with fluid therapy.
- - Beta blockers reduce tachycardia.
- - Valium will control agitation/tremors.
Cat Blood Types:
- Types:- A
- - Domestic Short Hairs almost always
- this type.
- - B
- - Receiving type A can be fatal.
- - 1-4% DSH's this type.
- - AB
- - Very rare; universal recipient.
A blood typing card need _____ amount of blood.
- - Feline Retrovirus Infections
- - Called Retro, because it's a reverse virus.
- - Two RNA strands.
- - 3 sub families:
- 1. Spumavirinae - FeFV
- 2. Oncovirinae - FeLV
- 3. Lentivirinae - FIV
Feline Immunodeficiency Virus:
- - Family: Retroviridae
- - Subfamily: Lentivirinae
- - Lentivirus
- - Feline Immunodeficiency Syndrome AKA Feline Aids
- - Superinfection indicates lack of cross-protection
- - 2 possibilities can occur:
- a) Cat positive for Virus
- - Virus with no symptoms.
- b) Cat with Syndrome
- - Virus with symptoms.
Symptoms of FIV:
- - Lymphadenopathy
- - Leukopenia
- - Anemia
- - Neurological symptoms
- - Virus + Bacteria = Pyrexia
Epidemiology of FIV:
- - Worldwide
- - High risk in US
- - Present since 1996
- - Common in big cats
Any virus will cause a _______ in WBCs.
Any bacterial infection will cause an _______ leukocytosis in WBCs.
What is the normal WBC count for a cat?
- - reduction
- - increased
- - 13,000
Symptoms of FIV divided in 3 stages:
- a) Acute Phase:
- - Mild to no symptoms
- - Last several days to a few weeks
- - Enteritis, stomatitis, dematitis, respiratory tract disease and swollen lymph nodes.
- b) Clinically Healthy Period:- Up to 8 years with no signs.
- c) Terminal Symptoms:- Immune symptoms start to show and decline resulting in death from various causes.
- - Weight loss, sores, poor hair coat, etc.
Transmission of FIV:
- - Horizontally through saliva from bite wounds.
- - Vertically from Queen to Kitten.
- - 50% of transmission is inutero and
When and by whom was FIV was discovered in the United States?
FIV is an immune suppressing virus related to the ______________.
FIV is common in the ________ population.
- - In 1986 by Dr. Neils Pedersen and Janet Yamamoto at the UC Davis.
- - Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
- - feral cat
- - Discovered in 1986 in US.
- - Doesn't affect humans.
- - Males are 3X more likely to be infected than females.
Prevalence of FIV:
- - 1 in 12 cats test positive.
- - 7.4% to 9% increase in the last 5 years.
- - Outdoor cats at a higher risk.
- - 15% of cats positive for FeLV will also test positive for FIV.
- - 50% of cats positive for FIV will also test positive for FeLV.
Diagnoses of FIV:
- - IFA and ELISA Test
- - Western Blot: Advantage of looking for multiple antibodies.
- - FIV antibody tests cant distinguish antibodies from vaccination and actual disease.
A current controversy still exists because of testing problems. Current testing for the FIV either in-house or by commercial labs, is based on detection of ________.
Cats receive FIV vaccine will build these and will likely result in positive test results. The FIV antibody test cannot distinguish between ________________.
Shelter cats with no history are at risk of euthanasia because __________ are often used to diagnose disease at risk.
- - antibodies
- - antibodies from vaccination and antibodies from disease
- - high levels of antibodies
What are the Three groups of cats are recommended for vaccines?
- 1. Cats that go outdoors without direct supervision.
- 2. Cats that live indoors but have a housemate that goes out-doors without direct supervision.
- 3. Cats that live indoors in a household that includes an FIV-infected cat.
_______ was the first FIV vaccine.
- - 55% effective
- - Ft. Dodge, now called Pfizer.
In 1964 FeLV was considered to be:
- 1. The principle scourge in cats.
- 2. Accounted for most disease related deaths in pet cats (1/3 of all cat deaths)
- 3. Responsible for more clinical syndrome than any other single agent.
Feline Leukemia Virus:
- - Family: Retroviridae
- - Subfamily: Oncornavirinae, or Oncovirinae
- - Oncornavirus
- - Leukemia = Cancer of WBC
- - Most common cause of cancer in cats.
- - Discovered in 1964. (Also when 1st Heart Worms case was discovered.)
- - Virus replicates in tonsils and pharyngeal lymph nodes and spreads via bloodstream to other parts of the body.
- - More often affects neonatal cats.
- - 40% of those infected will develop immunity.
What are 2 viruses (antigens) that were originally identified as associated with FeLV?
- 1. Feline Sarcoma Virus (FSV) – is a mutation of the genes of FeLV and its host cells. (tumor)
- 2. Feline Oncornavirus - Associated Cell Membrane Antigen (FOCMA) - This is protein on the cells of FSV and FeLV induced tumors. Antibodies have some protective activity against FeLV neoplasias. (blood
FeLV was identified in 1964 as a ______, it produces an enzyme called _______ that permits it to insert copies of its own genetic material into the infected cell. After the initial infection, where does the virus replicate?
- - Retrovirus
- - Reverse Transcriptase
- - In the tonsils and the pharyngeal lymph nodes and then spreads via blood stream into other parts of the body, especially lymph nodes, bone marrow, and intestinal tissue where it replicates
List the four FeLV Subgroups:
- - FeLV A
- - FeLV B
- - FeLV C
- - FeLV myc
1. _____ is an infectious subgroup and is transmitted from cat to cat.
2. List the other 3 subgroups that are not transmitted from cat to cat under natural circumstances.
3. However, these subgroups can be generated into FeLV A infected cat by _________.
- 1. FeLV A
- 2. FeLV B, FeLV C and FeLV myc
- 3. mutation
What subgroup of FeLV do we vaccinate against and is also known as the most common?
What is the strain?
Co-infection with A in ___% of positive cats.
What are 4 signs/symptoms?
- - 50%
- - Myeloproliferative, myelosuppressive, immunosuppressive, and neoplastic disease conditions.
FeLV C is a persistent virus in _______. These animals are aborted, or born with a persistent _________ and usually die.
- - Kittens
- - Aplastic anemia
__________, is not a subgroup of FeLV, but is a mutation that arises by combination of the FeLV A genome with cancer associated cellular genes.
The only way one can get an infection of FeLV B, C & myc, or FSV is recombination of genes with _______.
- - Feline Sarcoma Virus
- - FeLV A
___________ is a protein antigen that is expressed on the cell membrane of FeLV and FSV induced tumor cells and is believed to be the product of genetic recombination.
It has been shown that ________ have some protective activity against the development of FeLV related neoplasia, but these antibodies do not prevent FeLV induced non-neoplastic diseases.
- - Feline Oncornavirus-Associated Cell Membrane Antigen (FOCMA)
- - antibodies to FOCMA
- - presence
Epidemiology and Prevalence of FeLV:
- - Mostly domestic cats
- - Not enzootic
- - Transmitted by association
- - World wide.
Transmission of FeLV:
- - Close contact
- - Horizontally by saliva but by association, such as sharing water bowls and not through a bite as how FIV is transmitted.
- - Epiphora (watery eyes)
- - Vertically by Inutero and/or transmammary.
Primary infection problems with FeLV are with _______ and ________.
Development of age related resistance is contributed to increase ____________ of the cat.
- - Pediatric
- - Geriatric
- - Immunocompetence
Pathogenesis of FeLV is Divided into these Five Stages:
- Stage 1: Viral replication in tonsils/regional Lymph Nodes (due to virus is consumed orally thru H2O and feed).
- Stage 2: Infection of circulating lymphocytes (Type B) .
- Stage 3: Replication in spleen, internal Lymph Nodes & marrow.
- Stage 4: Release of infected neutrophils and thrombocytes from the bone marrow.
- Stage 5: Infection of epithelial and glandular tissue shedding virus in saliva and urine.
4 Possible Outcomes with FeLV:
- 1. Primary Viremia with Immunity Built by Host: (40%)
- - Host amounts an immune response and flushes infection from blood stream.
- - Symptoms are lethargy and anorexia; Last 3-10 days.
- 2. Viremia #2: Secondary Viremia (30%)
- - Persistant Infection of the bone marrow and soft tissue.
- - Infected forever; ultimately will die.
- - Will show same symptoms as primary, then recover for up to 3 years, only to be stressed, relapse and die.
- 3. Latency: (30%)
- - Cat encounters virus through infected cat.
- - Harbors virus and is not detectable with normal in house testing on average of 2 years.
- - Cat will appear normal.
- 4. Immune Carrier: (30%)
- - FeLV hidden in epithelial cells; can't get out of cells, because cat is producing antibodies.
- - Cat appears normal.
- - 1-2% of positive cats.
- - Can spread virus to other is stressed out making this the most dangerous outcome.
What are 2 types of Neoplastic Disease that are associated with FeLV?
- 1. Lymphoma (Lymphosarcoma) – most common (tumor) of the neoplastic disease.
- Classified as: Thymic (around lymph nodes in throat), Multicentric (all over body) and Alimentary (in intestines).
- 2. Lymphoid Leukemia (non-solid tumors – blood disorders)
Non-neoplastic Disease Associated with FIV:
- 1. Thrombocytopenia - reduction in the thrombocytes.
- 2. Immune-Mediated Hemolytic Anemia
- 3. Glomerulonephritis - kidney failure.
- 4. Thymic Atrophy - fading kitten syndrome.
List 3 Prevention and Control measures for FeLV:
- 1. Prevent multi-cat contacts – Ideal
- 2. Separate positive and negative cats in multi-cat households
- 3. Vaccination – Should test prior to vaccinations
What are 2 types of vaccinations for FeLV?
- 1. Inactivated whole virus vaccine
- 2. Inactivated subunit vaccine
What was the 1st Feline Leukemia Vaccine?
Who developed the vaccine?
What type of vaccine is it?
- - Leukocell (PN)
- - Norden Company
- - Killed Virus
The most frequently occurring type of soft tissue sarcomas is the ___________.
The most common vaccines associated with this tumor is the ______ vaccine and _____ vaccines that contain ______.
- - Fibrosarcoma
- - FeLV and Rabies
- - Aluminum
List the Diagnostic Test for FIV (2) and FeLV (3):
- 1. ELISA test
- 2. IFA
- (Immunoblot or Western Blot)
- FeLV:1. ELISA test
- 2. IFA (Immunofluorescent Antibody Test)
- 3. Viral Isolation
List 6 Similarities of FIV and FeLV
- 1. immunosuppression disease
- 2. gingivitis/stomatitis/glossitis/halitosis – Both produce mouth problems
- 3. myeloproliferative disorders
- 4. fibro/lymphosarcomas (Hard tumors)
- 5. diarrhea/panleukopenia/abortion/
- 6. both are considered congenital infections:
Feline Foamy Virus Infection (FeFV):
- - Family: Retroviridae
- - SubFamily: Spumavirinae
- - Spumavirus
- - AKA Feline Syncytium-Foaming Virus
Clinical Findings of FeFV:
- - Most asymptomatic
- - One of two forms if they do show:
- a) One with osterporosis
- and periosteal proliferation
- producing arthritis. b) Periarticular erosions, collapse of joint space and joint deformities that produce arthritis.
Diagnoses of FeFV:
- Joint fluid abnormalities with high neutrophils and large monocytes.
Feline Infectious Peritonitis:
What is another name for this Disease?
How is it transmitted?
Clinically when was it first described?
What is the Family?What is the Order?
- - Feline Coronavirus Infection
- - Social type of transfer from feces from the litter box
- - 1960s
- - Coronaviridae
- - Nidovirales
What are the symptoms of Feline Enteric Coronavirus (FECV)?
What are the symptoms of Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)?
What coronavirus is closely related to the FIP virus?
- - Mild diarrhea and vomiting, and is not fatal.
- - Extremely virulent Coronavirus that always leads to death. We generally do vaccinate for this type of Coronavirus in cats.
- - Canine coronavirus
The Feline Coronavirus (FCoV) is a _____ enveloped RNA virus that comes in what two forms?
- - Pleomorphic (ever changing shape and position)
- - FIPV (Feline Infectious Peritonitis) and
- - FECV (Feline Enteric Coronavirus).
List the 2 Corona viruses that are associated with the pig and the dog:
- a) Transmissible Gasteroenteritis (TGE)
- b) Canine Coronavirus (CCV)
The coronavirus are large, ______ and positive strained ___ viruses.
The major viral proteins are divided into what 3 different categories?
- - Enveloped; RNA
- 1. Spike (S)
- 2. Nucleocapsid (N)
- 3. Membrane (M)
Feline Coronaviruses (FCoV) are in group ________ of Coronaviridae?
List 2 other diseases are included in this group?
- - 1S (Spike)
- - Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE) in pigs.
- - Canine Coronavirus
What are 2 reasons for the increase in the Prevalence of FIP in Recent Years?
Reason1: Indoor cats exposed to large doses of feline coronavirus in the feces.
Reason2: Multi cat crowded environments.
What does SARS stand for?
What is it caused by?
- - Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
- - SARS Coronavirus (SARS-CoV)
How is Feline Coronavirus Spread?
CoV positive cats can live a very long time if not stressed by environment; however they remain ________ indefinitely for the remainder of their life and thus other cats in the household should be checked to insure they are FCoV negative and then separated from a positive cat forever. If an owner seeks to keep the positive cat, they must be separated and never use a common ________.
- - Feces is the primary source point.
- - Carriers
- - Litter box
Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
What is another name for this Disease? How is it transmitted?
Clinically when was it first described?
What is the Family?
What is the Order?
- -Feline Coronavirus Infection
- - Social type of transfer from feces from the litter box
What are Two Forms of FIP?
Which is more prevalent among the cat population?
What determines which form of the disease the cat will contract?
What is a constant symptom of both forms?
- - The Effusive (wet) Acute Form; The Non-effusive (dry) Chronic Form
- - Effusive (wet) Acute Form
- - The strength of the animals immune system
- - Anemia
What are 2 clinical signs of the Effusive (wet) Acute form of FIP?
- - Lung signs: include muffled cardiac and pulmonary sounds, dyspnea, cardiac tamponade and decreased chest compressibility.
- - Abdominal signs: include the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the abdominal cavity characteristic of a typical case of ascites
What are signs of the Non-Effusive Form or Dry Form?
- - Signs of the CNS and ocular disease can either accompany or be the sole evidence of the non-effusion form.
- - One will witness ataxia, seizures, behavioral changes, vestibular signs, cranial nerve dysfunction, paresis, hyperesthesia and urinary incontinence.
Clinical Signs of the common FIPV Effusive (Wet) Form:
Non-effusive (granulomatous) Dry Form:
- - Effusive (Wet) Form: Protein-rich fluid in abdomen & lungs (transudate early, exudate later), Ascites of the abdomen and Pulmonary Edema of the lungs
- - Non-effusive (granulomatous) Dry Form: CNS & Ocular Disease most common
How do you Diagnose FIP?
Histopathologic exams are the only definitive method as cats often have high titers to coronaviruses without developing FIP disease (symptoms).
There has never been a definite correlation between circulating ________ and protection to FIPV or FECV.
What is the name and manufacturer for the FIP Vaccination? This vaccine provides a significant titer for protection in cats over ______ of age and is safe in ______% of vaccinates
- - Primucell FIP from Pfizer
- - 16 weeks
- - 50-75%
What are 4 Treatments for FIP?
What Treatment did Dr. Younger use and why?
- 1. Drain fluid from abdomen
- 2. antibiotics for secondary bacterial infections supportive therapy
- 3. fluid therapy for dehydration
- 4. good nutrition
- ** Prednisone - It reduces in the inflammation associated with the virus **
Life expectancies of FIP are dependent on:
- 1. Immune system
- 2. Supportive care
- 3. Type of FIP form
What disease would you refrain from giving vaccinations if the animal tests positive?Why do you not give the vaccine?
- - Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
- - Because it predisposes the animal to use what antibodies the animal does have engaged.
Feline respiratory disease caused by ______ viral agents continues to be a serious problem within the cat population, especially in ___________. Spread by ______ and easily transmitted by multiple cat facilities.
- - Corona
- - Large metropolitan areas likes Houston and multiple cat facilities and breeding catteries
- - Aerosols
List the 3 respiratory viral agents responsible for the majority of viral respiratory infections in cats.
What are 3 others that we can vaccinate for include Reovirus, Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP) and Feline Leukemia virus
- - Feline Herpes Virus type 1 (FHV-1); Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FRT); Feline Calicivirus (FCV)
- - Reovirus; Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP); Feline Leukemia Virus
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis - called “______”
______ with ______ envelope
- - Rhino
- - Etiology: Feline Herpes Virus (FHV-1)
- - Family: Herpesviridae
- - Subfamily: Alphaherpesvirinae
- - DNA; lipoprotein
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FVRT) Feline Herpes Virus (FHV-1)
What are 2 modes of Transmission:
What is the Incubation period?
What is the Course of the Disease if uncomplicated?
- - Aerosol & direct – cat to cat transmission
- - Vertical – queens to kittens (abortion)
- - 3 to 5 days after exposure
- - 5-7 days
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FVRT) Feline Herpes Virus (FHV-1)
What are the Clinical Signs?
What are 2 ways to Diagnose?
Differential includes what 2 diseases?
- - Sneezing, conjunctivitis, and ocular discharge. Appear 3-5 days after the exposure to virus. Most common sign for Feline herpesvirus is sneezing.
- - Clinical Signs (primarily) & Viral Isolation – not practical ($)
- - Calicivirus and Pneumonitis (bacteria)
________ propels many viral particles into the air attached to moisture droplets on which FHV-1 may be transmitted to susceptible cats by _____________.
Nursing queens may start to shed the virus at _____ postpartum which coincides with the loss of maternally derived immunity to FVRT
- - Sneezing
- - Contaminated food dishes, cages, utensils, and the clothing & hands of people.
- - 4-6 weeks
________ is the most common cause of abortion in cats ________ is a common cause of abortion in equine.
- - FHV-1
- - Equine Rhinopneumonitis
In the Combo FeLV & FIV SNAP Test - Antigen for ____. Antibody for ____.
________ – sneezing and ocular discharge - bilateral infection always present.
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FVR)
___________ – no sneezing but ulcerative stomatitis (mouth ulcers).
Feline Calicivirus (FCV)
You may see mouth ulcers with what 2 diseases?
FeLV and FIV
_________ – ocular discharges not usually bilateral.
____________ – bacteria generally thought of in dogs, but can be seen in stress related cats. Opportunist type disease that is waiting for a suppressed immune system.
Feline Calicivirus Infection:
Originally a ______ of the Family ___________
- Etiology: Feline Calicivirus (FCV) - RNA
- Family: Caliciviridae
- Genus: Vesivirus
- Picornavirus; Picornaviridae
- Non-enveloped; single stranded virus.
Feline Calicivirus Infection
- Epizootiology: all cats world wide
- Morbidity: 100%
- Mortality: 10%
- Host: Primarily domestic house cats
- Transmission: Direct with fomites & carrier cats
- Clinical Signs: Mouth ulcers (# 1 sign), pneumonia, URI, ulcerative stomatitis, enteritis, acute arthritis and chronic stomatitis.
- Diagnosis: Clinical signs – primarily.
The clinical signs produced by Feline Calicivirus (FCV) vary greatly depending on:
- - The strain of the virus
- - The age of the cat
- - Any co-existing infection
What is the Treatment for Feline Calicivirus (FCV)?
Feline calicivirus vaccines are only available in combination with the _________ vaccine.
- - Make sure they eat, or feed them via esophageal tube.
- - Feline Herpes Virus
** More adults die than kittens **
What is the mutation of the Calici virus called? This mutated form starts as a typical upper respiratory proto-type and progresses to an edematous swelling in the _____ or over __________.
Next alopecia and dermatitis occurs in the areas that began with the swelling.
- - Virulent Systemic Feline Calicivirus (VS-Calici)
- - Facial region
- -Joints of the limbs
____ is the antibody for mucous membranes.
What are 5 Characteristics that have been found with VS-Calici outbreaks?
- 1. Generally isolated to focal groups like in the Woodlands
- 2. Disease is primarily in adults that were vaccinated.
- 3. Spread is via fomites or employees
- 4. Not in the community like Harris County
- 5. Outbreaks resolve in 6-8 weeks
Panleukopenia (Feline Distemper) is an acute, severe, systemic and enteric viral disease of cats characterized by what 7 signs/symptoms?
- - sudden onset pyrexia
- - leukopenia
- - vomiting
- - diarrhea
- - dehydration
- - depression
- - high mortality rate
Until the discovery of ____ as a primary cause of death in cats, Panleukopenia was considered the primary infectious disease causing fatalities in the world.
- Feline Distemper (given to disease in the 1960s)
- AKA: IFE – Infectious Feline Enteritis.
- Etiology: Feline Parvo Virus (FPV)
- Epizootiology: All cats world wide
- Transmission: Direct (cats & fomites)
- Pathogenesis: fetus in utero results in death. Stillborn, cerebellar hypoplasia, mummified fetuses.
What are the 3 primary causes of abortion in cats listed in order?
- 1. Feline Herpes Virus – Type 1 (FHV-1)
- 2. Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)
- 3. Feline Panleukopenia Virus (FPV)
Feline panleukopenia is caused by small serologically homogeneous parvovirus with single stranded ___.
The feline parvo virus is closely related to what 3 viruses?
CPV strand _______ have been isolated from healthy cats and from those with signs of Feline Panleukopenia. In contrast Feline panleukopenia has limited replication in dogs after experimental inoculations.
- - DNA
- - Blue Fox Parvo Virus, Mink Enteritis Virus and CPV.
- - 2a and 2b
Panleukopenia (a parvo virus) means a decrease in the number of _______.
Panleukopenia is Feline Parvo from the family ________.
This virus effects all species of the families ___________________.
The Feline Panleukopenia virus is thought to have mutated from ________ originally and then ________ mutated to _____ in the late 70s.
- - ALL the white blood cells.
- - Parvoviradae
- - Felidae and most species of Viverridae, Procyonidae and Mustelidae.
- - Pig Parvo; Feline Parvo; Canine Parvo
6 Transmission modes of Panleukopenia:
- 1. Feces
- 2. Urine
- 3. Nasal Secretions
- 4. Blood
- 5. Fomites
- 6. Fleas
List the Primary modes for transmission:
Feline Rhinotracheitis –
Feline Calicivirus –
Feline Panleukopenia –
- - aerosol
- - food & water
- - feces & urine
Feline Panleukopenia - Clinical Disease:
1. Peracute Feline Panleukopenia – mortality = ___%
2. Acute FP – mortality = _______% 3-4 days Classical signs with vomiting and diarrhea
3. Subacute – mortality = __% Mild classical signs of enteritis
4. Subclinical – no outward signs 5. InUtero – fetal death due to __________.
- - 100%; Death within 24 hours.
- - 25 to 90%
- - 0%
- - Cerebellar or Retinal Dysplasia
What are 2 ways to Diagnose Panleukopenia?
- 1. Clinical signs: with history of vaccinations or no vaccinations and severe leukopenia due to a parvo virus.
- 2. Lab Diagnosis:
- a) CITE (ELISA test)
- b) Serologies can be performed by TVMDL;
- c)Laboratory viral isolation – not practical but can be performed at the TVMD
What are 6 External Symptoms of Feline Panleukopenia?
- 1. High fever leading to anorexia
- 2. Cats assume a typical “hunched” posture
- 3. The head will often hang over water bowl
- 4. Animal is reluctant to swallow
- 5. Unlike the canine, enteritis in the cat is not common
- 6. In utero infection, fetal death and cerebral hypoplasia is common
List 3 Feline Viral Intestinal (Enteric) Infections
- - Feline Panleukopenia
- - Feline Rotavirus
- - Feline Astrovirus
What is the Treatment for enteric viruses like PCV, Rotavirus and Astroviruses?
Supportive including fluids/electrolytes for the diarrhea and the dehydration that accompanies the fluid loss symptoms
___________ have been identified as viral pathogens of the intestinal tract in a number of young animals. It attacks the villi of the small intestines, _____________ are the primary symptoms.
- - Rotavirus
- - Enteritis and Diarrhea
How is the parasite passed?
- - Etiology:Protozoan; Toxoplasma gondii
- - Definitive host: cat is the only definitive host for T. gondii
- - Through the feces (only in cats)
Newly infected cats can pass oocysts in their feces for up to ________.
Oocysts can remain infectious for months in the environment.
What are 4 ways that carnivores (cats) and omnivores (dogs and humans) become infected?
- - 2 weeks
- 1. ingesting raw meat
- 2. ingesting infectious oocysts in food and water
- 3. inhalation of oocysts from aerosols
- 4. direct contact with contaminated soil, sand & fruit
Toxoplasmosis (only in pets) Most infected pets are asymptomatic. If they do appear what are 4 symptoms?
- 1. Pyrexia that does not respond to penicillin and most antibiotics
- 2. Diarrhea
- 3. Seizures
- 4. Abortion depending on whether the infection is acute or chronic.
____________ Any disease that occurs from the urethra bladder outward.
____________ is the term generally used for a stopped up Tom cat.
What are the 3 elements of Struvite and which is the primary form?
- - Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease (FLUTD)
- - Feline Urological Syndrome (FUS)
- - Magnesium, Ammonium, Phosphate, hexahydrate (new discovery); magnesium
What are 6 common uroliths that may affect cats?
- 1. Struvite (magnesium, ammonium, phosphate, hexahydrate new discovery) Alkaline stone
- 2. Calcium oxalate (monohydrate or dihydrate) Most common in cats today
- 3. Ammonium urate
- 4. Xanthine (yellow and green tint)
- 5. Cystine (forms in acidic urine – common in dachshunds)
- 6. Calcium phosphate - Most common in dogs
What urolith is:
The most common in cats today?
Common in dachshunds?
Most common in dogs?
- - Calcium oxalate (80%)
- - Cystine
- - Calcium phosphate
The most important driving force behind urolith formation is the state of urinary saturation. When a salt is added to a solvent, the salt dissolves until a particular concentration is reached, beyond which no further dissolution is possible. At this point the water (solvent) is saturated with sodium chloride. Additional salt added to the water will crystallize. This is known as ____________.