Intro to Respiratory Care: Module 3

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mdhurston
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288745
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Intro to Respiratory Care: Module 3
Updated:
2014-11-13 21:49:30
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Respiratory Introduction
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Description:
End of chapter questions for Intro to Respiratory Care Module 3 Wilkins' Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care (Chapters 7, 21, & 18)
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  1. Which of the following is not a component of the formed elements of the blood?
    A. RBC's
    B. WBC's
    C. Platelets
    D. Lipids
    D. Lipids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. What is the medical name for platelets?
    A. Leukocytes 
    B. Thrombocytes
    C. Reticulocytes
    D. Erythrocytes
    B. Thrombocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. What is the primary role of white blood cells?
    A. Boost metabolism
    B. Fight infection
    C. Carry oxygen
    D. Promote blood clotting
    B. Fight infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What is the normal reference range for WBC's?
    A. 1,000-3,000/mm3
    B. 3,000-5,000/mm3
    C. 4,500-10,000/mm3
    D. 600-14,000/mm3
    C. 4,500-10,000/mm3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which of the following white cell types normally represents the largest percent in the WBC differential?
    A. Basophils
    B. Neutrophils
    C. Eosinphils
    D. Lymphocytes
    B. Neutrophils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A left-shifted white cell differential is evidenced by which of the following findings?
    A. A decrease in the number of segmented neutrophils
    B. A decrease in the number of lymphocytes
    C. An increase in the number of eosinophils
    D. An increase in the number of bands (immature neutrophils)
    D. An increase in the number of bands (immature neutrophils)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which of the following is a common finding in patients with bacterial pneumonia?
    A. Lymphocytopenia
    B. Neutrophilia
    C. Leukopenia
    D. Eosinophilia
    B. Neutrophilia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which of the following is a common finding in a patient with an allergic reaction?
    A. Monocytosis
    B. Eosinophilia
    C. Neutrophilia
    D. Leukopenia
    B. Eosinophilia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Viral infections typically produce which of the following abnormalities?
    A. Eosinophilia
    B. Lymphocytosis
    C. Monocytosis
    D. Basophilia
    B. Lymphocytosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Your patient has AIDS. The most useful test to identify the prognosis of AIDS is:
    A. Leukocyte count
    B. Monocyte count
    C. CD4 count
    D. Hemoglobin A1c
    C. CD4 count
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Chemotherapy used to treat cancer can cause a suppression of blood counts for which of the following cells?
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Erythrocytes
    C. Thrombocytes
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  12. Your patient may have active TB. What laboratory finding is most consistent with this suspicion?
    A. Eosinophilia
    B. Monocytosis
    C. Lymphocytosis
    D. Anemia
    B. Monocytosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following is the most common cause of anemia?
    A. Drug-induced RBC lysis
    B. Iron deficiency
    C. Acute blood loss
    D. None of the above
    B. Iron deficiency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following statements is(are) true regarding Hb?
    A. It functions in oxygen transport.
    B. It is the main component of RBC's.
    C. It functions in CO2 transport
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  15. Which of the following is not true regarding polycythemia?
    A. It decreases the workload on the heart.
    B. It increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
    C. It can be caused by chronic hypoxemia.
    D. It is defined as an increase in RBC, Hb, and Hct.
    A. It decreases the workload on the heart.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following tests is used to assess the patient's blood-clotting ability?
    A. Prothrombin time
    B. Hemoglobin
    C. Hct
    D. RBC count
    A. Prothrombin time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following electrolytes closely affects muscle function?
    A. Phosphorus
    B. Potassium
    C. Chloride
    D. Sodium
    B. Potassium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following electrolytes is mainly responsible for extracellular water balance?
    A. Magnesium
    B. Potassium
    C. Calcium
    D. Sodium
    D. Sodium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Anion gap is useful in assessing the cause of:
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    B. Respiratory alkalosis
    C. Metabolic acidosis
    D. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Metabolic acidosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. An increase in the sweat electrolyte concentration is seen in:
    A. Patent ductus arteriosus
    B. Epiglottitis
    C. Cystic Fibrosis
    D. Bronchoiectasis
    C. Cystic Fibrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which of the following tests is(are) a measure of kidney function?
    A. Creatinine
    B. BUN
    C. A and C
    D. Creatine kinase
    C. A and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The recommended test for early detection of myocardial infarction is:
    A. CPK
    B. LDH
    C. Troponin
    D. AST
    C. Troponin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Which of the following bacteriologic tests is used to determine the effectiveness of antibiotics on a particular organism?
    A. Gram stain
    B. Acid-fast stain
    C. Sensitivity
    D. Culture
    C. Sensitivity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. A Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to identify which of the following organisms?
    A. Staphylococcus aureus
    B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  25. Which of the following items are evaluated during a macroscopic (gross) sputum examination?
    A. Color
    B. Consistency
    C. Volume
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  26. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
    A. Haemophilus influenzae
    B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    C. Streptococcus pneumonia
    D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following findings is(are) consistent with pleural infection?
    A. Low pleural fluid protein levels
    B. Opaque or turbid pleural fluid
    C. Bloody pleural fluid
    D. All of the above
    B. Opaque or turbid pleural fluid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following tests performed during urinalysis could be helpful in diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
    A. pH
    B. Glucose
    C. Ketones
    D. All of the above
    B. Glucose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Protienuria usually is indicative of which of the following?
    A. COPD
    B. Kidney disease
    C. Cardiovascular disease
    D. Spinal meningitis
    A. COPD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following may cause a patient to have a negative reaction to a skin test?
    A. He/she is anergic.
    B. A and B
    C. He/she does not have the disease.
    D. The disease has progressed to a point beyond treatment.
    A. He/she is anergic.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following is true regarding a PPD?
    A. It is often positive if the patient has previously had a BCG vaccination.
    B. It is negative if the induration produced is 12 mm in diameter.
    C. It is positive with coccidioidomycosis infection.
    D. None of the above
    A. It is often positive if the patient has previously had a BCG vaccination.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The patient's medical record is all of the following except:
    A. A financial document
    B. A legal document
    C. A contract
    D. An educational tool
    C. A contract
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following influences what needs to be documented in a patient's medical record?
    A. Financial intermediary
    B. CMS
    C. The patient's family
    D. TJC
    B. CMS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. What is the primary goal of the TJC?
    A. Review HCOs to improve the quality of health care
    B. Provide health care workers with a safe work environment
    C. Monitor financial reimbursement of hospitals
    D. Monitor the ethical practice of medicine at HCOs
    A. Review HCOs to improve the quality of health care
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following statements is most appropriate for the RT to document in the assessment section of the SOAP documentations?
    A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    B. Onset of asthma
    C. Viral pneumonia
    D. Hypoxemia on room air
    D. Hypoxemia on room air
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following is not true regarding the legal definition of negligence?
    A. The defendant breached that duty
    B. The defendant owed a duty of care to the plaintiff
    C. The plaintiff suffered a legally recognizable injury
    D. The defendant's breach of duty of care did not cause the plaintiff's injury
    D. The defendant's breach of duty of care did not cause the plaintiff's injury
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following is not a type of medical record entry that the RT needs to perform in his/her daily routine?
    A. History and physical examination
    B. Treatment record
    C. Test results
    D. Flowchart
    A. History and physical examination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Your medical-legal duties to the patient are outlined by which of the following?
    A. Your job description and employer's policies and procedures
    B. Your state's respiratory care practice act
    C. TJC standards
    D. All of the above
    B. Your state's respiratory care practice act
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. All of the following are examples of "objective" data except:
    A. Laboratory results
    B. The physician's interpretation of the patient's ECG
    C. The patient's report of the amount of sputum he/she produces daily
    D. Observation of the patient's sleep apnea
    C. The patient's report of the amount of sputum he/she produces daily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. What does the letter "I" stand for in the APIE method of documentation?
    A. Inconsistencies
    B. Implementation
    C. Impact
    D. None of the above
    B. Implementation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which method of documentation is probably best for a clinician pressed for time?
    A. PIP
    B. SBAR
    C. APIE
    D. SOAP
    A. PIP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What gas is required for the optimal production of ATP?
    A. Nitrous oxide
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Argon
    D. Oxygen
    D. Oxygen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which of the following is an indicator of the energy requirements of the patient?
    A. PaO2/PAO2 ratio
    B. VO2 per minute
    C. Minute ventilation
    D. Vital capacity
    B. VO2 per minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following is true about the REE?
    A. It gives an exact estimate of the patient's nutritional needs
    B. It cannot be measured in mechanically ventilated patients
    C. It requires a VO2 measurement to calculate
    D. It should be measured daily
    C. It requires a VO2 measurement to calculate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Measuring the patient's energy expenditure using oxygen consumption is referred to as which of the following?
    A. Simple calorimetry
    B. Indirect calorimetry
    C. Direct calorimetry
    D. Complex calorimetry
    B. Indirect calorimetry
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following is a pulmonary effect of starvation?
    A. Increased DLCO
    B. Catabolism of fats to meet glucose needs
    C. Increased risk for pneumonia
    D. Increased FEV1
    C. Increased risk for pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following in excess quantities contributes to the most CO2 production?
    A. Fat
    B. Carbohydrates
    C. Calories
    D. Protein
    B. Carbohydrates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. What element must be stored in sufficient quantities to meet the metabolic demands of the diaphragm?
    A. Fat
    B. Glycogen
    C. Arginine
    D. 2,3-DPG
    B. Glycogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which of the following is true about anaerobic metabolism?
    A. It can cause a metabolic acidosis
    B. It results in reduced production of carbon dioxide
    C. It results in reduced lactate production
    A. It can cause a metabolic acidosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. What is the RQ value of a patient on a pure carbohydrate diet?
    A. 1.00
    B. 0.70
    C. 0.85
    D. 0.60
    A. 1.00
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. In feeding the patient with pulmonary disease, how many grams of protein per kilogram of body weight are initially required?
    A. 1.2-1.5
    B. 0.8-1.0
    C. 0.6-0.8
    D. 1.5-2.0
    A. 1.2-1.5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which of the following may be more difficult to achieve with a high-carbohydrate diet?
    A. Oxygen transport
    B. Cellular gas exchange
    C. Oxygenation
    D. Weaning from mechanical ventilaiton
    D. Weaning from mechanical ventilaiton
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Nitrogen balance is useful in determining:
    A. The adequacy of fat intake
    B. The need for vitamin supplementation
    C. Fluid and electrolyte balance
    D. The adequacy of protein intake
    D. The adequacy of protein intake
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Which of the following is associated with a low-protein diet?
    A. Increased work of breathing
    B. Immune compromise
    C. Increased stress on the kidneys
    D. Increased fixed acid load
    B. Immune compromise
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. Which of the following is not associated with a high-fat diet?
    A. Decreased tissue oxygenation
    B. Increased risk for heart disease
    C. Increased carbon dioxide production
    D. Decreased DLCO
    C. Increased carbon dioxide production
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. What mineral plays a very important role in oxygen transport?
    A. Calcium
    B. Iron
    C. Zinc
    D. Magnesium
    B. Iron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. What route of nutritional feeding is considered as the first choice in feeding patients?
    A. Enteral
    B. Parenteral
    A. Enteral
  58. Which of the following is not associated with an increased metabolism?
    A. Severe burns
    B. Severe infection
    C. Trauma
    D. Hypothyroidism
    D. Hypothyroidism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the following might indicate poor nutritional status?
    A. Nitrogen balance
    B. Negative nitrogen balance
    C. Positive response to skin antigen testing
    D. BMI at normal weight
    B. Negative nitrogen balance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. What factor may contribute to decreased colloid osmotic pressure and pulmonary edema?
    A. Hypoalbuminemia
    B. Essential fatty acid deficiency
    C. High magnesium levels
    D. High-fat diet
    B. Essential fatty acid deficiency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. How does the cachectic patient appear physically?
    A. Very thin and malnourished
    B. Very short of breath
    C. Edematous around the face
    D. Central obesity only
    A. Very thin and malnourished
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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