5 Level.txt

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Author:
DGL2014
ID:
290960
Filename:
5 Level.txt
Updated:
2014-12-07 20:40:00
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2T251 CDC 39A
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5 level 2T251
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    • author "me"
    • tags "2T251 CDC"
    • folders ""
    • description ""
    • fileName "5 Level"
    • freezingBlueDBID -1.0
    • If you are performing duties in air force specialty code 2t251, which describes you best?
    • a. Air transportation apprentice
    • b. Air transportation journeyman
    • c. Traffic management apprentice
    • d. Traffic management journeyman
    • b. Air transportation journeyman
  1. If you are performing anti-hijack inspections, which function are you performing?
    A. Air freight
    B. Ramp operations
    C. Passenger service
    D. Fleet service
    C. Passenger service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. If you are cordinating wiyh other work centers to ensure the loading process runs smoothly and on time, which function are you performing?
    A. Fleet service
    B. Ramp operations
    C. Passenger service
    D. Air terminal operations center
    D. Air terminal operations center
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. If you are part of the traffice management specialty in the transportation career field, which duties would you perform?
    A. Organizing vehicle transportation to support operational missions
    B. Managing the inspection and repair of the vehicle and equipment fleet
    C. Ensuring maximum utilization and providing oversight to all other work centers
    D. Packaging, classifying and arranging personal property for shipment or storage
    D. Packaging, classifying and arranging personal property for shipment or storage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which specialty does not fall under the transportation and vehicle management career field?
    A. Air transportation
    B. Air traffic control
    C. Vehicle operations
    D. Traffic management
    B. Air traffic control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment from deployed positions within or between areas of responsibility?
    A. Employment
    B. Deployment
    C. Sustainment
    D. Redeployment
    D. Redeployment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land and sea transportation?
    A. Military sealift command (MSC)
    B. Surface deployment and distribution command (SDDC)
    C. Air mobility command (AMC)
    D. US transportation command (USTRANSCOM)
    D. US transportation command (USTRANSCOM)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which command is the link between department of defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?
    A. US transportation command (USTRANSCOM)
    B. Air mobility command (AMC)
    C. Military sealift command (MSC)
    D. Surface deployment and distribution command (SDDC)
    D. Surface deployment and distribution command (SDDC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which command is the US transportation command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides air lift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?
    A. Air deployment and mobility command (ADMC)
    B. Air transportation mobility command (ATMC)
    C. Air mobility command (AMC)
    D. Mobility airlift command (MAC)
    C. Air mobility command (AMC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which agency serves as air mobility command's (AMC) strategic air operations huband plans, directs, schedules and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?
    A. Wing airlift control center (WACC)
    B. Wing operations center (WOC)
    C. Aerial port operations center (APOC)
    D. Tanker airlift control center (TACC)
    D. Tanker airlift control center (TACC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Through which system does the air force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)
    A. Sustainment mobility system (SMS)
    B. Mobility traffic management system (MTMS)
    C. National air mobility system (NAMS)
    D. Global deployment and mobility system (GDMS)
    C. National air mobility system (NAMS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?
    A. Aerial port of embarkation (APOE)
    B. Aerial port of mobility (APOM)
    C. Aerial port of inspection (APOI)
    D. Aerial port of debarkation (APOD)
    D. Aerial port of debarkation (APOD)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The cordinated use, synchronization, and sharing of two or more military departments logistics forces is called?
    A. Joint mission
    B. Joint forces
    C. Joint logistics
    D. Joint command
    C. Joint logistics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which type of organization is created to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and is dissolved when no longer needed?
    A. Unified force
    B. Specified force
    C. Joint task force
    D. Lead nation force
    C. Joint task force
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. How many pallets can the c17 hold in its aerial delivery system and its logistics rail system, respectively?
    A. 18 and 11
    B. 18 and 9
    C. 9 and 18
    D. 11 and 18
    D. 11 and 18
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which aircraft can hold up to six pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?
    A. Kc135
    B. C17
    C. C130
    D. C5
    C. C130
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which pallet positions on a c130h require safety isles?
    A. 4 and 5 only
    B. 4, 5 and 8 only
    C. 3 and 4 only
    D. 3, 4 and 6 only
    D. 3, 4 and 6 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which pallet positions on a c130j (stretch) require safety aisles?
    A. 3 and 4 only
    B. 4 and 5 only
    C. 3, 4 and 6 only
    D. 4, 5 and 8 only
    D. 4, 5 and 8 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A single pallet loaded in pallet position 5 on a c130h can be a maximum of how many pounds?
    A. 7500
    B. 8500
    C. 5000
    D. 4664
    B. 8500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What is the civil reserve air fleet (CRAF) designed to do?
    A. Augment dods airlift capability in times of war or during a president declared emergency.
    B. Support commercial air carriers during times of economic crisis.
    C. Enable dod to bypass federal aviation administration rules during a president declared emergency.
    D. Reduce the costs of air trasportation for personnel in temporary duty status.
    A. Augment dods airlift capability in times of war or during a president declared emergency.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which stage of civil reserve air fleet (CRAF) activation supports major regional conflicts or a major theater war?
    A. Stage III, national emergency
    B. Stage I, committed expansion
    C. Stage IV, global expansion
    D. Stage II, defense airlift emergency
    D. Stage II, defense airlift emergency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. If you are wearing eyeglasses and bulky uniform items with cords and strings, what must you do before working around moving parts and machinery?
    A. Report them to make your supervisor aware of the hazard
    B. Take them off to eliminate the hazard
    C. Wear your personal protective equipment to reduce the hazard
    D. Secure them to minimize the hazard
    D. Secure them to minimize the hazard
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. If you accidentally damaged the halvorsen loader by running into the concrete barriers on your way to load an aircraft, to whom should you report the damage and when?
    A. Your supervisor immediately
    B. The aircraft loadmaster immediately upon your arrival at the aircraft
    C. Your supervisor after you finish loading the aircraft
    D. Your supervisor at the end of your shift
    A. Your supervisor immediately
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. If you are driving a special purpose vehicle within 25 feet of an aircraft, what is the maximum miles per hour you can drive.
    A. 20
    B. 15
    C. 5
    D. 10
    C. 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. If you are driving on the flight line, when is it authorized to come between a taxiing aircraft and its follow me guide?
    A. Only with proper permission from the control tower
    B. Anytime, as long as there is enough room
    C. Never
    D. Only with permission from the air terminal operations center
    C. Never
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. If you need to leave your vehicle unattended on the flight line, other than leaving the keys in the ignition with the vehicle unlocked, which actions are required?
    A. Turn off the ignition, place it in neutral with the parking brake set, and chock the front and back of both rear tires
    B. Leave the vehicle running, place it in reverse or park and chock the front and back of one front wheel
    C. Turn off the ignition, place it in reverse or park, set the parking brake, and chock the front and back of one rear wheel
    D. Leave the vehicle running, place it in neutral with the parking brake set, and chock one front and one rear wheel
    C. Turn off the ignition, place it in reverse or park, set the parking brake, and chock the front and back of one rear wheel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. If you are stopped on the flight line at night and your headlights are on, what should you do if an aircraft is taxiing towards your area?
    A. Maintain a minimum distance of at least 25 feet in all directions of the aircraft
    B. Turn your vehicle around to face the opposite direction
    C. Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead
    D. Get out of the way
    C. Turn your headlights off and your emergency flashers on instead
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. If you are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light signal, what action should you take?
    A. Clear the active runway
    B. Return to the starting point
    C. Stop, your vehicle will not be moved
    D. General warning, exercise extreme caution
    B. Return to the starting point
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. If you are crossing the active runway and see a flashing red light signal, what action should you take?
    A. Return to the starting point
    B. General warning, exercise extreme caution
    C. Clear the active runway
    D. Stop, your vehicle will not be moved
    C. Clear the active runway
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. If you are crossing the active runway and see a steady red light signal, what action should you take?
    A. Return to the starting point
    B. Stop. Your vehicle will not be moved
    C. Clear the active runway
    D. General warning. Exercise extreme caution
    B. Stop. Your vehicle will not be moved.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. If you are crossing an active runway and see a red and green light signal, what action should you take?
    A. Clear the active runway
    B. Return to the starting point
    C. Stop. Your vehicle will not be moved
    D. General warning. Exercise extreme caution
    D. General warning. Exercise extreme caution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
    A. Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed
    B. Check your email and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule
    C. Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in
    D. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command
    D. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. When assigning personnel to work crews, which of the following is not a consideration?
    A. Assigning them to the same duties every day
    B. Considering their safety and security
    C. Communicating your expectations to the work crews
    D. Knowing your people and the work centers current and future needs
    A. Assigning them to the same duties every day
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Once you have assigned people to various work crews, you must ensure that they
    A. Report to you every 30 minutes on their progress
    B. Keep a running log of their activities so they can report back to you every detail
    C. Do not take too much time on any one task
    D. Know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect fr om each member
    D. Know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect from each member
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Your supervisor referred you to the defense transportation regulation (DTR) to look up information about joint inspection procedures. After locating the DTR through the AF portal, in which part of the DTR do you look?
    A. Part IV
    B. Part II
    C. Part I
    D. Part III
    D. Part III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. You are working in the passenger terminal helping a customer determine if he and his family are allowed to fly space available on a DOD aircraft. In which publication would you look?
    A. Air mobility command instruction (AMCI) 24-101
    B. DOD 4515.13R, air transportation eligibility
    C. DOD 4500.54M, foreign clearance guide (FCG)
    D. DTR, 4500.9R, defense transportation regulation
    B. DOD 4515.13R, air transportation eligibility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. You are searching for the publication titled preparing hazardous materials for military air shipment and are at the menu of air force (AF) publications where they are functionally grouped. Now you select
    A. 11 series publications link and locate the AF Manual
    B. 24 series publications link and locate the AF Manual
    C. 24 series publications link and locate the AF Instruction
    D. 11 series publications link and locate the AF Instruction
    B. 24 series publications link and locate the AF Manual
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. A coworker wants help determining if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?
    A. Air mobility command instruction (AMCI) 24-101
    B. Air force manual (AFMAN) 24-204 (I)
    C. Air mobility command pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-204
    D. Air force instruction (AFI) 24-101
    B. Air force manual (AFMAN) 24-204 (I)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. You want to find out if the 36M2-3-45 technical order (TO) is still current. In which TO would you look?
    A. Methods and procedures TO
    B. Operations and maintenance TO
    C. Air force TO catalog
    D. General TO
    C. Air force TO catalog
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. You a re loading tanks on a c17 aircraft and want to find specific loading procedures for these items. Which section of the 1C-17A-9 technical order (TO) would you refer to first?
    A. Section V
    B. Section II
    C. Section VI
    D. Section IV
    C. Section VI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. In the aircraft -9 series technical orders, the loading procedures in which section have precedence over instructions in section IV?
    A. Section II
    B. Section V
    C. Section III
    D. Section VI
    D. Section VI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which volume of the USAF war and mobilization plan (WMP) provides the basis for planning and pre positioning of war reserve material (WRM)?
    A. WMP 3
    B. WMP 4
    C. WMP 1
    D. WMP 5
    B. WMP 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Joint operation planning and execution system (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop
    A. Operational plans (OPLANS) and time phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs)
    B. Joint inspection standards and global air mobility support system (GAMSS) taskings
    C. Joint planning and execution community (JPEC) regulations and deployment work centers
    D. Installation deployment officers (IDOs) and air expeditionary force tempo bands
    A. Operational plans (OPLANS) and time phased force and development data (TPFDDs)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which important part of the time phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is identified by a five digit alphanumeric code and is simply a capability?
    A. Unit type code (UTC)
    B. Transportation control number (TCN)
    C. transportation account code (TAC)
    D. Document identifier (DOC ID)
    A. Unit type code (UTC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. War reserve material (WRM) is equipment and other resources, authorized for wartime to maximize war fighting capability, that are positioned as
    A. Swing stock and starter stock or a combination of both
    B. Daily operating stock and swing stock or a combination of both
    C. Daily operating stock only
    D. daily operating stock and starter stock or a combination of both
    A. Swing stock and starter stock or a combination of both
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. The benefit of pre positioning war reserve material (WRM) is to
    A. Facilitate installation to installation rotation to integrate into their daily operating stocks
    B. Provide staging bases an opportunity to freely use their WRM stocks for authorized indirect support
    C. Reduce the amount of time, resources, and effort it takes to transport equipment to the necesary locations during combat operations
    D. Allow the installation deployment officer (IDO) to use it for installation deployment training
    C. Reduce the amount of time, resources, and effort it takes to transport equipment to the necessary locations during combat operations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which 463l pallets and nets are designated as war reserve material (WRM)?
    A. Only 463l pallets and nets that belong to air mobility command (AMC) units
    B. All serviceable 463l pallets and nets in the air forces inventory
    C. Only 463l pallets and nets required for the movement of other WRM assets
    D. No 463l pallets and nets are designated as WRM
    C. Only 463l pallets and nets required for the movement of other WRM assets
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. If you are tasked to manifest, transport, and load passengers, to which deployment work center would you be assigned?
    A. Arrival/departure airfield control group (A/DACG)
    B. Cargo deployment function (CDF)
    C. Personnel deployment function (PDF)
    D. Deployment control center (DCC)
    C. Personnel deployment function (PDF)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. If many passengers are departing from their own home station or the installation is designated as an "aggregation ariel port of embarkation (APOE)," the personnel deployment function (PDF) can establish what to manifest, transport, and load passengers?
    A. Air passenger terminal (APT)
    B. Arrival/departure passenger control group (A/DPCG)
    C. Passenger deployment control center (PDCC)
    D. Installation passenger readinesss cell (IPRC)
    A. Air passenger terminal (APT)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. If you, as a cargo deployment function (CDF) representative, have directed the deploying unit to move from the marshalling area, to which area will they move?
    A. Call forward area
    B. Alert holding area
    C. Ready line/loading ramp area
    D. Frustrated cargo area
    B. Alert holding area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. If you, as a cargo deployment function (CDF) representative, have directed the deploying unit to move from the alert holding area, to which area will they move?
    A. Frustrated cargo area
    B. Marshalling area
    C. Call forward area
    D. Ready line/loading ramp area
    C. Call forward area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. If you are performing a joint inspection (JI) in the cargo deployment function (CDF), in which area of activity are you working?
    A. Call forward area
    B. Frustrated cargo area
    C. Ready line/loading ramp area
    D. Marshalling area
    A. Call forward area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. During a joint inspection (JI), if the deploying unit cannot correct discrepancies with their cargo right away, to what area will you send the cargo until it is corrected?
    A. Marshalling area
    B. Ready line/loading ramp area
    C. Frustrated cargo area
    D. Alert holding area
    C. Frustrated cargo area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. If you are directing aircraft loading and supervising load team members in the cargo deployment function (CDF), in which area of activity are you working?
    A. Ready line/loading ramp area
    B. Alert holding area
    C. Marshalling area
    D. Call forward area
    A. Ready line/loading ramp area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. If the deploying unit can no longer make changes to the cargo, in which cargo deployment function (CDF) area of activity it is located?
    A. Ready line/loading ramp area
    B. Cell forward area
    C. Alert holding area
    D. Marshalling area
    A. Ready line/loading ramp area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, copies of the DD Form 2133, joint airlift inspection record, are distributed to all of the following except the
    A. Aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation
    B. Deploying unit representative
    C. Installation deployment officer for review and approval
    D. Mobility force inspector for inclusion in the station file
    C. Installation deployment oficer for review and approval
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Before a deploying unit can claim their cargo is exempt from inspection due to sight sensitivity, they must first receive approval from
    A. The service or major command having operational control of the aircraft
    B. The airfield management commander or the highest ranking member of the aircrew
    C. US transportation command (USTRANSCOM)
    D. Their group or higher level commander
    A. The service or major command having operational control of the aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. When completing the heading information on the DD Form 2133, joint airlift inspection record, what information will you enter in block 6, "Start time."
    A. The greenwich meantime (GMT) the JI actually started
    B. The GMT the JI is scheduled to start
    C. The local time the JI is scheduled to start
    D. The local time the joint inspection (JI) actually started
    D. The local time the joint inspection (JI) actually started
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. During a joint inspection, after the deploying unit corrects an item previously found to have discrepancies, you will identify that on the DD Form 2133, joint airlift inspection record, by
    A. Circling then X
    B. Circling the check mark
    C. Erasing the check mark
    D. Erasing the X
    A. Circling the X
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a c17 with 3/4 tank of fuel, the deploying unit must have
    A. Their unit commanders authorization
    B. Attachment 3 authorization
    C. Chapter 3 authorization
    D. Installation deployment officer (IDO) authorization
    C. Chapter 3 authorization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Before a vehicle can be accepted for airlift on a kc10 with 3/4 tank of fuel, the deploying unit must have
    A. Headquarters air mobility command (AMC) authorization
    B. Attachment 3 authorization
    C. Vehicles on kc10s are never allowed to carry 3/4 tank of fuel
    D. Chapter 3 authorization
    C. Vehicles on kc10s are never allowed to carry 3/4 tank of fuel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Before any department of transportation (DOT) 5L jerricans can be accepted for airlift, they must be
    A. Placed in performance oriented fiberboard boxes and strapped securely inside a vehicle
    B. Completely drained of fuel
    C. Palletized using belly bands
    D. Authorized under chapter 3
    B. Completely drained of fuel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Before a vehicle with an accompanying load can be accepted for airlift during a joint inspection (JI), its cargo must be restrained with a minimum of
    A. 1/2 inch diameter nylon rope
    B. 1/2 inch diameter rope
    C. 1/2 inch diameter bungee cords
    D. Straps of any size from a commercial source
    B. 1/2 inch diameter rope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. During a joint inspection (JI), if a pallet is dirty and the dirt cannot be swept off, what must occur before the pallet can be accepted for airlift?
    A. The deploying unit must steam clean and/or power wash it
    B. Cargo deployment function (CDF) personnel must steam clean and/or power wash it
    C. The deploying unit must wrap the pallet in a plastic cover and re palletize the cargo
    D. The deploying unit must call US customs to clean and re inspect the pallet
    A. The deploying unit must steam clean and/or power wash it
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. During a joint inspection (JI), before a pallet can be accepted for airlift, what must you ensure in terms of dunnage requirements?
    A. There are no dunnage requirements for pallets
    B. Three pieces, each measuring 4" x 4" x 88" and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet
    C. Two pieces, each measuring 4" x 4" x 88" and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet
    D. Three pieces of any size and made of the proper material accompanies each pallet
    B. Three pieces, each measuring 4" x 4" x 88" and made of the proper material, accompanies each pallet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. After a joint inspection (JI) is complete, who signs the DD Form 2133, joint airlift inspection record?
    A. The deploying unit representative and the troop commander
    B. The qualified mobility inspector and the aircraft loadmaster/boom operator
    C. The troop commander and the aircraft loadmaster/boom operator
    D. The deploying unit representative and the qualified mobility force inspector
    D. The deploying unit representative and the qualified mobility force inspector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which type of airdrop requires no parachute
    A. Extraction
    B. Loe velocity
    C. Freedrop
    D. High velocity
    C. Freedrop
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which type of airdrop requires stabilization parachutes to hold the loads upright?
    A. Loe velocity
    B. High velocity
    C. Gravity method
    D. Freedrop
    B. High velocity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Which method of airdrop begins with a 15 foot drogue parachute deploying and ends with the main cargo parachute deploying after the platform exits the aircraft?
    A. Door load
    B. Type V
    C. Gravity
    D. Extraction
    D. Extraction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. What is the capacity of the a-7a cargo sling when three straps are used?
    A. 200 pounds
    B. 300 pounds
    C. 500 pounds
    D. 400 pounds
    D. 400 pounds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What is the capacity of the a-22 cargo bag?
    A. 3200 pounds
    B. 200 pounds
    C. 1200 pounds
    D. 2200 pounds
    D. 2200 pounds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. What is the maximum and minimum drop weights of the type V airdrop platform?
    A. 62000 and 4500 pounds
    B. 52000 and 3500 pounds
    C. 32000 and 1500 pounds
    D. 42000 and 2500 pounds
    D. 42000 and 2500 pounds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Each ring on the type V airdrop platform can restrain up to how many pounds?
    A. 25000
    B. 7500
    C. 10000
    D. 5000
    D. 5000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Which parachute will support between a 501 and 2200 pound drop weight?
    A. G-12e
    B. Extraction
    C. G-11b
    D. G-14
    A. G-12e
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which parachute has a drop capacity of 200-500 pounds?
    A. G-11b
    B. G-12e
    C. G-14
    D. Extraction
    C. G-14
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which parachute can produce a drag of up to 28000 pounds?
    A. G-12e
    B. Extraction
    C. G-14
    D. G-11b
    B. Extraction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Which form will you use as a guide throughout the vehicle inspection process?
    A. Af form 1474, agency report of motor vehicle data
    B. Af form 1800, operators inspection guide and trouble report
    C. Af form 1823, vehicle and equipment work order
    D. Af form 2028, vehicle unit inspection record
    B. Af form 1800, operators inspection guide and trouble report
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. The purpose of the before operation vehicle inspection is to ensure
    A. The vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it
    B. The vehicle control officer is adhering to regulations
    C. All damage and malfunctions are recorded before you report it
    D. No one has driven the vehicle since you last inspected it
    A. The vehicle is safe and in commission before you operate it
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which information are you required to put in the designated shift/signature block of the af form 1800, operators inspection guide and trouble report, once you complete the inspection?
    A. Last name only
    B. Laundry mark only
    C. Last name and rank only
    D. Full name only
    A. Last name only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Which forlift is handy when working in tight spaces because its short wheelbase allaows you to make tight turns?
    A. 10k at
    B. 10k
    C. 4k
    D. 50k
    C. 4k
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Which forklift has a maximum lifting capacity of 10000 pounds and can lift up to 150 inches high?
    A. 10k
    B. 4k
    C. 10k at
    D. 50k
    A. 10k
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. When approaching the ramp for final positioning, what feature of the 10k forklift should you use to have smooth, positive control?
    A. Rollarized tines
    B. Mast control lever
    C. Inching pedal
    D. Highest forward gear
    C. Inching pedal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. How do you position the tines when parking a forklift?
    A. There are no requirements for positioning the tines when parking a forklift
    B. Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat
    C. Tilt the mast all the way forward and lower the tines to the ground
    D. Tilt the mast all the way back and lower the tines to the ground
    B. Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Which k loader has a deck range from 39 to 156 inches and can be used to load all aircraft except the kc10 and the main cargo floors of the b747 and dc10?
    A. Tunner loader
    B. 25k
    C. 40k
    D. Halversen loader
    B. 25k
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Which cab controls on the tunner are used to operate the deck functions when on/offloading cargo?
    A. The primary deck control indicator light
    B. The deck and conveyor control panel
    C. The circuit breaker panel
    D. The deck pitch control box
    B. The deck and conveyor control panel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Operating the starter continuously on the tunner for longer than a minimum of how many seconds will cause it to overload?
    A. 120
    B. 30
    C. 20
    D. 60
    B. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. After cranking the starter on the tunner for 30 seconds without a successful start, allow the starter to cool down for how many minutes before trying again?
    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 1
    B. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. In case of an engine failure or hydrolic pump failure when driving, the halvorsen has an electrically powered hydrolic pump within the hydrolic system that instantly and automatically operates for how many seconds?
    A. 30
    B. 60
    C. 20
    D. 45
    A. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. In which part of the vehicle inspection on a bus would you check to make sure the emergency door is operational, including the warning buzzer, and that nothing is blocking it?
    A. Inspecting the emergency door is not necessary
    B. During operation
    C. After operation
    D. Before operation
    B. During operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. In which part of the vehicle inspection will you clean and refule the bus, if necessary, and ensure passengers did not damage any part of the bus interior?
    A. During operation
    B. Accomplishing this task is not necessary
    C. After operation
    D. Before operation
    C. After operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. At least how far away from an aircraft should you adjust the staircase truck stairs to the desired height before proceeding?
    A. 5 meters
    B. 10 feet
    C. 10 meters
    D. 5 feet
    B. 10 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which feature of the baggage conveyor is portable, allowing you to carry it into the belly of an aircraft, if necessary?
    A. Front control
    B. Conveyor belt
    C. Elevating linkage
    D. Guide rails
    A. Front control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Which feature of the baggage conveyor minimizes baggage from falling off the belt?
    A. Elevating linkage
    B. Front control
    C. Guide rails
    D. Conveyor belt
    C. Guide rails
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. How do you know when the waste tank on the lavatory service truck (LST) is full?
    A. Look at the guage in the control panel
    B. Open the tank and look inside
    C. Wait until the flow meter zeros out
    D. Look through the sight window
    D. Look through the sight window
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Which feature of the lavatory service truck (LST) measures the amount of rinse fill solution being pumped inside of an aircraft or air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL)?
    A. Waste tank sight guage
    B. Dump meter
    C. Flow meter
    D. Control panel
    C. Flow meter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Which feature on the portable water truck pump compartment must you always make sure is zeroed out before use?
    A. Water level guage
    B. Pump motor
    C. Control panel
    D. The meter
    D. The meter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Before operating the water pump on the portable water truck, you must ensure the tank contains at least how many gallons?
    A. 20
    B. 60
    C. 80
    D. 40
    D. 40
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. What towing mistake can easily bend or break trailer tongues and render the equipment untransportable?
    A. Jack knifing
    B. Accelerating gradually
    C. Stopping too gradually
    D. Driving too close to the edge of the dock
    A. Jack knifing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. How fast can you can tow equipment depends on what factors?
    A. The type of equipment only
    B. How many you are towing only
    C. The type of equipment and how many you are towing only
    D. The type and height of the equipment and how many you are towing only
    C. The type of equipment and how many you are towing only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Which part of the pintle hook assembly will be used in all pintle hook towing operations?
    A. Integral brake system
    B. Tow valve
    C. Support legs
    D. Safety/cotter pin
    D. Safety/cotter pin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. A shipper is responsible for
    A. Ensuring a shipment is complete and removing RFID tags
    B. Challenging shipments that do not meet applicable airlift requirements
    C. Clearing shipments and initiating TDRs as necessary
    D. Planning, assembling, consolidatinig, and documenting a shipment; and arranging for its movement
    D. Planning, assembling, consolidatinig, and documenting a shipment; and arranging for its movement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The ATCMD is not used to
    A. Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information
    B. Provide notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.
    C. Allow APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment
    D. Provide a way to process a shipment through ACA
    A. Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. The shippers second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to
    A. Pack and prepare the shipment for movement, applying any required markings, labels, or RFID tags
    B. Use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384
    C. Determine the information necessary to comlpete the shipping documentation enlisting the help of the ACA
    D. Make necessary arrangments for delivery of the shipment to the trannshipment point, referred to in the DTR as "making the shipment"
    A. Pack and prepare the shipment for movement, applying any required markings, labels, or RFID tags
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing RFID tags?
    A. The transshiper
    B. The receiver
    C. The shipper
    D. The CSB
    B. The receiver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. When is a shipment, other than tp-4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?
    A. When you have scanned the bar code label and determined it is not in the DTS
    B. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field
    C. When the CCP has delivered an airlift readt pallet tomthe APOE
    D. When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice
    B. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. What type of code represents the consigner/consignee blocks of the TCMD?
    A. The air commodity and special hadling code
    B. The air dimension code
    C. The DI code
    D. The DODAAC
    D. DODAAC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a DODACC when
    A. You cannot gain access to the DODACC website
    B. You do not have a clear text address to send the shipment
    C. You are in a deployed location and do not know how to query the location
    D. The consignor and consignee does not have an assignee DODAAC
    D. The consignor and consignee does not have an assignee DODAAC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. You can readily identify a unit move TCN because a zero is in what position?
    A. 3rd
    B. 1st
    C. Last
    D. 15th
    D. 15th
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Which position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment?
    A. Last
    B. 17th
    C. 16th
    D. 1st
    C. 16th
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
    A. Tp-1
    B. Tp-3
    C. Tp-2
    D. Tp-4
    B. Tp-3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. Which TP is considered "defered air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?
    A. Tp-3
    B. Tp-2
    C. Tp-4
    D. Tp-1
    C. Tp-4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. The three position date shipped code is comprised of the
    A. GMT hour code and the ETA code
    B. GMT hour code and the last two digits of the julian date
    C. ETA code and the last two digits of the julian date
    D. Three digit julian date
    B. GMT hour code and the last two digits of the julian date
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. You can use the TACs to
    A. Indicate the number of days a shipment will be in transit from the cosignor to the APOE
    B. Identify the nature of the shipment and how to treat the shipment
    C. Link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments
    D. Identify shipments that require special recognition
    C. Link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for
    A. Correct SSNs
    B. Signs of damage or pilferage
    C. Appropriate markings and labels
    D. Matching documentation
    A. Correct SSNs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. On the automated versions of the DD forqm 1387, which three areas must have a bar code?
    A. The TAC, the TP, and the charges blocks
    B. The FMS case number, RDD, and date shipped blocks
    C. The TCN, the DODAAC, and the piece number blocks
    D. The pieces, weight and cube blocks
    C. The TCN, the DODAAC, and the piece number blocks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. You may use the manual version of the DD form 1387
    A. When the loadmaster/boom operator requests it
    B. When automated label printers run out of label paper or shippers are untrained in completing the auromated form
    C. For contingency operations or where manual entry is the only way to document shipments
    D. Anytime; there are no restrictions
    C. For contingency operations or where manual entry is the only way to document shipments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. What is/are the source documents for completing the MSL?
    A. DD form 1384
    B. Shippers declaration for dangerous goods (SDDG)
    C. SF 361 and SF 364
    D. Af form 4080
    A. DD form 1384
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?
    A. 10
    B. 15
    C. 20
    D. 5
    A. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. When a shipment with a discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it
    A. When an intermediate carrier delivers the shipment
    B. Anytime; there are no restrictions
    C. When an AMC aircraft delivers the shipment
    D. When the shipper delivers the shipment
    D. When the shipper delivers the shipment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal
    A. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot
    B. When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking
    C. When the shipper delivers the cargo
    D. Always; no exceptions
    A. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
    A. Dd form 1387
    B. Sf form 361
    C. AMC form 33
    D. Sf form 364
    C. AMC form 33
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. Which agency is responsible for correcting shipments you frustrate?
    A. ATOC/load planning section
    B. CSB/ACA
    C. CSS/records and reports section
    D. AD/CD section
    B. CSB/ACA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Using manual procedures, when you annotate the GMT hour code and last two digits of the julian date of arrival on the TCMD, what does it represent?
    A. The time the shipment was frustrated
    B. The block time of the aircraft
    C. The RDD
    D. The SET
    D. The SET
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Which criteria do you use to determine which cargo to process first?
    A. Air commodity and special handling code and GMT
    B. Warehouse location, cargo size and TAC
    C. Destination, transportation priority, and SET
    D. Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code and receipt time
    C. Destination, transportation priority, and SET
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. When the SET is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the
    A. Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and DI code.
    B. Expedited handling indicators and the RDD.
    C. TAC, project code, and type pack code.
    D. Air commodity and special handling code
    B. Expedited handling indicators and the RDD.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. At manual stations or when a manual manifest is used, the ATOC personnel will write which information on the inbound manifests they deliver to the cargo processing function?
    A. GMT and julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left hand corner
    B. SET and julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right hand corner
    C. GMT and julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right hand corner
    D. SET and julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left hand corner
    C. GMT and julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right hand corner
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel attempt to aquire them, you must
    A. Wait until you receive the manifests to start processing all the cargo
    B. Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action
    C. Break all the pallets down and process them immediately
    D. Store the cargo out of the way until you receive the manifests and process other shipments instead
    B. Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. If after six hours, ATOC personnel are unable to aquire the manifests for an aircraft, you must
    A. Process all tp-1 and 2 cargo, but leave tp-3 and 4 cargo until you receive the manifests
    B. Break each pallet down and take the appropriate information from the shipping labels
    C. Store the pallets out of the way until the originating station can reporduce the manifests
    D. Process all tp-1 cargo with "999" expedited handling indicators, but leave all other cargo until you receive the manifests
    B. Break each pallet down and take the appropriate information from the shipping labels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. A short shipmemt is a shipment that
    A. Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal
    B. Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut
    C. Arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage
    D. Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest
    A. Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Which type of shipment is annotated by circling the line item on the manifest and hand writing "S/S" on the right hand margin next to the line item?
    A. Confiscated
    B. Pilfered
    C. Over
    D. Short
    D. Short
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. An over shipment is a shipment that
    A. Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut
    B. Arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage
    C. Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest
    D. Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal
    C. Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. Which type of shipment must you annotate on the manifest and write "O/S" on the right hand margin next to the information you added?
    A. Over shipment
    B. Pilfered shipment
    C. Confiscated shipment
    D. Short shipment
    A. Over shipment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occured for a shipment?
    A. CSB/ACA
    B. SF duty officer
    C. TMO/air freight
    D. ATOC duty officer
    D. ATOC duty officer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Which cargo may be turned over to the owning unit without an authorization letter?
    A. Signature service cargo
    B. Registered mail
    C. Classified cargo
    D. Unit mobility cargo
    D. Unit mobility cargo
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except
    A. TMO personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility
    B. Truck drivers, who have shown their IDs at the front gate
    C. Postal authorities, when picking up registered mail
    D. Aircrew members, when using a cargo manifest
    A. TMO personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?
    A. 16
    B. 18
    C. 15
    D. 17
    D. 17
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. You do not perform a soft reset when the HHT is
    A. Awake
    B. Hidden
    C. Suspended
    D. Active
    C. Suspended
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. An 8000 pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463l pallet restrain?
    A. 5000
    B. 7500
    C. 10000
    D. 25000
    B. 7500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. As a minimum, how many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?
    A. Winching pallets is not authorized
    B. Three
    C. Two
    D. One
    C. Two
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. You are deployed and a cargo user has offered several dirty cargo pallets for air transportation. Which one of the following is considered acceptable?
    A. Chunks of mud under a vehicle
    B. No amount of dirt is acceptable
    C. A thin film of road dust
    D. Dirt and sand that you can pinch with your fingers
    C. A thin film of road dust
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463l pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?
    A. 50
    B. 20
    C. 40
    D. 30
    B. 20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. You are building a multi pallet train using one inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?
    A. C17
    B. C130
    C. Dc10
    D. C5
    C. Dc10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable RFID tags still attached to the nets. What must you do with these unserviceable tags?
    A. Return tyem to the shipper for repair
    B. Leave them on the nets for the next cosignee to return
    C. Throw them away and log them on the 463l asset report
    D. Return them to the defense logistics agency for repair
    D. Return them to the defense logistics agency for repair
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. You are building a pallet destined for aviano ab, italy and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?
    A. Weight and SET
    B. Movement indicator and SET
    C. Movement indicator and type pack
    D. Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator
    B. Movement indicator and SET
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?
    A. 355
    B. 150
    C. 200
    D. 100
    B. 150
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. What must be considered when building a multi pallet train?
    A. Supply of pallet covers
    B. Multi pallets in back log
    C. MHE required to handle the pallet train
    D. Immigrations clearance
    C. MHE required to handle the pallet train
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. When using nets to secure multi pallet trains, what is the maximum load on two and three pallet trains measuring 96 inches or less?
    A. 21000 lbs
    B. 26000 lbs
    C. 20710 lbs
    D. 20000 lbs
    B. 26000 lbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. You received several shipments in for airlift, which one will you not mark with a C/B?
    A. A three pallet train
    B. A shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long
    C. A single pallet
    D. A small piece of rollong stock weighing 500 pounds
    C. A single pallet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. When marking the C/B on a vehicle the C/B marking must be positioned
    A. Near one axle on one side of the vehicle
    B. Above one axle on one side of the vehicle
    C. Near each axle on both sides of the vehicle
    D. Above each axle on both sides of the vehicle
    C. Near each axle on both sides of the vehicle
  149. When preparing the AMC form 39 for a pallet, which information belongs in the "oldest SET" block?
    A. The GMT hour/code of tye oldest piece on the pallet
    B. The clear text GMT and julian date of the oldest piece on the pallet
    C. The GMT hour/code of the first piece you placed on the pallet
    D. The TCN of the oldestpiece on the pallet
    A. The GMT hour/code of tye oldest piece on the pallet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463l pallet after it is built?
    A. DD form 1907 and AMC form 39
    B. AMC form 1015 and DD form 2275
    C. DD form 1907 and DD form 2775
    D. AMC form 39 and DD form 2775
    D. AMC form 39 and DD form 2775
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. When you attach the RFID tag to a pallet, ensure it is attached where?
    A. Near the highest priority piece of cargo
    B. Bottom right corner of the pallet
    C. Outside of any plastic or over wrapping
    D. Inside the pallet cover
    C. Outside of any plastic or over wrapping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?
    A. Packages hazardous materials to prepare for shipment
    B. Inspects hazardous materials internally and externally
    C. Accomplishes the SDDG
    D. Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft
    D. Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?
    A. 1
    B. 3
    C. 2
    D. 4
    A. 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids
    A. 4
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 1
    C. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?
    A. 4
    B. 7
    C. 6
    D. 5
    C. 6
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. Which catagory of hazard is considered a distinct and separate hazardous item that is a component of a larger item and does not require a hazardous materials label?
    A. Subsidairy
    B. Secondary
    C. Primary
    D. Tertiary
    B. Secondary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments?
    A. DD form 1385
    B. DD form 1387-2
    C. AMC form 1015
    D. AMC form 1033
    D. AMC form 1033
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. Which form do shippers use to inspect and frustrate hazardous materials shipments?
    A. DD form 1385
    B. DD form 1387-2
    C. AMC form 1033
    D. AMC form 1015
    D. AMC form 1015
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. How many fire extinguishers minimum must be available for us at any location where explosives are handled?
    A. Two
    B. Three
    C. None
    D. One
    A. Two
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles
    A. Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together
    B. Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions
    C. Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together
    D. Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility
    C. Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "O" means these articles
    A. Must not be loaded, transported or stored together
    B. Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility
    C. Have no restrictions for being loaded, transported or stored together
    D. Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions
    D. Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at aircraft?
    A. Front only and at entry points
    B. Cargo loading end and both sides only
    C. Front and rear only and at entry points
    D. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points
    D. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?
    A. 1.3
    B. 2.2
    C. 2.1
    D. 1.6
    A. 1.3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. Which class requires a placard for 1001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?
    A. 4.3
    B. 2.1
    C. 1.2
    D. 1.1
    B. 2.1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. When a load contains class 2.1, class 2.2, and class 3 materials that total 1500 pounds, which placard will you use?
    A. Dangerous
    B. Class 2.2
    C. Class 3
    D. Class 2.1
    A. Dangerous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. What is the minimum number of fire extinguishers that a vehicle must contain while transporting explosives?
    A. None
    B. Three
    C. One
    D. Two
    D. Two
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?
    A. On the right side only, as long as it is compatible
    B. Anywhere, as long as it is compatible
    C. Aft on non jettisonable cargo
    D. Forward on non jettisonable cargo
    C. Aft on non jettisonable cargo
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?
    A. AMC form 1033
    B. DD form 1387-2
    C. DD form 1497-2
    D. AMC form 1015
    B. DD form 1387-2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which forms must shippers complete?
    A. DD form 1387-2, AMC form 1033 and AMC form 1015
    B. DD form 1387-2 and AMC form 1033
    C. DD form 1387-2 only
    D. AMC form 1033 only
    C. DD form 1387-2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. When using manual procedures, you will transfer custody of a shipment requiring security precautions by using the
    A. AMC form 214
    B. AMC form 1015
    C. GATES manifest
    D. DD form 1907 or manual manifest
    D. DD form 1907 or manual manifest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. How often will security cage cargo be inventoried?
    A. At the beginning of each day at 0001
    B. At the beginning and end of each shift
    C. Not less than once per day
    D. Not less than every other day
    A. At the beginning of each day at 0001
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. What is the maximum number of HR transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463l pallet if absolutely necessary?
    A. 12
    B. 6
    C. 3
    D. 4
    A. 12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. You received a vaccine shipment that can be removed from refrigeration for short periods of time. Which form must be on the shipment to identify this requirement?
    A. DD form 1502-1
    B. DD form 1502-3
    C. DD form 1502
    D. DD form 1502-2
    D. DD form 1502-2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re icing and refrigeration?
    A. AMC form 36
    B. DD form 1033
    C. DD form 1532-1
    D. AMC form 106
    D. AMC form 106
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the
    A. Register number and the RDD
    B. TCN and register number
    C. Register number and the TP
    D. TCN, weight, and cube
    B. TCN and register number
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. At a minimum, seal consolidated registered mail containers with
    A. Packing tape, plastic or metal bands, and boxcar seals
    B. Metal or plastic bands, spray adhesive, and boxcar seals
    C. Packing tape and plastic or metal bands
    D. Packing tape and boxcar seals
    A. Packing tape, plastic or metal bands, and boxcar seals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. You work at an air terminal without an ACA or a CSB and receive a call from a navy customer who wants to green sheet some navy equipment. Who will initiate green sheet action for this customer when it is necessary to meet a shipments RDD?
    A. The squadron commander
    B. The ATOC outbound controller
    C. The air freight officer
    D. The air terminal operations officer
    D. The air terminal operations officer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. "Assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle" is the office of secretary of defense definition of what type of material?
    A. Nuclear surety material
    B. Nuclear material
    C. Nuclear weapons related material
    D. Special nuclear materials
    C. Nuclear weapons related material
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. All personnel performing what functions are required to complete the NWRM fundamentals course?
    A. Special handling, freight, ramp services, passenger service, ATOC, and load planning
    B. Special handling, freight, ramp services, and load planning
    C. Passenger service, ATOC, and load planning
    D. Special handling, freight, ramp services, ATOC, security cage, and load planning
    B. Special handling, freight, ramp services, and load planning
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. You use the bare tines of a forklift tomload/offload an aircraft
    A. If you need to for training
    B. When servicing "other than USAF" aircraft
    C. When the loadmaster authorizes it
    D. When rollerized tines are available, but not currently attached
    A. If you need to for training
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. If using a pry bar to assist with loading, how much can you load on the pry bar?
    A. It depends on the applicable pry bar TO
    B. 250 lbs
    C. It depends on the aircraft
    D. 355 lbs
    C. It depends on the aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. You have received an extremely heavy piece of cargo resting only on two skids. Which formula would you use to determine its contact area?
    A. Length x width (of each skid) x the number of skids
    B. Length x width (of each skid) x 0.785
    C. Length x width (of each skid)
    D. Diameter2 x 0.785
    A. Length x width (of each skid) x the number of skids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways. Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways?
    A. Sleeper shoring
    B. Parking shoring
    C. Bridge shoring
    D. Approach shoring
    C. Bridge shoring
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. As a load tem member, you are responsible for matching which information on the pallet and load plan?
    A. Pallet ID, destination, and height
    B. Tie down information, height, and weight
    C. Pallet ID, destination, and weight
    D. Pieces, weight, and cube
    C. Pallet ID, destination, and weight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft?
    A. The rollers, locks and rails
    B. The bridge plates and auxiliary loading ramps
    C. Load team personnel and stabilizer struts
    D. The cargo winch and snatch blocks
    A. The rollers, locks and rails
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?
    A. Clear
    B. Spotter
    C. Loading
    D. Engine operations
    B. Spotter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. How do you secure rolling stock to a k loader?
    A. Forward and aft with straps
    B. Forward and aft with pallet locks, stops and supplemental restraint
    C. Forward, aft and lateral with chains and devices
    D. Forward and aft with chains and devices
    D. Forward and aft with chains and devices
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. Non unitized warehouse skids or individual containers of explosives will be secured to forklifts for movement. When is the exemption for this is when
    A. Bumped cargo requires expeditious movement
    B. Shift supervisor declares supplemental restraint to be in "relaxed" conditions
    C. Movement is within the 25 feet circle of safety parameter
    D. Container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures
    D. Container skids/pallets have integral 360 degree tine enclosures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. You are loading passengers on a c17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a minimum?
    A. 30
    B. 40
    C. 20
    D. 10
    A. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. You and your team are loading very heavy pallets on a c5. Which of the following is the correct way to load the pallets?
    A. Load team personnel pushing them
    B. Pushing the pallets out of control at excessive speeds
    C. Load team personnel pulling them
    D. Gravity feeding them from the k loader
    A. Loadnteam personnel pushing them
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. You and your team have made every effort to find a qualified driver to operate the construction equipment that you will load on the c130. Since you cannot find anyone, your ramp supervisor must choose someone from your team. Which of the following must your supervisor choose?
    A. The ramp supervisor will load the rollong stock
    B. The senior ranking load team member
    C. The lowest ranking load team member who needs the training
    D. The most qualified load team member
    D. The most qualified load team member
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. You are driving a truck onto a c17 for airlift. You must remain on the truck until when?
    A. Load team members initially secure the vehicle aft only
    B. Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward and aft
    C. The driver may exit once the vehicle is in position and the driver engages the parking brake
    D. Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward only
    B. Load team members initially secure the vehicle forward and aft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. How many 10000 lb chains would you use to restrain a piece of cargo weighing 6350 lbs for the forward direction when the cargo is restrained to a pallet?
    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 6
    B. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?
    A. One
    B. Four
    C. Three
    D. Two
    C. Three
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. During engine running on/offload operations, a load team positions themselves at least how far aft of c130 and c17 aircraft?
    A. C130 150, c17 50 feet
    B. C130 25 feet, c17 50 feet
    C. C130 50 feet, c17 25 feet
    D. C130 25, c17 150
    C. C130 50 feet, c17 25 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. During ero operations, in all cases, the load team can approach the aircraft once
    A. The crew entrance door has opened
    B. An aircrew member signals to do so
    C. The engines shut down
    D. The aircraft chocks are in place
    B. An aircrew member signals to do so
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. During ERO operations, when are passengers loaded on the aircraft?
    A. Before the ramp cargo is loaded
    B. Before all of the cargo is loaded
    C. After the ramp cargo is loaded
    D. After all of the cargo is loaded
    D. After all of the cargo is loaded
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. If concurrent operations are already in progress, load team chiefs and other personnel must report to whom prior to entering the area?
    A. The ATOC senior controller
    B. The loadmaster
    C. The ramp coordinator
    D. The CSS
    D. The CSS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Before performing any concurrent servicing operations, who is required to ground themselves to a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft?
    A. All personnel involved in the operation
    B. The CSS only
    C. The loadmaster and load team chief only
    D. The loadmaster only
    A. All personnel involved in the operation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. During an anti hijacking inspection, when will you brief passengers that prohibited carry on items must be placed in their check baggage or they will be confiscated?
    A. When the passenger arrives at the security/inspection area
    B. During the space available roll call
    C. During the arrival briefing over the public address system
    D. When the passenger checks in with an agent as present
    A. When the passenger arrives at the security/inspection area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. If an authorized distinguished visitor (DV) will be going directly to the aircraft and not through the passenegr terminal for travel, how will this passenger receive an anti hijack inspection?
    A. The aircraft commander will provide an inspection and give the required documentation to passenger service personnel
    B. The air terminal operations center will call security forces personnel to conduct the inspection at the aircraft
    C. Passengers are never authorized to proceed directly to the aircraft and bypass the passenger terminal
    D. Passenger service personnel will be summoned to the aircraft with a handheld magnetometer to conduct the inspection
    A. The aircraft commander will provide an inspection and give the required documentation to passenger service personnel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. During an anti hijacking inspection, when may passengers traveling on validated troop movements carry loaded firearms?
    A. After the loadmaster has verified the seriel number from the weapon
    B. After they present their weapons training card to passenger terminal personnel
    C. When the troop commander authorizes them in writing
    D. When engaging an enemy force immediately after airdropping or landing
    C. When the troop commander authorizes them in writing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. Before passengers walk through the magnetometer, they must
    A. Show a copy of their identification card and valid travel orders
    B. Stand with their feet apart and their hands out tonthe sides
    C. Empty their bags onto the xray machine
    D. Empty their pockets into a small tray
    D. Empty their pockets into a small tray
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. When an individual activates the walk through magnetometer twice, what action should you take?
    A. Notify security forces personnel
    B. Silence the walk through magnetometer and allow them to pass through again
    C. Remove them from the flight
    D. Screen them using the hand held metal detector
    D. Screen them using the hand held metal detector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. What isbthe first thing you should do when operating the hand held metal detectors to inspect passengers?
    A. Allow the detector to warm up before scanning the passenegers back
    B. Identify the source of the detectors activation
    C. Instruct the passenger to assume the position
    D. Tell the passenger why and how you will conduct the inspection
    D. Tell the passenger why and how you will conduct the inspection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. During an anti hijacking inspection with the hand held metal detector, you would begin by scanning a passengers
    A. Feet, followed by the outline of the body, the back and then the front
    B. Feet, followed by the front and then the back
    C. Head, followed by the front and then the back
    D. Head, followed by the outline of the body, the front, and then the back
    D. Head, followed by the outline of the body, the front, and then the back
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. When inspecting passengers with the hand held metal detector and it locates metal, you must have them remove the metal item,
    A. And then you simply re scan the area the item was removed from
    B. Show it to you and replace it, and then you simply continue scanning the entire body
    C. Before you re scan the area the item was removed from, and re accomplish a scan of the entire body
    D. Before you re scan the area the item was removed from, and then have them enter the walk through magnetometer
    A. And then you simply re scan the area the item was removed from
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. When you are unable to detect the source that set off the alarm on the hand held manetometer, passengers have the choice of
    A. Contacting their unit to request a charactor reference and authorization to travel without screening
    B. Waiving their right to anti hijacking privileges using department of defense (DD) form 2093
    C. Consenting to frisk by security forces personnel or be denied boarding
    D. Consenting to frisk by security forces personnel or sign an anti hijacking waiver
    C. Consenting to frisk by security forces personnel or be denied boarding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. To operate properly, what do most explosives detection devices require before you use them?
    A. Calibration and a significant warm up
    B. Thorough cleaning
    C. Samples from the sample traps
    D. Resetting
    A. Calibration and a significant warm up
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. You should activate the duress alarm if
    A. A passenger doesn't have the proper travel authorizations
    B. A passenger declares a weapon in his or her checked baggage before placing the bag on the xray machine
    C. You are screening a passenger who is authorized to carry a loaded weapon and the walk through magnetometer alarms
    D. You notice anything suspicious or find an undeclared weapon or other dangerous article
    D. You notice anything suspicious or find an undeclared weapon or other dangerous article
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. What are the two types of customers?
    A. Proximal and distant
    B. Outbound and inbound
    C. Internal and external
    D. Verbal and nonverbal
    C. Internal and external
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. What is one way to communicate nonverbally to your customers that you are professional, respectful, and can be relied upon for accurate and comlpete information?
    A. Enunciating your words clearly
    B. Dressing and grooming yourself appropriately
    C. Speaking slowly and loud enough
    D. Choosing your words very carefully
    B. Dressing and grooming yourself appropriately
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. You should check back with a customer after how many minutes when placing them on hold?
    A. Five to six minutes
    B. 30 seconds to one minute
    C. Two or three minutes
    D. Four to five minutes
    B. 30 seconds to one minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. The air mobility command (AMC) form 253 and AMC IMT 19 are used for passenegers to
    A. Obtain border clearance requirements while traveling overseas
    B. Comment on the service they received while traveling within AMC
    C. Sign up on the space available register
    D. Clear customs while traveling from overseas to the continental united states (CONUS)
    B. Comment on the service they received while traveling within AMC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. What is the first step in briefing passengers?
    A. Prepare yourself so you know exactly which information you need to brief them about the subject
    B. Open another counter to help more passengers get through the processing line
    C. Place the AMC form 29 on their baggage and deny them access until they reach their destination
    D. Ensure they have all been downloaded from the aircraft and have all of their hand carried items secure
    A. Prepare yourself so you know exactly which information you need to brief them about the subject
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. When briefing passengers, if they have questions and you don't know the answer, what should you do?
    A. Refer them to the regulation that governs their travel
    B. Seek help from your supervisor
    C. After attempting to look up the information, give your best educated guess
    D. Provide them with the passeneger terminal website
    B. Seek help from your supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. When briefing passengers on travel restrictions, documents you will ensure they possess if required include a valid photo identification card,
    A. A leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination records only
    B. A leave form or pass, ofiicial military orders, a passport and visas only
    C. Official military orders, a passport, visas, and AMC form 30-FCG only
    D. Official military orders, a passport, visas, vaccination record, and an AMC form 30-FCG only
    A. A leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination records only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. When making a flight information announcement about a departing flight that has been delayed, you should update passengers every
    A. 20 minutes
    B. 15 minutes
    C. 10 minutes
    D. 5 minutes
    A. 20 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. When making a roll call announcement, which information should you give passengers first?
    A. Give them operational details about a flight that may make them uncomfortable
    B. Tell them to be travel ready and let them know when you change space available catagories
    C. Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight
    D. Give them a brief explanation of the roll call process to include categories and date and time of sign up
    C. Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. When checking the travel category to determine travel eligibility, one way dependents and family members are authorized to travel in space required status is when they are
    A. Participating in school activities during the school year
    B. Unaccompanied on ordinary leave or traveling accompanied
    C. Issued official travel orders under emergency leave conditions
    D. Traveling on temporary duty accompanied by the sponsor
    C. Issued official travel orders under emergency leave conditions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. When verifying transportation authorizations for space required passengers, what information should you check against the passengers identification card of someone who is traveling on permanent change of station orders?
    A. Unit, major command and unit address
    B. If dependent travel is authorized and priority of travel
    C. Name, grade and social security number
    D. Signature of the unit commander and clear text address
    C. Name, grade and social security number
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. After determining travel eligibility for space required passengers, to check travel clearances, you must determine if the passeneger is eligible to travel to the destination by checking the required documents such as passports, visas and immunization records for
    A. Presense, currency, accuracy and completeness
    B. Capacity, presense, creativity and ineffectiveness
    C. Suitability, reliability and proficiency
    D. Tendency, ingenuity and deftness
    A. Presense, currency, accuracy and completeness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. If active duty air force ssgt james curtis is traveling with emergency status annotated on his leave form, which of the following continental united states (CONUS) or overseas unfounded travel options is ssgt curtis eligible for?
    A. Overseas to CONUS only
    B. Overseas to overseas only
    C. CONUS to CONUS only
    D. CONUS to overseas only
    C. CONUS to CONUS only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. During the task of determining eligibility for space available travel, under which travel category may uniformed service members travel while on permissive temporary duty orders for house hunting?
    A. Category III
    B. Category II
    C. Category IV
    D. Category I
    A. Category III
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. A passenger can be catagorized as a blue bark passeneger when the passeneger is
    A. A dependent whose sponsor is missing in action or a prisoner of war
    B. Traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member
    C. Onboard an aircraft but not on the manifest
    D. Either a senior officer or senior public official
    B. Traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. When a passenger is too large to be safely restrained in a single aircraft seat using a single seatbelt, handle him or her as you would
    A. A differently abled passenger
    B. A phoenix raven passeneger
    C. A distinguished visitor
    D. An AMC mission mobility observer (MMO)
    A. A differently abled passenger
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. Which special category situation would cause a passeneger to need a medical doctors certification to be medically sound to travel?
    A. An air mobility command (AMC) mobility mission observer (MMO)
    B. A next of kin (NOK) or very seriously ill (VSI) passenger
    C. A phoenix raven passenger flying on a special mission to accompany aircrew
    D. An infant less than six weeks old and women who are less than six weeks postpartum
    D. An infant less than six weeks old and women who are less than six weeks postpartum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger wants to travel on a specific mission that departs at 0800 greenwich mean time (GMT), when is the latest time the MEGP can notify the air terminal operations center (ATOC) of that intention?
    A. 0700 GMT
    B. 0400 GMT
    C. 0500 GMT
    D. 0600 GMT
    C. 0500 GMT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. Before space available passengers can be entered into the space available register, which form must they comlpete?
    A. AMC form 35
    B. DD form 988
    C. AMC form 140
    D. DD form 1610
    C. AMC form 140
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. When maintaining a space required standby listing, if there are passenegers that remain on the listing who have already been selected for missions or are no longer in need of aircraft, how should you mark the listing?
    A. Reprint a new register each time
    B. Leave them on the register until the page is full and create a new one
    C. Line through the passengers register entry
    D. You do not need to mark the listing
    C. Line through the passengers register entry
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. While updating and maintaining the space available standby listing on 23 apr 09, which passeneger with the following date and time of sign up will you purge from the listing?
    A. 22 mar 09/1130
    B. 22 feb 09/0800
    C. 25 mar 09/1552
    D. 25 feb 09/1600
    B. 22 feb 09/0800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. While selecting passengers for a flight, which would you select first?
    A. Space required, priority 1 passeneger with a date and time of sign up of 1 may 09 at 0700
    B. Space available category 1 passenger with a date and time of sign up of 30 apr 09 at 1100
    C. Space required, priority 1 passeneger with a date and time of sign up of 1 may 09 at 0900
    D. Space available category 1 passenger with a date and time of sign up of 30 apr 09 at 1130
    A. Space required, priority 1 passeneger with a date and time of sign up of 1 may 09 at 0700
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. If a space available passenger is not present for a roll call, you should
    A. Pull the passengers AMC form 140 from the station file and call the passeneger
    B. Remove the passengers name from the space available register
    C. Mark the passenger as not present on the space available standby listing
    D. Skip the passengers name and continue with the selection process
    D. Skip the passengers name and continue with the selection process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. When preparing the air mobility command (AMC) form 148/2, boarding pass/ticket/receipt, how many copies will you complete and how are they distributed?
    A. One copy; to the passenger
    B. One copy; for passenger service records
    C. Three copies; one to the passenger, one for the passeneger service records, and one for the in flight kitchen
    D. Two copies; one to the passenger and one for the passenger service records
    D. Two copies; one to the passenger and one for the passenger service records
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. When preparing the department of defense (DD) form 2131, passenger manifest, when individuals enter their name, grade, signature and date in the manifest certification blocks, they are certifying that
    A. Anti hijacking measures have been conducted
    B. Next of kin have been identified and contacted
    C. Emergency point of contact information has been verified
    D. All copies of the manifest have been distributed appropriately
    C. Emergency point of contact information has been verified
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. When preparing in flight meal requests, you would offer passengers a lunch meal if the aircraft will be in the air from
    A. 0700 to 1015
    B. 0900 to 1200
    C. 0930 to 1445
    D. 1100 to 1215
    C. 0930 to 1445
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. When preparing an in flight meal request, how many meals would you offer passengers if the flight is eight hours long and covers one meal period?
    A. Snacks and beverages only
    B. Three meals
    C. Two meals
    D. One meal
    D. One meal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. When preparing an in flight meal request, which factors will you use to plan the amount of snacks and beverages you will need for a given flight?
    A. Monthly data the in flight kitchen submits to the passenger managers and the actual number of passengers manifested only
    B. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the monthly data the in flight kitchen submits to the passenger terminal managers only
    C. Actual number of passengers manifested only
    D. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the actual number of passengers manifested only
    D. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the actual number of passengers manifested only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. While you are passing meal orders to the in flight kitchen for a c5 that departs at 1015, what is the latest time you can pass a tentative and final meal order of 61 meals?
    A. 0925; 1000
    B. 0745; 0945
    C. 0820; 0930
    D. 0715; 0815
    D. 0715; 0815
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. When completing the air mobility command (AMC) form 162, in flight meal supplemental worksheet, from which two sources can you get the information to compute the total amount of monies collected from the passenegers?
    A. From the remarks section of the passenegers travel authorizations or from each of the blocks in section v of the AMC form 162
    B. The meal costs from the passengers AMC form 148/2 or from each of the blocks in section v of the AMC form 162
    C. The meal costs from the passengers AMC form 148/2 or from the remarks section of the passenegers travel authorizations
    D. The meal costs from the passengers AMC form 148/2 or from each of the blocks in section v of the AMC form 35
    C. The meal costs from the passengers AMC form 148/2 or from the remarks section of the passenegers travel authorizations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. When preparing the AMC form 162, in flight meal supplemental worksheet, from which source document will you get the information to enter the line numbers, type of meal, and passenger costs in section v?
    A. Passengers DD form 1610
    B. DD form 2131
    C. Passengers AMC form 135
    D. Passengers AMC form 148/2
    D. Passengers AMC form 148/2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. When determining head tax charges for passengers, in which of the following circumstances will you charge the tax for a passenger traveling from mcguire air force base, nj to ramstein air base, germany?
    A. Space required passenger traveling on a military aircraft
    B. Space available passenger traveling on a military aircraft
    C. Space available passenger traveling on a commercial contracted aircraft
    D. Space required passenger traveling on a commercial contracted aircraft
    B. Space available passenger traveling on a military aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. When determining pet shipping charges, you will charge a passenger for one excess baggage piece when the combined container and pet weight
    A. Exceed 140 pounds
    B. Does not exceed 70 pounds
    C. Ranges between 71 and 140 pounds
    D. Exceed 150 pounds
    B. Does not exceed 70 pounds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  244. What is the first step in determining pet shipping charges?
    A. Determine the amount to charge for each piece based on the rate
    B. Determine the passenger single rate for the channel being traveled
    C. Accept the payment
    D. Determine the total pieces to charge
    D. Determine the total pieces to charge
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  245. What is the first step when turning in cash collections?
    A. Record all cash transactions and meal charges on an AMC form 148/2
    B. Balance your cash drawer by taking out all the money you collected during your shift
    C. Turn in four copies of the DD form 2133 to finance and keep the last copy for the station file
    D. Have your supervisor place all drawers in a safe, inside a secure area
    B. Balance your cash drawer by taking out all the money you collected during your shift
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  246. What is the last step when giving a passenger a refund?
    A. Endorse the back of the AF form 796, headcount record
    B. Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund
    C. Give the passenger the money out the change fund
    D. Clearly mark the smaller bills to give the passenger change
    B. Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  247. If you are loading passengers on a c17 that departs at 1630, at what time should the last passenger be loaded on the aircraft to protect against mission delays?
    A. 1615
    B. 1620
    C. 1600
    D. 1625
    B. 1620
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  248. When you are downloading passengers off of a c5, the first passenger you would allow to deplane first would be a
    A. Space available passenger traveling on ordinary leave
    B. Space required passenger traveling on emergency leave
    C. Space available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave
    D. Space required passenger traveling on permanent change of station orders
    B. Space required passenger traveling on emergency leave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  249. If a passenger originating out of your station on emergency leave was manifested on the 03R1 mission (which has been delayed), how many hours do you have to move that passenger?
    A. 72 hours
    B. 48 hours
    C. 36 hours
    D. 24 hours
    D. 24 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  250. If a commercial contracted has been delayed for aircraft maintenance issues and won't be fixed until the next day, the carrier is responsible (at no cost to the passengers) to provide
    A. Meals and lodging only
    B. Lodging, meals and per diem only
    C. Meals, lodging and transportation only
    D. Lodging, transportation, meals as well as per diem
    C. Meals, lodging and transportation only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  251. You are checking in baggage for a passenger traveling on emergency leave, which air mobility command (AMC) baggage tag strap should you attach to that passengers bags?
    A. AMC form 20 ob
    B. AMC form 20 sr
    C. AMC form 20 dv
    D. AMC form 20 el
    D. AMC form 20 el
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  252. After you have completed your final headcount on the aircraft and discover you are missing one passenger who is listed on the manifest, what is your next step?
    A. Return to the terminal to make an announcement to locate the passenger
    B. Send a runner back to the terminal to locate the passenger
    C. Call the downline station and have them ship the baggage back when they receive it
    D. Remove that passengers baggage from the aircraft
    D. Remove that passengers baggage from the aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  253. When receiving baggage from a terminating flight in the baggage claim area, if you discover two unclaimed articles 30 minutes after the last passenger has claimed his or her baggage, what is your next step?
    A. Mark them with the mission number, remove all baggage tags, and secure them in a locked area
    B. Turn the articles over to the traffic management flight (TMF)
    C. Search the aircraft for the passenger who owns the baggage
    D. Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section
    D. Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  254. When pre booked pets are excepted in soft sided containers, what is the maximum number of pets allowed in the cabin?
    A. 4
    B. 3
    C. 6
    D. 2
    B. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  255. If a passenger has just reported a mishandled bag to you but cannot provide the boarding pass or baggage claim checks, what is your next step?
    A. Report the passenger to the security forces for making a false baggage claim report
    B. Cross reference the passenger manifest to make sure the passenger was manifested on the flight
    C. Process the passengers baggage claim without documentation
    D. Tell the passenger to report to the baggage service center for mishandled baggage tracer action
    B. Cross reference the passenger manifest to make sure the passenger was manifested on the flight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  256. A passenger just reported a lost bag to you and you are preparing an air mobility command (AMC) form 134, mishandled baggage report. In how many copies will you prepare the form and to whom does the original go?
    A. 2; retain in the AMC form 136 or forward to the BSC after five days
    B. 2; attach to the number one article
    C. 3; attach to the number one article
    D. 3; retain in the AMC form 136 or forward to the baggage service center (BSC) after five days
    D. 3; retain in the AMC form 136 or forward to the baggage service center (BSC) after five days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  257. When you are preparing an air mobility command (AMC) form 134, mishandled baggage report, for a damaged bag, which of the following would represent a valid case number for a damaged bag?
    A. D-009
    B. 09-501
    C. P-009
    D. 09-299
    A. D-009
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  258. Once you have prepared an air mobility command (AMC) form 136, baggage mishandled report file, the documents you must include in this form before you send the file to the baggage service center (BSC) are the original AMC form 134,
    A. And baggage tags only
    B. And boarding pass only
    C. Copies of the boarding pass, baggage tags or flight manifest
    D. AMC form 70, and boarding pass
    C. Copies of the boarding pass, baggage tags or flight manifest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  259. If you are at the station where a passenger reported a lost bag on 23 april 12, how much time to you have to find the lost baggage and update the remarks section on air mobility command (AMC) form 134, mishandled baggage report before only the baggage service center (BSC) will assume responsibility for the claim?
    A. 3 days
    B. 2 days
    C. 5 days
    D. 10 days
    C. 5 days
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  260. When you discover a found bag, what must you do before you secure the baggage?
    A. Complete a mishandled baggage letter and place it inside the bag
    B. Present it to customs officials for clearance and reflect this action on the AMC form 134
    C. Tag it with an air mobility command (AMC) form 20-ID with the case number on the form
    D. Send it to the baggage service center (BSC) for tracer action within five days of finding it
    B. Present it to customs officials for clearance and reflect this action on the AMC form 134
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. If a passenger has reported a pilfered bag, what must you do before you file the report?
    A. Determine from the passenger if the pilfered articles are actually missing or simply misplaced
    B. Provide the passenger a list of local charities to donate the pilfered items
    C. Turn the baggage in to the property disposal office until the missing articles can be found
    D. Inventory the contents of the bag and place an air mobility command (AMC) form 70 inside
    A. Determine from the passenger if the pilfered articles are actually missing or simply misplaced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  262. If a bag is excessively damaged and articles from it have become lost or missing, what must you do after annotating the air mobility command (AMC) form 134 with the necessary statement?
    A. Present it to customs officials for clearance
    B. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each
    C. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each and notify the security and law enforcement agencies
    D. Inventory the contents of the bag and place and AMC form 70 inside
    B. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  263. After you have determined who the owner is for a particular item, which two forms will you us to send it to them as soon as possible?
    A. AMC form 70 and AMC form 20 -ID
    B. AMC form 57 and DD form 2131
    C. AMC form 20-ID and DD form 2131
    D. AMC form 57 and AMC form 70
    D. AMC form 57 and AMC form 70
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  264. If you sent a piece of rush baggage to elmendorf AFB, alaska, on 23 apr 12 at 1400 and you have not received confirmation that they received the bag, when is the latest you should follow up with them to receive confirmation?
    A. 23 apr 12 at 1800
    B. 25 apr 12 at 1400
    C. 22 apr 12 at 1400
    D. 24 apr 12 at 1400
    B. 25 apr 12 at 1400
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  265. Which item is placed on three point dunnage, a 463l pallet dolly or a suitable roller system in order to prevent damage?
    A. Portable lavatory unit
    B. Net sets
    C. Electrical hotplates and insulated hot/cold jugs
    D. Air transportable galley/lavatory
    D. Air transportable gally/lavatory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  266. When you are tasked to load non expendable supplies on an air mobility command (AMC) c5, which form should you use?
    A. AF IMT 4128, fleet service checklist
    B. AF IMT 1297, temporary issue receipt
    C. AMC form 12-1, air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) unit checklist
    D. AFTO form 244, industrial/support equipment record
    A. AF IMT 4128, fleet service checklist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. If you are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take?
    A. Annotate the article in the statement block of the AF IMT 4128 and describe the action you took to recover it
    B. Turn it into the customer service branch (CSB) so it can be shipped to the passenger
    C. Drive the article to the passenger, who will be waiting at the baggage pick up conveyor
    D. Turn it into the passenger terminals lost and found or security forces
    D. Turn it into the passenger terminals lost and found or security forces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. When recording the various fleet service activities on an AMC form 244, such as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initials of the
    A. Dispatcher and the start and complete times
    B. Person who serviced the latrine, the julian date and start and complete times
    C. Person who serviced the latrine and the start and complete times
    D. Person recording the information, the julian date and start and complete times
    D. Person recording the information, the julian date and start and complete times
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  269. As a fleet service dispatcher, after you have completed and signed an AMC form 244, fleet service arrival/departure worksheet, who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?
    A. The air terminal manager
    B. The flight kitchen representative
    C. An aircrew member
    D. The fleet service shift supervisor
    D. The fleet service shift supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?
    A. Wipe down the oven racks and oven interior and ensure the oven is operational
    B. Take the oven racks to the flight kitchen for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior
    C. Take the oven racks to fleet supply for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the oven interior
    D. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational
    D. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  271. When you are picking up clean and filled 5 gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft, in order for them to remain clean, you must ensure the
    A. Spouts will be covered in plastic
    B. Spouts will be bundled in lots of five
    C. Igloos are wiped down with spray cleaner and a soft cloth
    D. Igloos are wiped down with 5% sodium hypochlorite solution
    A. Spouts will be covered in plastic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  272. What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, food service inventory transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?
    A. Notify the dispatcher of your start time
    B. Call in the meal numbers to the pasenger terminal
    C. Help the aircrew member stow the meals in the proper storage areas
    D. Verify you have every item listed on the form
    D. Verify you have every item listed on the form
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  273. If a c17 blocks out at 0800, after what timeframe would aircrew be required to pick up their own meals?
    A. 0610
    B. 0645
    C. 0715
    D. 0615
    C. 0715
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  274. After you have delivered meals to a c5, who will stow these meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?
    A. Aircrew members and maintenance personnel
    B. Fleet service and maintenance personnel
    C. Fleet service personnel and aircrew members
    D. Aircrew members only
    C. Fleet service personnel and aircrew members
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  275. You are stationed at mcchord afb, wa, and a flight just arrived from kadena ab, japan that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?
    A. After USDA inspection and approval, they are free to consume during one of your breaks
    B. Turn them into the filght kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129
    C. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in to two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility
    D. After us department of agriculture (USDA) inspection and approval, turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129
    C. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in to two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. When servicing an aircraft with portable water, you should fill the aircraft water tank until the
    A. Water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity
    B. Water reaches the requested capacity or 11 gallons, whichever comes first
    C. Flow meter reads 11 gallons
    D. Flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting
    A. Water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank, you should fill it with potable water until the
    A. Guage indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first
    B. Water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity
    C. Water discharges from the overflow fitting or until water discharges from the overflow fitting.
    D. Flow meter reads 11 gallons
    A. Guage indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?
    A. 11 liters
    B. 11 gallons
    C. 39 gallons
    D. 39 liters
    B. 11 gallons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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