# IFR questions

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1. What are the maximum speed for the initial approach and final approach under
the Cat C criteria?
2. 240 kt and 160 kt
3. When visual reference has been established within the circling area at or above the MDA, what obstacle clearance must be provided before further descent below MDA can occur until the a/c is aligned with the runway?
400 ft
4. What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided within the 25 nm MSA?
5. 1000 ft
6. Under which circumstances can an a/c descend below the LSALT for the route sector being flown before it arrives over the initial approach fix for the navaid?
7. VMC by day, DGA arrival, radar terrain cleared.
8. What is the basis of the speeds that determine the a/c category?
9. Vat is the indicated airspeed at the threshold which is equal to the stalling speed Vso multiplied by 1.3 or the stalling speed Vs1g multiplied by 1.23.
• Both Vso and Vs1g apply to aircraft in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing weight. If both Vso and Vs1g are available for an aircraft, the higher
• resulting Vat must be used.
10. When visual reference has been established within the circling area at or above the MDA, what conditions must be met before further descent below MDA can occur?
• a.maintains the a/c within the circling area and,
• b. maintains required vis along
• the flight path and,
• c. maintain visual contact with
• the landing environment and either
• d. by night or day intercept a position where it can complete a continuous descent to the threshold or
• e. in day only, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the a/c category.
11. How is the circling area determined for a cat C a/c?
12. The circling area is determined by drawing an arc centered on the threshold of each usable runway and joining these arcs by tangents.  Cat C: 4.2 nm.
13. When shall a missed approach be conducted?
• a.during the final segment the a/c is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use or
• b. during the instrument approach and below the MSA the performance of the aid becomes suspect or the radio aid fails or
• c. visual reference is not established by the MAP or DA/DH
• d. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling or
• e. visual reference is lost while
• circling to land from an instrument approach.
14. What is the minimum obstacle clearance a missed approach is designed to provide?
15. 100ft to an a/c climbing along the specified missed approach path at a gradient
of 2.5% from the MAP or the DA.
16. When may a pilot of an a/c approaching an a/d for the purpose of landing not commence or discontinue an instrument approach?
By day: within 30nm at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GPS arrival or the MDA, the a/c is established: clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water, vis no less than 5 Km and can maintain all of the above at an altitude not less than VFR to within the circling area.

• By night: at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GPS arrival or
• the MDA, the a/c is established: clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water,vis no less than 5 Km and within the circling area or 5 nm (7nm for a runway equipped with an ILS) aligned with the runway centerline and established not below on slope indication on the T-VASI or PAPI or within 10 nm (14 nm 16L and 34L SYD) not below the ILS glide path with less than full azimuth scale deflection.
17. How is station passage determined?
With a back bearing or on a heading to intercept the outbound course
18. What is the maximum IAS from the initial approach fix when conducting a DGA arrival?
19. 240kt
20. How many degrees is the AOB of an instrument approach based on?
21. Rate one or twenty five degrees whichever is less. SAAB full bank is set on 27
degrees.
22. What do you do if you find a discrepancy at the glide slope check of an ILS approach?
Continue on as a localizer only approach
23. What is the maximum speed for entering or manoeuvring in a holding pattern?
24. 230kt up to FL140, 240kt to FL 200 and 265 kt above.
25. What is the maximum time limit on the outbound leg of a holding pattern?
26. Up to and including FL140: one minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
Above FL140: 1.5 minutes or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
27. When should timing start on the outbound leg of a holding pattern?
28. outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading whichever
comes later.
29. Is
the entry into a holding pattern in accordance with heading or track?
31. What
are the take off minimas?
32. Multi
• engine airplanes which are two pilot operated or single pilot operated
• turbojet or (operative) auto feather equipped operating to the IFR are 0ft
• ceiling and: 800m vis or 500m vis with runway edge lighting  (light spacing not more than 60m) and
• either runway centerline lighting of centerline markings.  Crew
• must be endorsed on a/c, multi-crew trained on a/c, multi-crew proficiency
• checked with the previous 13 months and instrument rated.
33. What
is the maximum speed for visual manoeuvring in the circling area?
180kt Jepps, 160-180 Rex
34. Would
the failure of the marker beacons make the ILS unavailable?
• Where marker beacons are not
• available, aircraft may use the ILS provided that   the alternate fixes nominated on the
• instrument approach chart or by NOTAM are used for altimeter checks.
35. What
is the maximum time on the outbound leg of a sector 2 entry?
• . up to a maximum of 1min 30
• seconds
36. By
how many metres must the landing visibility be increased on an instrument
approach other than ILS if HIAL is not available?
900m
37. Special
alternate minima are available at some a/d. How are these identify on
instrument approach charts and what conditions must be met to use them?
• Identified by the special
• alternate minima specified on the back of the aerodrome diagram in the “file
• for alternate section”.  Dual ILS/VOR
• approach capability i.e with duplicated LOC, GP. Marker and VOR receivers. The
• requirement for duplicated marker receivers may be satisfied by one marker
• receiver and DME. (the assumption is that such aircraft will also have two ADF
• systems when a NDB or Locator is used for the ILS). Special alternate minima
• will not be available and will revert to the standard alternate minima during
• periods when: local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available or
• and a/d control service is not provided.
38. What
are the visibility limitations for a cat 1 ILS?
• 1.5km is required when HIALS is
• not available, and

• Vis
• of 1.2km is required unless: a. the aircraft is manually flown for the entire
• approach using a flight director or the a/c is flown to the CAT1 DA with an
• autopilot coupled (localizer and glide path), and

• The a/c is equipped with a
• serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading
• reference systems and

High intensity runway edge lighting is available
39. On a
SID, each procedure indicates the minimum design climb gradient that
ensures obstacle clearance. However, an additional gradient may be
included by a figure in brackets with an asterisk. What is the
• on an airspace requirement should be flown by aircraft required to remain in
• controlled airspace.
40. Are
SID diagrams drawn to scale and are bearings magnetic and altitude requirements
referenced to QNH?
• SID diagrams are not drawn to scale bearings are
• magnetic and altitude requirements are referenced to QNH
41. If
the destination aerodrome is in controlled airspace are the DME steps
designed to contain the aircraft within controlled airspace?
• Where possible, DGA procedures are designed to
• contain the a/c within controlled airspace and provide 500ft separation from
• the CTA limit. However, there are locations where the procedure commences in
• class G airspace or which can take a/c into class G airspace on descent. Pilots
• should check procedures to ensure that a/c are contained in CTA where required.
42. Is
manoeuvring within a DME sector permitted after the final approach fix?
No
43. Define
Runway Visual Range.
• A value defined by instruments
• based on standard calibrations that represents the horizontal distance a pilot
• will see down the runway.
44. What
is the spacing of fixed distance markings and on what runways are they
used?
• These markings may be used on
• both ends of sealed or concrete runways where the width is 30m or greater to
• provide guidance in relation to distance whilst landing. The markings are 150m
• apart.
45. What is the spacing of runway edge lighting?
• Runway edge lighting has
• longitudinal spacing of 60m for instrument runways but may be up to 90m for
• non-instrument runways and for non-precision approach runways at country a/d.
46. How
long is a TTF valid for?
• The TTF supersedes the TAF for
• its validity period of 3 hours commencing at the time of the observation and is
• the current forecast for pilots of aircraft whose arrival time falls within the
• three hour period.
47. Why
may a forecast be prefixed provisional?
• Forecasts may be prefixed PROV
• when considered likely to be deficient in accuracy because origination was by a
• forecasting office issuing information for a location or area not under its
• authority. The director of meteorology may however also authorize the issue of
• provisional TAF in additional circumstances. This normally occurs in the case
• where data is lacking or is deficient.
48. What
is the radius around the a/d for which a TAF is valid?
5 nm
49. In
TAF and TTF is the cloud given above sea level or above aerodrome
elevation and is the wind true or magnetic?
Above a/d, wind in true degrees
50. State the weather requirements for planning an
alternate
• 37.    The
• PIC must provide for a suitable alternate a/d when arrival at the destination
• will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes prior to the forecast
• commencement of the following weather conditions:

• a.       Cloud:
• more than SCT below the alternate minimum
• Note: forecast amounts are cumulative i.e FEW plus FEW equals SCT, FEW plus SCT
• equals BKN, SCT plus SCT equals BKN or OVC. or

b.      Vis less than the alternate minimum or

• c.       Vis
• greater than the alternate minimum but the forecast is endorsed with a
• percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting
• visibility below the alternate minimum or

• d.      Wind:
• a crosswind or downwind component more than the maximum for the a/c
51. What
are the Jeppesen approach speeds and the Rex speeds?
• 37.    Cat
• C speeds

• Range of initial approach speeds
• 160/240 KIAS

• Range of final approach speeds
• 115/160 KIAS

• Maximum speed for circling 180
• KIAS

• Maximum speed for missed approach
• 240 KIAS

Company speeds

• Initial approach 200-160 (170 by
• IF(RNAV)

Final approach 160-Vfa+10

Circling 160-180

• Missed approach 146
• (Venroute+10). Speed may be increased above MSA
52. Is
manoeuvring permitted in a no circling area?
• 37.    Yes,
• by day VMC
53. What
is the obstacle clearance in a circling area?
• 37.    400ft
• cat C
54. When
is the missed approach to be executed?
• Outside tolerances, navaids failure, visual
• reference not established by MAP or a landing cannot be effected from a runway
• approach unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions
• equal to or better than those specified for circling or visual reference is
• lost while circling to land from an instrument approach. In the case of GPS-NPA
• if a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated any time after passing the
• initial approach fix.
55. What
are the recency requirements for a RNAV, ILS, VOR?
• 37.    RNAV:
• one approach in six months on the endorsed receiver, DGA, NDB 90 days, ILS 35
• days.
56. the
vis ILS is 1.2k unless…?
• 37.    a/c
• manually flown for the entire approach using a flight director or the a/c  is flown to the CAT1 DA with an autopilot
• coupled (localizer and glide path) and

• the a/c is equipped with a
• serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading
• reference system and high intensity runway edge lighting is available.
57. How
long is the actual QNH valid for?
• 37.    15
• min
58. What
are the tracking tolerances on a DGA?
• VOR
• > 5.2 degrees,  NDB > 6.9 degrees
59. What
is the planning requirement for a PROV forecast?
• 37.    Must
• plan for an alternate that has a firm forecast available.
60. When
can you do a visual approach?
• 37.    By
• day: within 30nm at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment,
• the appropriate step of the DME or GPS arrival or the MDA, the a/c is
• established: clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water, vis no less than 5 Km
• and can maintain all of the above at an altitude not less than VFR to within
• the circling area.

• By night: at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for
• the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GPS arrival or the MDA,
• the a/c is established: clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water, vis no
• less than 5 Km and within the circling area or 5 nm (7nm for a runway equipped
• with an ILS) aligned with the runway centerline and established not below on
• slope indication on the T-VASI or PAPI
• or within 10 nm (14 nm 16L and 34L SYD) not below the ILS glide path
• with less than full azimuth scale deflection
61. How
long is the outbound leg of a reversal turn for a cat C a/c?
• 37.    1
• min 15 sec
62. Under which conditions can an a/c which is not
required to hold commence an instrument approach?
• 37.    An
• a/c which is not required to hold or to lose height in a holding pattern may
• commence the approach without entering the holding pattern if:

• a.       in
• controlled airspace ATC has cleared the a/c to do so

• b.      in
• any airspace for procedures using radio navaids:

•
• i.
• the reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied
• or

•
• ii.
• the DME arc entry requirements are satisfied (DME arcs
• must be joined at or before an IAF and at an altitutde not below the relevant
• MSA or the appropriate sector DME arrival step) or

•
• iii.
• the enroute track to the procedures commencement fix or
• facility is within 30 degrees either side of the first track of the procedure
• or

• c. in any airspace for procedures
• using GPS, the a/c is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the
• capture region
 Author: Anonymous ID: 292852 Card Set: IFR questions Updated: 2015-01-12 22:28:36 Tags: IFR Folders: saab Description: IFR quiz Show Answers: