SEN635FoundationsofSoftwareTesting.txt

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Author:
caldreaming
ID:
289960
Filename:
SEN635FoundationsofSoftwareTesting.txt
Updated:
2014-11-24 15:21:19
Tags:
foundations software testing metrics unit white black box integration regression engineering UML application design
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Description:
An overview of software testing strategies and software metrics. Develops topics on structured walk-through, unit, white and black box, integration, system, acceptance and regression testing. Formalizes process for requirements verification and software functional verification and validation. Introduces, examines and surveys advanced concepts of software engineering metrics and models from an application perspective.
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  1. completeness refers to;

    A) the ease with which an application can be used.
    B) the availability of all features listed in the requirements or in the user manual.
    C) adherence to a common set of conventions and assumptions.
    D) the time the application takes to perform a requested task.
    B) the availability of all features listed in the requirements or in the user manual.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

    A) Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.
    B) Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
    C) It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.
    D) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.
    C) It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.

    This should be obvious, even if you can't remember the seven principles. A is untrue, and C & D are clearly ridiculous.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?
    _ _
    a) Determine whether enough component testing was executed.
    b) Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and
    corrected.
    c) Prove that all faults are identified.
    d) Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.
    • b) Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and
    • corrected.

    As the saying goes, "failure is our business (and business is good)". We have no time for A, we only report defects and failures. We don't rush through our tests, because this can lead to things being missed, inadequate incident reports, etc. We can't prove that all faults have been identified (and this would violate Testing Principle 1 - Testing shows the presence of defects). So the answer is D.
  4. Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and Design?

    a) Setting or defining test objectives.
    b) Reviewing the test basis.
    c) Creating test suites from test procedures.
    d) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.

  5. Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is MOST likely a failure?
    _
    a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.
    b) One source code file included in the build was the wrong version.
    c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
    d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

  6. Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?
    _ _
    a) Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.
    b) Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and
    faults.
    c) Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.
    d) Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.

  7. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

    A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.
    B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developers work.
    C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment.
    D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.
    a) B and C are true; A and D are false.
    b) A and D are true; B and C are false.
    c) A and C are true, B and D are false.
    d) C and D are true, A and B are false.

  8. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?

    a) Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.
    b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.
    c) Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.
    d) Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.

  9. Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?
    _
    _a) The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.
    b) The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards.
    c) Testing without reference to the internal structure of the system.
    _d) Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability.

  10. What is important to do when working with software development models?

    a) To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.
    b) To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.
    c) To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.
    d) To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

  11. Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?
    _ _ _ _
    a) Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.
    b) All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.
    c) Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed.
    d) For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.

  12. For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

    a) Correction of defects during the development phase.
    b) Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.
    c) Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.
    d) Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

  13. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

         A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same.
         B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved.
         C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation.
         D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have
    introduced or uncovered defects.
         E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

    a) A, C and D and E are true; B is false.
    b) A, C and E are true; B and D are false.
    c) C and D are true; A, B and E are false.
    d) B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

  14. Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?
    _
    a) Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.
    b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.
    c) Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
    d) Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas _system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.

  15. Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review?
    _ _ _
    a) Initiation, status, preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
    b) Planning, preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up.
    c) Planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
    d) Preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up, root cause analysis.

  16. Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software
    project?

    Select 2 options.

    a) Informal review.
    b) Management review.
    c) Inspection.
    d) Walkthrough.
    e) Technical Review.

  17. Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?
    _ _
    a) Static analysis can be used as a preventive measure with appropriate process in place.
    b) Static analysis can find defects that are not easily found by dynamic testing.
    c) Static analysis can result in cost savings by finding defects early.
    d) Static analysis is a good way to force failures into the software.

  18. One of the test goals for the project is to have 100% decision coverage. The following three tests have been executed for the control flow graph shown
    below.
    Test A covers path: A, B, D, E, G.
    Test B covers path: A, B, D, E, F, G.
    Test C covers path: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G.


    Which of the following statements related to the decision coverage goal is correct?
    a) Decision D has not been tested completely.
    b) 100% decision coverage has been achieved.
    c) Decision E has not been tested completely.
    d) Decision F has not been tested completely.

  19. A defect was found during testing. When the network got disconnected while receiving data from a server, the system crashed. The defect was fixed by correcting the code that checked the network availability during data transfer. The existing test cases covered 100% of all statements of the corresponding module. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some new tests were designed and added to the test suite.

    What types of testing are mentioned above?

    A. Functional testing.
    B. Structural testing.
    C. Re-testing.
    D. Performance testing.

    a) A, B and D.
    b) A and C.
    c) A, B and C.
    d) A,C and D.
    c) A, B and C.

    Functional testing would have found the intial problem (i.e. the system suddenly crashes). Structural testing (or white box testing) would have been used to look inside the system and precisely identify the cause (i.e. the network becoming disconnected). Note that this would probably have been done by the developers while investigating the fault. Confirmation testing relates to the "new tests", which would check that the fault has been fixed. There is no mention of performance testing.
  20. Which of the following statements about the given state table is TRUE?


    a) The state table can be used to derive both valid and invalid transitions.
    b) The state table represents all possible single transitions.
    c) The state table represents only some of all possible single transitions.
    d) The state table represents sequential pairs of transitions.

  21. Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence partitioning test technique?

    A. Divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behavior.
    B. Uses both valid and invalid partitions.
    C. Makes use only of valid partitions.
    D. Must include at least two values from every equivalence partition.
    E. Can be used only for testing equivalence partitions inputs from a Graphical User Interface.

    a) A, B and E are true; C and D are false.
    b) A, C and D are true; B and E are false.
    c) A and E are true; B, C and D are false.
    d) A and B are true; C, D and E are false.

  22. Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques?

    Select 2 options.

    a) Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary
    value.
    b) Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.
    c) Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, checklist based, statement coverage, use case.
    d) Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage, use case.
    e) Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage and boundary value.

  23. An employees bonus is to be calculated. It cannot become negative, but it can be calculated to zero. The bonus is based on the duration of the employment. An employee can be employed for less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5 to 10 years, or longer than 10 years. Depending on this period of employment, an employee will get either
    no bonus or a bonus of 10%, 25% or 35%.

    How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?

    A) 5.
    B) 4.
    C) 2.
    D) 3.
    B) 4.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Which of the following statements about the benefits of deriving test cases from use cases are most likely to be true?

    A. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and acceptance testing.
    B. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful only for automated testing.
    C. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for component testing.
    D. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for testing the interaction between different components of the system.

    a) A and D are true; B and C are false.
    b) A is true; B, C and D are false.
    c) A and B are true; C and D are false.
    d) C is true; A, B and D are false.

  25. Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing?
    _ _ _
    a) Experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about software failures.
    b) Risk analysis performed at the beginning of the project.
    c) Use Cases derived from the business flows by domain experts.
    d) Expected results from comparison with an existing system.

  26. Which of the following would be the best test approach when there are poor specifications and time pressures?

    a) Use Case Testing.
    b) Condition Coverage.
    c) Exploratory Testing.
    d) Path Testing.

  27. Which one of the following techniques is structure-based?

    a) Decision testing.
    b) Boundary value analysis.
    c) Equivalence partitioning.
    d) State transition testing

  28. You have started specification-based testing of a program. It calculates the greatest common divisor (GCD) of two integers (A and B) greater than zero.

    calcGCD (A, B);

    The following test cases (TC) have been specified.
    TC         A         B
    1           1         1
    2     INT_MAX  INT_MAX
    3           1         0
    4           0         1
    5  INT_MAX+1   1
    6           1      INT_MAX+1

    INT_MAX: largest Integer

    Which test technique has been applied in order to determine test cases 1 through 6?

    a) Boundary value analysis.
    b) State transition testing.
    c) Equivalence partitioning.
    d) Decision table testing.

  29. Consider the following state transition diagram and test case table:


    Which of the following statements are TRUE?
    A. The test case table exercises the shortest number of transitions.
    B. The test case gives only the valid state transitions.
    C. The test case gives only the invalid state transitions.
    D. The test case exercises the longest number of transitions.

    a) Only A is true; B, C and D are false.
    b) Only B is true; A, C and D are false.
    c) A and D are true; B, C are false.
    d) Only C is true; A, B and D are false.

  30. Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager and tester?
    _ _ _ _
    a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and controls to be used.
    b) The test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies, automates and executes tests.
    c) The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests.
    d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

  31. Which of the following can be categorized as product risks?

    a) Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests.
    b) Political problems and delays in especially complex areas in the product.
    _c) Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics.
    d) Problems in defining the right requirements, potential failure areas in the _software or system.

  32. Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?
    _ _ _ _
    a) Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks.
    b) Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, degree of tester independence and product completeness.
    c) Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, time to market and product completeness, availability of testable code.
    d) Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost.

  33. As a Test Manager you have the following requirements to be tested:

    Requirements to test:
    R1 - Process Anomalies High Complexity
    R2 - Remote Services Medium Complexity
    R3 Synchronization Medium Complexity
    R4 Confirmation Medium Complexity
    R5 - Process closures Low Complexity
    R6 Issues Low Complexity
    R7 - Financial Data Low Complexity
    R8 - Diagram Data Low Complexity
    R9 - Changes on user profile Medium Complexity

    Requirements logical dependencies (A -> B means that B is dependent on A):

    How would you structure the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies?
    a) R4>R5>R1>R2>R3>R7>R8>R6>R9.
    b) R1>R2>R3>R4>R5>R7>R8>R6>R9.
    c) R1 > R2 > R4 > R5 > R3 > R7 > R8 > R6 > R9.
    d) R1>R2>R3>R7>R8>R4>R5>R6>R9.

  34. What is the benefit of independent testing?
    _ _
    a) More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.
    b) Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.
    c) Independent testers do not need extra education and training.
    d) Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

  35. Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?

    a) Skill and staff shortages.
    b) Poor software characteristics.
    c) Failure-prone software delivered.
    d) Possible reliability defect (bug).

  36. As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?
    _ _
    a) The number of test cases using Black Box techniques.
    b) A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals.
    c) Overall evaluation of each development work item.
    d) Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort

  37. You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829?

    a) Impact, incident description, date and time, your name.
    b) Unique id for the report, special requirements needed.
    c) Transmitted items, your name and youre feeling about the defect source.
    d) Incident description, environment, expected results.

  38. From the list below, select the recommended principles for introducing a chosen test tool in an organization?
    _ _ _ _
    1. Roll the tool out to the entire organization at the same time.
    2. Start with a pilot project.
    3. Adapt and improve processes to fit the use of the tool.
    4. Provide training and coaching for new users.
    5. Let each team decide their own standard ways of using the tool.
    6. Monitor that costs do not exceed initial acquisition cost.
    7. Gather lessons learned from all teams.

    a) 1,2,3,5.
    b) 1,4,6,7.
    c) 2,3,4,7.
    d) 3,4,5,6.

  39. Which one of the following best describes a characteristic of a keyword-driven test execution tool?

    a) A table with test input data, action words, and expected results, controls execution of the system under test.
    b) Actions of testers recorded in a script that is rerun several times.
    c) Actions of testers recorded in a script that is run with several sets of test input data.
    d) The ability to log test results and compare them against the expected results, stored in a text file.

  40. Which of the following is NOT a goal of a Pilot Project for tool evaluation?

    a) To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices.
    b) To determine use, management, storage, and maintenance of the tool and test assets.
    c) To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
    d) To reduce the defect rate in the Pilot Project.

  41. Below is a list of test efficiency improvement goals a software development and test organization would like to achieve.

    Which of these goals would best be supported by a test management tool?
    a) To build traceability between requirements, tests, and bugs.
    b) To optimize the ability of tests to identify failures.
    c) To resolve defects faster.
    d) To automate selection of test cases for execution.

  42. Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

    A. Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.
    B. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.
    C. Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
    D. The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.
    • B. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.
    • Which of the following are Black Box test design techniques?

    • I. Boundary value analysis
    • II. Branch condition testing
    • III. Equivalence partitioning
    • IV. State transition testing.

    • A. I, II, III and IV
    • B. I and III
    • C. III and IV
    • D. I, III and IV
    • D. I, III and IV
  43. Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident report?

    A. Provides developers a way to critique their individual work processes.
    B. Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the system.
    C. Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign.
    D. Provides test management ideas for test process improvement.
    D. Provides test management ideas for test process improvement.

    Only B & C sound like "sensible" answers. But we eliminate C because you can't base statistics on an incident report (you could only obtain statistics by extracting data from many incident reports). So the answer is B.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following are good candidates for manual static testing?

    A. Requirement specifications, website, code, use cases.
    B. Requirement specifications, test cases, user guides.
    C. Requirement specifications, user guides, performance.
    D. Requirement specifications, test plan, code, memory leaks.
    B. Requirement specifications, test cases, user guides.

    We can't do static testing on memory leaks or performance (these require dynamic testing). And we wouldn't choose to do it for website testing (far better to do manual dynamic testing). So this leaves B as the answer.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. What is integration testing?

    A. Integration of automated software test suites with the application under test.
    B. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration with the rest of the system.
    C. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
    D. Testing performed to expose faults in the interaction between components and systems.
    D. Testing performed to expose faults in the interaction between components and systems.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. A test case has which of the following elements?

    A. A test environment description and test instructions.
    B. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions.
    C. Execution instructions and a function description to determine correct outcome.
    D. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes.
    D. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. In any software development life cycle (SDLC) model, which of the following are characteristics of good testing?

    I. Providing complete test coverage of all branches of the system code.
    II. Having a corresponding testing activity for each development activity.
    III. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available.
    IV. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.

    A. I, III and IV
    B. I and III
    C. II, III and IV
    D. I and II
    C. II, III and IV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which of the following are success factors for reviews?

    I. Clear objectives for each review.
    II. Checklists and/or roles are used to increase effectiveness of defect identification.
    III. There is an emphasis on process improvement.
    IV. People issues and psychological aspects are not reviewed.

    A. I and III
    B. I, II and III
    C. II, III and IV
    D. IV
    C. I, II and III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

    A. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.
    B. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
    C. Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.
    D. Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.
    A. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which of the following might be a concern of a test group relying on a test design tool?

    A. The tools playback function may not work the same for all testers workstations.
    B. The tool may not generate sufficient tests for verifying all aspects of the test object.
    C. The tools test logs may require that the test group upgrade the server memory
    D. The tool might take too much time to run, putting the schedule at jeopardy.
    B. The tool may not generate sufficient tests for verifying all aspects of the test object.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Company ABC is going to provide their employees with a bonus which will be based on the employees length of service in the company. The bonus calculation will be zero if they have been with the company for less than two years, 10% of their salary for more than two but less than five years, and 25% for five to ten years, 35% for ten years or more. The interface will not allow a negative value to be input, but it will allow a zero to be input.

    How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?
    A. Five equivalence partitions.
    B. Three equivalence partitions.
    C. Four equivalence partitions.
    D. Two equivalence partitions.
    C. Four equivalence partitions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. For the following piece of code, how many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage?

    Procedure X
    Read (Color) // Input color from user
    IF (Color == Red) THEN
    Call Roses(Color)
    ELSEIF (Color == Blue) THEN
    Call Violets(Color)
    ELSE
    PRINT User is no Shakespeare
    SaveToDatabase(Color)
    End Procedure X

    A. 3
    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 5
    A. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Given the following code snippet, how many test cases would we need to get 100% decision coverage?

    Each of the following functions simply prints and returns:
    ------------
    PrintOutHeader;
    PrintOutSalutation;
    PrintOutMainBody;
    PrintOutSignature;
    --------------

    A. 2
    B. 1
    C. 0
    D. 4
    B. 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A simplified state transition table is being used to model a banks ATM login behavior. Three states have been identified:
         Waiting for Customer
         PIN processing
         ATM Processing
    The following events have been identified (note that some have multiple conditions possible: noted in brackets):
         Insert Card [Valid and Invalid]
         Cancel (2 Actions possible: ATM Returns card to customer, ATM Keeps card)
         Enter PIN [Valid, Invalid]
         Done (Action: ATM Returns card to customer)
    Like most ATMs, inputting the incorrect PIN 3 times causes the ATM to keep the card and output a message that the card can be picked up the next day at the home bank.

    For final regression testing, you are required to test to the level of coverage exercising all transitions. Assume that each test case begins at State 1 (Waiting for Customer.) A test case must end when it arrives back at State 1. ATM operation may be cancelled at the PIN processing state or at the ATM
    Processing state.

    Based on the following state-transition diagram, what is the minimum number of test cases need to provide this level of coverage?

    A. 4
    B. 3
    C. 7
    D. 5
    D. 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. A piece of code for an operating system contains 1,200 lines of code. The code contains a single IF
    statement that contains only an error display. There are no other conditional constructs in the code.
    How many test cases are required if the test organization requires the system to be tested to the 50%
    decision coverage limit and to 100% statement coverage?

    A. 1
    B. 4
    C. 1,200
    D. 2
    A. 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Which of the following are potential benefits of adding tools to the test process?

    i) Reduction of repetitive testing procedures.
    ii) Ability to hire testers with fewer technical skills.
    iii) Ability to get an objective assessment of progress.
    iv) Greater consistency in testing procedures.


    A. i, iii & iv
    B. ii, iii & iv
    C. I, ii & iv
    D. i, ii & iii
    A. i, iii & iv

    Clearly a testing certification question would never contain "ability to hire testers with fewer technical skills" as a correct answer, so this eliminates A, C & D, leaving B as the answer. Note that, in questions like these, you can quickly get to the right answer by getting rid of the wrong ones. This is much faster than working through each possible answer. So always look for the ridiculous statement and strike out all the answers that contain it.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Who mention that 'Quality is free'?

    A. Philip Crosby
    B. Genichi Taguchi
    C. Edwards Deming
    D. Joseph M. Juran
    A. Philip Crosby
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Quality Control is?

    A. Preventive
    B. Detective
    C. Validation
    D. Verification
    B. Detective
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. How many maturity levels that indicate process capability CMMi has?

    A. 4
    B. 7
    C. 6
    D. 5
    D. 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. What UML diagram is useful for black box testing?
    A. Class Diagram
    B. End-to-End Flow Diagram
    C. Object Diagram
    D. Sequence Diagram
    D. Sequence Diagram
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. What type of tests is performed early in a software testing process?

    A. Black-box
    B. White-box
    C. Grey-box
    D. None of the Above
    B. White-box
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. What kind of tools would you suggest to use for the automation of regression tests?
    A. Static analysis tools
    B. Capture and playback
    C. Debugging tools
    D. None of the Above
    B. Capture and playback
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Equivalence class partitioning is?

    A. A white-box method
    B. A black-box method
    C. Both A & B
    D. None of the Above
    B. A black-box method
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following is non-incremental test?

    A. Bottom-up testing
    B. Big bang testing
    C. Top-down testing
    D. Stab testing
    B. Big bang testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. What type of high order test subjects the system to large loads over a short period of time?

    A. Usability testing
    B. Volume testing
    C. Security testing
    D. Stress testing
    D. Stress testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which testing technique involves installing a system at a large number of user sites?

    A. Alpha testing
    B. Beta testing
    C. Boundary value analysis
    D. Volume testing
    B. Beta testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. What is the relationship between Quality Assurance (QA) and software testing?

    A. QA is part of software testing process
    B. Testing is part of QA process
    C. Testing and QA are two different processes
    D. Testing and QA are all the same thing
    B. Testing is part of QA process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Who of the following is the least reliable person to test a program?
    A. The developer who design the system
    B. An independent agency
    C. The developer who wrote the code
    D. The testing department in the company that created the application
    C. The developer who wrote the code
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

    A. 5, 100, 101
    B. 3, 4, 100
    C. 4, 5, 99
    C. 4, 5, 99
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. True/False: The purpose of exit criteria is to define when a test level is complete.

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  71. True/False: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing User Acceptance Test Cases .

    A. False
    B. True
    B. True
  72. What is a failure?

    A. Failure is a departure from specified behaviour
    B. Failure is not a departure from specified behaviour
    A. Failure is a departure from specified behaviour
  73. What is Fault Masking ?
    A. Error condition hiding another error condition.
    B. Error condition stop another error condition.
    C. Error condition displaying another error condition.
    D. None
    A. Error condition hiding another error condition.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. True/False: The main benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle is that it helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.

    a) True
    b) False
    a) True
  75. True/False: Risk-based testing is the term used for an approach to creating a test strategy that is based on prioritizing tests by risk. The basis of the approach is a detailed risk analysis and prioritizing of risks by risk level. Tests to address each risk are then specified, starting with the highest risk first.

    a) True
    b) False
    a) True
  76. Enough testing has been performed when:

    A. the users won't find any serious faults.
    B. the required level of confidence has been achieved.
    C. no more faults are found.
    D. time runs out.
    B. the required level of confidence has been achieved.

    Even though in real life we often end up stopping when time runs out, we should continue until the required level of confidence has been achieved.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

    A. Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
    B. Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
    C. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
    D. Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
    C. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

    The first three answers are wrong because reviews definitely can be performed on documents including user requirements specifications and test plans, and code reviews can be an effective way of testing code.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Static analysis is best described as:

    A. the use of black box testing.
    B. the reviewing of test plans.
    C. the analysis of program code.
    D. the analysis of batch programs.
    C. the analysis of program code.

    Static analysis is the analysis of software artifacts, for example, requirements or code. Note that black box testing is testing without reference to the internal structure of the component or system, whereas in static analysis we might actually look through the code (or use a tool to do this).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. In the Australian tax rates for 2008-09, the first $6,000 are tax free. The next $28,000 are taxed at 15%. The next $46,000 are taxed at 30%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%.Which of these amounts would fall into the same equivalence class?

    A. $6,800; $44,000; $46,000
    B. $46,001; $57,000; $81,000
    C. $36,000; $46,000; $78,000
    D. $7,000; $7,500; $52,000
    C. $36,000; $46,000; $78,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

    A. An inspection has a trained leader, whereas a walkthrough has no leader.
    B. A walkthrough is led by the author, whereas an inspection is led by a trained moderator.
    C. Authors are not present during inspections, whereas they are present during walkthroughs.
    D. An inspection is led by the author, whereas a walkthrough is led by a trained moderator.
    B. A walkthrough is led by the author, whereas an inspection is led by a trained moderator.

    A walkthrough is a step-by-step presentation by the author to gain information and to establish common understanding; it is led by the author. An inspection is a peer review led by a moderator.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. A failure is:

    A. an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
    B. a human action that produces an incorrect result.
    C. a departure from specified behaviour.
    D. found in the software and is the result of an error.
    C. a departure from specified behaviour.

    We need to be careful to distinguish the terms error (or mistake) from defect (or bug or fault) from failure. An error can cause a defect which may result in a failure. Answers A & C are defects, and answer D is an error.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

    A. User acceptance testing
    B. System testing
    C. Regression testing
    D. Integration testing
    C. Regression testing

    This is because automation suites take a lot of work to create and maintain, and this investment only becomes worthwhile if the suites are run regularly (as is the case with regression testing).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Which of the following requirements is testable?

    A. The system will be user friendly.
    B. The safety-critical parts of the system will contain zero faults.
    C. The response time will be less than one second for the specified usage load.
    D. The system will be built to be portable.
    C) The response time will be less than one second for the specified usage load.

    Except for the response time of less than one second, all the other options are too vague to be testable.
  84. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

    A. Can be performed by inexperienced staff.
    B. Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
    C. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
    D. Are cheap to perform.
    C. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

    A. Test high risk areas.
    B. Test whatever is easiest to test.
    C. Obtain good test coverage.
    D. Find as many faults as possible.
    A. Test high risk areas.

    With the exception of "Test whatever is easiest to test", all the other options are important. However, the testing of high risk areas is the most important.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which of the following would not normally form part of a test plan?

    A. Features to be tested
    B. Schedule
    C. Incident reports
    D. Risks
    C. Incident reports

    Incident reports can't be written until testing occurs, so they can hardly be part of the test plan.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Which of the following should not normally be an objective for a test?

    A. To find faults in the software.
    B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.
    C. To prove that the software is correct.
    D. To demonstrate that the software doesn't work.
    C. To prove that the software is correct.

    It is impossible to prove that software is correct. (Remember Testing Principle 1: Testing shows the presence of defects).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Software testing activities should start;

    A. during the design stage
    B. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
    C. as soon as the code is written
    D. when the requirements have been formally documented
    B. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Faults found by users are due to:

    A. insufficient time for testing
    B. Poor quality software
    C. bad luck
    D. Poor software and poor testing
    D. Poor software and poor testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?

    A. to find as many bugs as possible before release
    B. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
    C. to give information for a risk based decision about release
    D. to show that system will work after release
    C. to give information for a risk based decision about release
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. which of the following statements is not true;

    A. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
    B. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
    C. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
    D. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
    D. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:

    A. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
    B. firm about insisting that a bug is not a feature if it should be fixed
    C. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  93. In which order should tests be run?

    A. the order they are thought of
    B. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
    C. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
    D. the most important tests first
    D. the most important tests first
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?

    A. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
    B. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
    C. wages are rising
    D. None of the above
    A. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Which is not true-The black box tester;

    A. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
    B. is highly motivated to find faults
    C. is creative to find the systems weaknesses
    D. should be able to understand the source code.
    D. should be able to understand the source code.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. A test design technique is;

    A. a process for selecting test cases
    B. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
    C. a process for determining expected outputs
    D. a way to measure the quality of software
    A. a process for selecting test cases
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Testware(test cases, test dataset);

    A. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
    B. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
    C. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
    B. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. An incident logging system;

    A. is of limited value
    B. should be used only by the test team.
    C. is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
    D. only records defects
    C. is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:

    A. no change
    B. increasing test time
    C. reducing test time
    C. reducing test time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Coverage measurement;

    A. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
    B. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
    C. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
    D. is nothing to do with testing
    B. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. When should you stop testing?

    A. when all planned tests have been run
    B. when no faults have been found by the tests run
    C. when the test completion criteria have been met
    D. when time for testing has run out.
    C. when the test completion criteria have been met
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which of the following is true?

    A. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
    B. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
    C. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
    D. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
    B. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?

    A. the objective of the test
    B. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
    C. whether there is a tool to support the technique
    D. how well you know a particular technique
    A. the objective of the test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. If the pseudo code below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
    1.If x=3 then
    2. Display_messageX;
    3. If y=2 then
    4. Display_messageY;
    5.Else
    6.Display_messageZ;
    7.Else
    8.Display_messageZ;

    A. 4
    B. 2
    C. 1
    D. 3
    D. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Regression testing should be performed:

    v) every week
    w) after the software has changed
    x) as often as possible
    y) when the environment has changed
    z) when the project manager says

    A) w is true, v, x, y & z are false
    B) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
    C) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
    D) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
    C) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?

    A. Security
    B. Usability
    C. State-Transition
    D. Performance
    C. State-Transition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?

    A. Memory analysis
    B. Coverage analysis
    C. Dynamic analysis
    D. State analysis
    C. Dynamic analysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

    A) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
    B) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
    C) to determine when to stop testing
    D) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
    C) to determine when to stop testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
    Read p
    Read q
    IF p+q > 100 THEN
    Print Large
    ENDIF
    IF p > 50 THEN Print p Large
    ENDIF

    A) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    B) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    C) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    D) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    C) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. Functional system testing is:

    A) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
    B) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
    C) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
    D) testing that the system functions with other systems
    B) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. What can static analysis NOT find?

    A) array bound violations
    B) the use of a variable before it has been defined
    C) unreachable (dead) code
    D) memory leaks
    D) memory leaks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:

    A) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
    B) reading test values from a data file
    C) recording test inputs
    D) calculating expected outputs
    D) calculating expected outputs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Expected results are:

    A) only used in component testing
    B) derived from the code
    C) most useful when specified in advance
    D) only important in system testing
    C) most useful when specified in advance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

    A) non-functional system testing
    B) user acceptance testing
    C) component testing
    D) maintenance testing
    D) maintenance testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

    A) We can run different tests in different environments.
    B) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
    C) Each test stage has a different purpose.
    D) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
    C) Each test stage has a different purpose.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

    A) Incident reports
    B) Schedule
    C) Risks
    D) Features to be tested
    A) Incident reports
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

    A) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
    B) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
    C) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
    D) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
    D) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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