checkride prep 2

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Author:
dwebb
ID:
292976
Filename:
checkride prep 2
Updated:
2015-01-14 08:59:10
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Checkride
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Description:
B6 checkride prep
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  1. "what 4 conditions cause the align light to flash in the IRs"
    "1.) no position entered within 10 min.2.) IR alignment fault3.) position disagrees with shutdown greater than 1 degree.4.) AC movement during alignment.l"
  2. "when does the PTU run"
    "1.) more than 500 psi difference between the green and yellow system.2.) automatically tested after second engine start.3.)inhibited during first star engine start"
  3. "when does the blue hydraulic pump run?"
    "1.) continuously in flight.2.) one engine on on the ground.3.) override button pressed on maintenance panel."
  4. "the IR fault light will flash to indicate..."
    "that the associates IR may be recovered in ATT mode."
  5. "what is indicated by a generator fault"
    "1.) GCU has tripped.2.) the line contact is open."
  6. "galley and cab fault"
    "indicates the load on any generator is more than 100 %"
  7. "when will the main galley shed?"
    "in flight
  8. "what doe the commercial pb power"
    "all commercial loads.1.) cargo lights2.) cabin lights3.) galley equipment and lights4.) water and toilet5.) drain mast ice protection"
  9. "what is special about the elac 1 fault light"
    "it is the only one that will illuminate during an elac power up test"
  10. "what is powered by the rack power pb"
    "aft avionics rack1.) WADL2.) CMVC3.) live tv4.) XM radio"
  11. "what conditions are required for the engine bleed valves to open?"
    "1.) upstream pressure above 8 psi2.) no onside leaks over pressure or overheats.3.)APU. bleed is off or closed4.) engine fire pb is not selected5.) start valve is closed"
  12. "what causes an engine bleed fault."
    "1.) down stream over pressure2.) overheat3.) wing or engine leak.4.) bleed valve not closed during start.5.) bleed not closed with APU bleed on."
  13. "Ram air valve willopen when selected if..."
    "1.)the ditching switch is not selected.2.) the differential pressure is below 1 psi."
  14. "APU bleed fault indicates"
    "an APU leak is detected."
  15. "OXYGENCrew supply pb"
    "opens an closes Solenoid valve allowing i to masks.OKY IN AMBERREGUL LO PR"
  16. "OXY in Amber"
    "Oxygen bottle below 400 psi.regulator below 50 psi.or Crew Oxygen pb is off"
  17. "oxygen REGULATOR LO PR."
    "regulated oxygen pressure below 50 psi.or the crew oxygen pb is off."
  18. "amber half frame around bottle pressure"
    "bottle pressure is below 1500 psi* 1000 psi on aircraft 589 and subsequent. "
  19. "Bus tie"
    "auto: BTCs will open and close automatically to maintain power to AC busses.off: both BTCs open
  20. "what does the emergency generator power"
    "AC ESSENTIALESS TRessential TR powers essential DC bus."
  21. "what happens if the RAT stalls or the aircraft is below 100 kts on emergency power."
    "the emergency network transfers to the batteries and a static inverter. AC and DC essential shed ties will open.the DC bus is automatically connected to the batteries"
  22. "below 50 knots on emergency power..."
    "the AC ESSENTIAL bus sheds and all CRTs are no longer powered."
  23. "Pack Fault"
    "1.) pack valve disagrees with selected position2.) compressor outlet overheat3.) pack outlet overheat."
  24. "HOT AIR FAULT"
    "duct overheat I detected.the valve and all three trim air valves close automatically.selecting off resets fault circuit."
  25. "what is the temperature range of the zone controllers?"
    "18 - 30 deg C(64 - 86 deg F)"
  26. "brake fans on after landing.(fcom revision)"
    "1.) Fans on 5 min after landing
  27. "brake fans off at...."
    "below 100 def C
  28. "before take off brake temp..."
    "a.) less than 150. turn fans off.b.) more than 150/fans on - delay take off.c.) more than 300/fans off - delay take off."
  29. "stabilized approach criteria:"
    "BY 1000 AFE1.) gear down2.) flaps configured3.) thrust above idle**4.) speed Vapp +10/-55.) localized 1/2 dot6.) glides lope 1 dot7.) descent rate less than 1000 fpm"
  30. "how long do you hold the AP DISC push button on the side stick to lock out the other side?"
    "40 seconds"
  31. "what isSRSnormal takeoff"
    "speed reference1.) pitch for speed at V2 + 10CLB will arm on the ground or after SRS if no other mode is selecteddie nagged at acceleration altitude."
  32. "what is SRSat engine failure"
    "will set a pitch to maintain V2 or the current speed up to V2 + 15."
  33. "what isSRSat go arround."
    "pitch to maintain the greater of V app or the speed at the moment of selection up to VLS+25"
  34. "Wing anti ice fault"
    "1.) the position of the anti ice valve is not in the required position.2.) low pressure is detected."
  35. "engine anti ice fault"
    "the position of the valves disagreed with the pb"
  36. "APU fire on the ground..."
    "the APU will auto shutdown and the agent will discharge"
  37. "PROBE/WINDOWHEATauto "
    "light is extinguishedprobes and heated automatically:1.) in flight2.) one the ground provided one engine is running."
  38. "FAULTon APU master switchindicates"
    "an APU auto shutdown has occurred."
  39. "when is the APU star cycle complete
    or. when will the avail light illuminate."
  40. "what is the max altitude for APU bleed supply to packs."
    "1.) both packs to 15000 feet.2.) one pack to from 15000 to 22
  41. "what does the auto function of the NO SMOKING sign do?"
    "the EXIT signs cycle with the landing gear."
  42. "what is significant about the NO SMOKING sign in the ON position."
    "emergency lighting battery charging is inhibited. AUTO is the normal position."
  43. "in AUTO
    when do the emergency lights illuminate."
  44. "how long will the emergency lights last?"
    "10 minutes.(12 minutes according to FCOM)."
  45. "engine MAN START PBS..."
    "open the start valves if the mode selector is set to crank or start."
  46. "ENG N1 MODEPBS..."
    "thrust control reverts from EPR To N1 rated mode.Autothrust and alpha floor are lost."
  47. "BLOWER or EXTRACTFault"
    "1.) pressure is low2.) computer power supply fails.3.) smoke warning is activated.4.) blower duct overheat."
  48. "what is signified by the top I the open amber segment on the airspeed tape."
    "VLSlowest selectable speed."
  49. "what is signified by the top of the tiger tail on the airspeed tape."
    "beginning of alpha port.alpha protection becomes active.only displayed in normal law."
  50. "what is signified by the beginning of the solid red stripein the airspeed tape."
    "alpha max.maximum agile attack the aircraft can achieve in normal law."
  51. "DISCH AGENT 2 light"
    "illuminates amber 60 minutes after discharge of agent 1. it extinguishes when agent 2 squib is ignited."
  52. "how long after discharge will the DISCH 1light illuminate after cargo Boyle one is illuminated?"
    "60 seconds."
  53. "how long will it take cargo bottle 2 to discharge and DISCH 2to illuminate"
    "49 minutes to illuminate
  54. "what does the FAC do?"
    "yaw control.1.)yaw dampening.2.) turn coordination.3.) rudder limits.4.) characteristic speeds.5.) relative winds shear guidance."
  55. "normal law load factors"
    "+2.5 to -1 g clean.+ 2 to -0 with slats or flaps."
  56. "normal law pitch limits"
    "clean: 30 deg up/15 deg down.low speed: 25 deg up.config full: 20 deg up."
  57. "at what speed range can alpha floor activate?"
    "the alpha protection range.(between alpha port and alpha max.)"
  58. "what is thelimiting property between VLS AND V alpha port"
    "load factor"
  59. "what is the limiting property in alpha protection range."
    "alpha (APA)"
  60. "what is the best way to disconnectTOGA LK"
    "1.)thrust levers to idle.2.)A/THR pb on3.) thrust levers to CLB."
  61. "normal law max speed range."
    "Vmo/fe/le + 6 kts.auto pilot disconnects - pitch up command."
  62. "what is Vmo/Mmo"
    "350/.82"
  63. "what is Vlo"
    "extension 250retraction 220"
  64. "what is Vle"
    "280"
  65. "normal law bank angle limits"
    "33 degrees
  66. "what affect does the alpha prot have on bank angle."
    "limits bank to 45 degrees."
  67. "what effect does high speed protection have on bank angle"
    "limits bank to 45 degrees. spiral stability will return the aircraft to wings level."
  68. "Engine inoperative approach limitation."
    "if one engine is inoperable. no approaches in FINAL APP OR NAV mode.with auto pilot on."
  69. "what is the low energy warning?"
    ""speed speed" aural warning if speed is decreasing under a threshold where a posits flight path cannot be recovered without the application of power.precedes alpha floor."
  70. "when is the PTU inhibited"
    "1.) one engine master on and parking brake set.2.) after first engine start.3.) NWS DISC displayed in ECAM.4.) cargo door operation."
  71. "ADIRSfast aligne"
    "rotary switch to off for less than 5 seconds.process takes 30 seconds.resets ground speed to 0"
  72. "ADIRSfull allignment"
    "ADIRS determines position heading and altitude.process takes 10 minutes.rotary switches to off for more than 5 seconds."
  73. "ADR functions"
    "air data(pitot static and AOA)1.) baroaltitude2.)air speed.3.)Mach4.)AOA5.) temperatures6.) over speed warnings"
  74. "IR functions"
    "(gyro functions)1.) attitude*2.) heading*3.) track4.) acceleration5.) position6.) ground speed.7.) angular rate8.) FPV"
  75. "AUTOLANDLIGHT"
    "below 200 feet1.) excessive GS or LOC deivation.2.) failure of both autopilots3.)failure of LOC or GS signal.4.) difference in RAs greater than 15 feet."
  76. "what does the EXPED pbon the FCU do?"
    "sets the speed to green dot in climb or .80/330 in descent."
  77. "at what temp does BRAKE HOTilluminate?"
    "300 deg.wait 5 min - fans on."
  78. "LO BRAKEShow many seconds?"
    "4 seconds after spoilers deploy."
  79. "MED BRAKEShow many seconds?"
    "2 seconds after spoilers deploy."
  80. "DECEL green"
    "illuminates when the actual deceleration rate is 80% of selected rate."
  81. "the red arrow on the gear selector will illuminate..."
    "when the aircraft is in landing configuration
  82. "is Alpha Floor available with auto thrust disconnected."
    "yes"
  83. "to permanently disconnect autothrust..."
    "the instinctive disconnects need to be pressed and held for 15 seconds.AFLOOR is not available."
  84. "when is ignition automatically on?"
    "switch in norm and1.) FLEX/TOGA2.) EAI on3.) engine surge/stall4.) flaps extended."
  85. "FAULTEngine Pedistal"
    "1.) automatic start abort.2.) disagreement between HP fuelvalve and it's commanded position."
  86. "minimum fuel is declared at..."
    "4
  87. "Emergency fuel is declared at..."
    "3
  88. "what fuel is entered in the FINAL / TIMEblock of the init page for flag operations?"
    "HOLD fuel from the dispatch release."
  89. "during deceleration what does F speed represent?"
    "the minimum maneuvering speed with the flaps in configuration 2 or 3."
  90. "when accelerating
    what does S speed represent"
  91. "when decelerating
    what does S speed represent?"
  92. "while accelerating what does F speed represent?"
    "flap retraction speed.it appears in position 2 or 3 and is the lowest speed to select flaps 1."
  93. "what is 1+f"
    "config one set on the ground.or when selected from config 2 or 3 (ie go arround)"
  94. "what does LAND GREEN mean on the FMA?"
    "at 400 feet the FMA locks LOC and GS mode. no further actions can beads on the FCU."
  95. "what is flare mode on the FMA?"
    "at 40 feet.1.) aircraft is aligned with runway.2.) flare pitch3.) A/TH in AUTOLAND
  96. "what is ROLLOUT."
    "the auto pilot is guiding aircraft along the centerline. Pfd displays the yaw bar."
  97. "what is required to activate ground spoilers during a rejected takeoff?"
    "1.) system armed2.) exceed 72 knots wheel speed.3.) thrust levers set a idle."
  98. "cockpit door LOCK"
    "door is locked and emergency access is not available for 5 to 20 minutes."
  99. "cockpit doorOPEN FLASHING"
    "cabin crew has started an emergency access procedure"
  100. "JetBlue'sT E S Tacronym"
    "T - type of emergencyE - Evacuation requiredS - signal reviewT - time remaining"
  101. "what altitude does RVSM Start?"
    "FL 290"
  102. "OREFLAPEacronym"
    "O - oxygenR - ropeE - extinguisherF - flashlightL - life vestA - axeP- PBEE- EVAS"
  103. "marginal weather is..."
    "both destination and alternate are below 600 and 2.a second alternate is required."
  104. "at what visibility is the low visibility takeoff QRH to be referenced?"
    "5000 RVR OR 1 SM"
  105. "what is signifies by the [bracketed] distances in the QRH regarding runway length?"
    "the bracketed distance is the actuallanding distance required on a dry runway at 170
  106. "what are the limits for RNV approaches?"
    "1)they cannot be flown if the MAP is located before the runway threshold.2) no modification between FAF and runway."
  107. "what are the 3 limits to execute a CDA approach over a step down?"
    "1) no step downs between the FAF AND MAP.3.) the VDP is not between the MAP and runway.2.) there must be a published angle."
  108. "if landing procedures apply
    what auto brake setting is required."
  109. "how long is the service check valid?"
    "72 hours(exactly)"
  110. "how long is a weekly valid?"
    "8 days.a weekly may be substituted for a service check as long as it stays in the validity period for that service check."
  111. "what does GPS PRIMARY LOST MEAN."
    "enroute
  112. "if in approach phase
    and GPS position error exceeds the RNP value
  113. "what triggers the triple click"
    "1.)downgrade of approach 2)capability or mode reversion"
  114. "what does SINGLE in volume 4 mean"
    "fail passive approach capability"
  115. "what does DUAL in volume 4 of the FMA meas"
    "the approach capability is FAIL OPERATIONAL."
  116. "what does fail operational mean."
    "if in the event of a failure below alert height
  117. "what does fail passive mean"
    "in the event of a failure
  118. "what did Joseph say on the 1/31 when we were going into Hannafords for the secon time"
    "Wait we have to go to 5 below
  119. "What is the deceleration schedule with approach mode activated?"
    "clean - green dotconfig 1 - s speedconfig 2 and 3 - f speedconfig full v app."
  120. "what are the wind limitations for a CAT III approach"
    "15 knot cross wind30 knot head wind"
  121. "when the flight crew is re routed through an area of forecast volcanic ash in day VMC"
    "they must remain clear of clouds."
  122. "when is a contamination check required?"
    "wham a hold over time has been exceeded."
  123. "auto brakes for CAT III"
    "medium"
  124. "auto brakes for a contaminated runway"
    "Medium(assuming no directional control concerns)"
  125. "strong echoes should be avoided by "
    "20 miles"
  126. "turbulence penetration speed above FL200"
    "275/.76"
  127. "EGPWS escape maneuver"
    "require at night or IMC1) AP off2) Pitch - full up3) TOGA4) speed brake retract5) bank - wings level."
  128. ""priority left/right""
    "illuminates red in front of the pilot losing priority."
  129. "what is a level 2 caution?"
    "master caution. amber single chime."
  130. "what is a level 3 warning?"
    "CRC and flashing red master warning."
  131. "what hydraulic system powers the braking system with NWS/ANTI SKID OFF?"
    "yellow"
  132. "reversionary brakes
    if germ hydraulics are lost
  133. "when and why does alternate law revert to direct law ?"
    "at gear extension
  134. "will AFLOOR be available with auto thrust disconnected?"
    "yes"
  135. "how long do you press the instructive disconnect to permanently disable the auto thrust?"
    "15 seconds"
  136. "with the autothrust. permanently disconnected
    is AFLOOR available?"
  137. "ENGN1 MODE"
    "thrust control reverts to N1 rated mode (QRH directed)1) no auto thrust2) no alpha floor"
  138. "blower fault"
    "1) low pressure2) duct overheat3) computer power supply fails4) smoke warning"
  139. "extract fault"
    "1.) low pressure2) computer power supply fails3) smoke warning"
  140. "when is pack flow automatically set to high?"
    "when on APU bleed or single pack operation."
  141. "what causes a pack fault?"
    "1.) pack outlet overheat2.) compressor outlet overheat3.)valve position disagrees with selected position."
  142. "what is the maximum speed for an RF leg on a RNAV RNP approach?"
    "165 Knots"
  143. "when does the CVR run automatically?"
    "1) for 5 minutes after power is supplied2) on the ground after an engine start3) continuously in flight"
  144. "when does the rat automatically deploy."
    "loss of AC bus 1 and 2 above 100 knots"
  145. "BLOWER in override."
    "1)blower fan stops.2)conditioned air is added to the ventilation air and 3)the systems system configures to a closed circuit."
  146. "COMMAND EVAC initiated from cabin."
    "if the capt & puts switch is in CAPT
  147. "when is the PTU inhibited?"
    "1) DURING first engine start2) NWS disconnected3) cargo door operation4) one engine master on
  148. "when is the PTU tested?"
    "during second engine start."
  149. "a boxed itemon ECAMindicates..."
    "a primary failure that effects other systems."
  150. "an asterisk on the ECAMmemo indicates"
    "a second failure that was caused by a primary failure."
  151. "what is the single engine acceleration altitude?"
    "1500 feet AFE and can be referenced on the perf page."
  152. "what speed is holding speed."
    "green dot plus 20"
  153. "what FPA is set for non precision approaches?"
    "3.4-4.0"
  154. "In manual
    what action causes the outflow valve to move toward close?"
  155. "what speed does EXPED provide in a descent?"
    ".80/340"
  156. "on a 2 engine go around
    what does SRS provide?"
  157. "when does SRS change to another vertical mode?"
    "at acceleration altitude
  158. "is alpha floor available in alternate law?"
    "no"
  159. "after AFLOOR is remedied
    what thrust will be annunciation on the FMA"
  160. "how do you disengage toga lock?"
    "A/THR must be disconnected."
  161. "BAT FAULT"
    "internal problem with battery or battery charging system."
  162. "when is ignition automatically on?"
    "1) flaps 2) FLEX or TOGA3) ENG AI on4) surge / stall"
  163. "is load factor protection available in alternate law?"
    "yes"
  164. "red arrow priority"
    "illuminated infront of pilot loosing authority."
  165. "green capt FO priority lights"
    "dual inputs are being commanded."
  166. "is auto trim available in alternate law"
    "yes"
  167. "is yaw dampening available in alternate law?"
    "yes"
  168. "PTU is inhibited in which parking brake configuration?"
    "one engine master on and parking brake ON!"
  169. "What speed is held by SRS for a normal take off?"
    "V2 + 10"
  170. "What speed is held by SRS in the event of an engine failure?"
    "V2 or the current speed up to V2 + 15. "
  171. "what speed is held by SRS if TOGA is selected?"
    "The greater of Vapp of the speed at engagement up to VLS + 25"
  172. "what engages SRS?"
    "thrust levers at FLX OR TOGA."
  173. "what disengages SRS?"
    "acceleration altitude or selection of another vertical mode."
  174. "When will NAV mode activate after takeoff?"
    "at 30. RA if armed on the ground an no other lateral mode except RWY."
  175. "at what altitude is the "thousand stable
    cleared to land call out based?""
  176. "at what altitude is the "hundred above
    minimums" call out base on an ILS approach?"
  177. "At what speed should you call for flaps 1
    after takeoff or go around regardless of configuration (I.e. flaps 2 or 3)."
  178. "What is considered "standard" in a pairing brief"
    "1.) captain initiates and conducts RTO2.) either pilot will call out malfunctions3.) both pilots are responsible for callouts4.) 80 knots is the high speed regime."
  179. "what is active monitoring"
    "visualizeactcompare"
  180. "how is reactive winds shear displayed on the PFD?"
    "RedWind shearwarning"wind shear
  181. "How is predictive wind shear displayed on the PDF when it is detected at 1.5 to 3 Miles from the aircraft on approach."
    "Amber wind shear caution"monitor radar display." aural."
  182. "How is predictive wind shear displayed when at or closer than 1.5 miles."
    "Red winds shear warning and"Go around - winds shear" aural.perform a normal go arround."
  183. "wind shear recovery procedure:"
    "1.) TOGA2.) follow SRS3.) maintain configuration until clear."
  184. "How is EFOB calculated?"
    "FAR reserve + 15 minutesminimum planned EFOB 4500reserve should be 3500-3900 therefore standard landing fuel should be 4500- 5100"
  185. "On a precision like approach
    what does the remark: DME/DME RNP .3 Not Authorized mean"
  186. "On a precision like approach
    what does GPSor RNP 0.3 required mean?"
  187. "for non normal procedures on the ground who is always PM and who is PF."
    "Captain is always PF ON THE GROUND
  188. "In normal law
    what happens in the alpha protection range?"
  189. "Which flight axis is associated with alternate law?"
    "Pitch
  190. "what is abnormal attitude law?"
    "alternate law without reduced protections. no reversion to direct law when gear selected down."
  191. "which protection takes priority in normal law?"
    "ANGLE OF ATTACK"
  192. "under what conditions is alpha floornot available."
    "alternate law.1.)autothrust disabled.- instinctive disconect held for 15 sec( but will workwith it selected off.)2)N1 rated mode"
  193. "IF BLEED AIR IS BEING SUPPLIED BY THE APU OR IF ONE PACK FAILS
    WHATWILL THE PACK FLOW RATE BE?"
  194. "WHEN DOES THE PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM SWITCH AUTO-CONTROLLERS?"
    "70 SECONDS AFTER EACH LANDING."
  195. "IF SYS 1 (OR SYS 2) WERE DISPLAYED IN AMBER ON THE 'CAB PRESS' PAGE
    WHAT WOULD BE INDICATED?"
  196. "WHAT IS INDICATED IF THE CABIN VERTICAL SPEED IS INDICATED IN AMBER?"
    "HIGH CABIN RATE OF CLIMB/DESCENT."
  197. "WHAT OCCURS WHEN THE DITCHING PUSHBUTTON IS SELECTED ON?"
    "ALL EXTERIOR OPENINGS BELOW THE FLOTATION LINE CLOSE
  198. "WITH THE LDG ELEV SELECTOR IN AUTO
    WHAT ALTITUDE IS USED FORLANDING FIELD PRESSURIZATION REFERENCE?"
  199. "WHAT ARE THE THREE SUPPLY ZONES FOR CONDITIONED AIR?  "
    "COCKPIT
  200. "HOW IS THE VOLUME OF PACK AIR CONTROLLED?"
    "PACK FLOW CONTROLLER."
  201. "WITH THE APU SUPPLYING BLEED AIR WHAT WILL BE THE PACK FLOW IFTHE PACK FLOW SELECTOR IS LOW?"
    "HIGH."
  202. "CAN THE PACK FLOW CONTROLLER OVERRIDE THE CREW SELECTED PACK FLOW?"
    "YES
  203. "THE RAM AIR INLET FLAPS
    FOR THE ACM HEAT EXCHANGERS
  204. "WHEN IS THE RAM AIR PUSHBUTTON USED?"
    "IT IS USED DURING DUAL PACK FAILURES AND SMOKE REMOVAL."
  205. "WHAT IS THE ONE LIMITATION FOR OPENING THE RAM AIR INLET?"
    "DO NOT OPEN THE RAM AIR INLET IF DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE GREATER THAN 1PSI."
  206. "WILL THE RAM AIR INLET OPEN IF THE DITCHING PUSHBUTTON HAS BEENSELECTED ON?"
    "NO."
  207. "CAN EXTERNAL AIR BE USED TO SUPPLEMENT LOW APU BLEED PRESSURE? FCOM 3.1.21 AIR COND/PRESS/VENT"
    "NO
  208. "THE LAVATORY AND GALLEY EXTRACT FAN OPERATES WHEN?"
    "THE LAVATORY AND GALLEY EXTRACT FANS OPERATE CONTINUOUSLY WHEN ELECTRICAL POWER ISAVAILABLE."
  209. "WHEN OPERATING PRESSURIZATION IN AUTO
    IF THE PILOT SUSPECTS THESELECTED CONTROLLER IS MALFUNCTIONING
  210. "IF ONE CABIN PRESSURE CONTROLLER FAILS
    HOW IS PRESSURIZATIONMAINTAINED?"
  211. "HOW MANY CAB FANS ARE INSTALLED?"
    "TWO."
  212. "WHAT DOES THE OFF IN THE CAB FANS PUSHBUTTON INDICATE?"
    " BOTH CABIN FANS ARE OFF. When extinguished
  213. "IF THE AVIONICS VENTILATION BLOWER PRESSURE IS LOW
    OR THE DUCTOVERHEATS WHILE ON THE GROUND
  214. "WHAT IS THE CAUTION ABOUT PRESSING THE DITCHING PUSHBUTTON ONWHILE ON THE GROUND WITH LOW PRESSURE CONDITIONED AIRCONNECTED?"
    "A DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE WILL BUILD IF ALL ENTRY AND SERVICE DOORS ARE CLOSED."
  215. "WHAT GROUND WARNING NOTICE IS GIVEN WHEN A PROBLEM OCCURSWITH THE VENTILATION SYSTEM WHEN THE ENGINES ARE STOPPED?"
    "IF THE BLOWER OR EXTRACT PRESSURE IS LOW AN EXTERNAL WARNING HORN SOUNDS."
  216. "IS IT PERMISSIBLE TO ALLOW SIMULTANEOUS INTRODUCTION OF EXTERNALAIR WITH ANOTHER SOURCE SUPPLYING THE SYSTEM?"
    "NO."
  217. "MAXIMUM POSITIVE DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE"
    "8.6 PSI"
  218. "MAXIMUM NEGATIVE DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE"
    "-1 PSI"
  219. "THE RAM AIR INLET MAY ONLY BE OPENED WHEN THE PRESSUREDIFFERENTIAL IS LOWER THAN"
    "1 PSI"
  220. "A LP GROUND UNIT MAY NOT BE USED SIMULTANEOUSLY WITHAIRCONDITIONING PACKS"
    "True"
  221. "How many cabin pressure contollers are installed?"
    "2"
  222. "If the FMGS is not capable of providing field elevation date
    how is the pressurization system configured?"
  223. "The Peresurization clmb mode will swith to abort mode if:"
    "The aircraft starts a descent at 200 FDM for more than 30 seconds
  224. "After Touchdown
    the airfraft will depresurize automatically at a rate of:"
  225. "The outflow valve is normally displayed in greed on the presurization SD page
    but will display in amber if open more than:"
  226. "The Cabin Vertaical Speed rate Pulses for rates over:"
    "1800 FPM"
  227. "What is the primary engine source of bleed air refered to?"
    "IP(intermediate)"
  228. "The High Pressure Ground Air and APU Bleed air are suppleid to which side of the pnuematic system?"
    "Left"
  229. " With the X bleed sitch in auto
    and the APU valve open
  230. "What computer controls the engine Bleed Valves?"
    "BMC"
  231. "With the X bleed swith in auto
    and the APU bleed valve open
  232. "When is it permitted to run a QRC
    ECAM or QRH procedure after takoff?"
  233. "FCOM 5.2.4 define critical actions that are requried to be monitored by both pilot.What ECAM directed functions are required to be physically guarded by the PF?"
    "retarding THRUST LEVERSTurning off ENG MASTER SWITCHES "
  234. "FCOM 5.2.4 define critical actions that are requried to be monitored by both pilot.What ECAM directed functions are required to be visually guarded by the PF?"
    "Pushing ENGINE FIRE Push buttonsPushing IDG Push ButtonsAny rotation of an ADR Rotary switchActivating a cargo smoke Discharge Switch."
  235. "What is the verbiage for executing a critial action confirmation durring an ECAM action."
    ""Confirm number one - Number one Confirmed.""
  236. "Fcom 4.2.2 defines a soft go arround
    how is it executed?"
  237. "Normal Go Arround Procedure"
    "TOGA THRUSTcommand go arrounf Flaps - retract one stepPush Headingclean up on scheduleOpen Climb and MCT at acceloration altitide."
  238. "What actions are perforemd at green DOT on a V1 take off continued manuever?"
    "Pull altitude/ Set altitude to initiate climb.Set MCT
  239. "IF a take off is aborted in the low speed regime
    below 80 knots
  240. "During a take off roll
    most cautions are inhibited:"
  241. "What are the FCOM examples of reasons to abort above 80 knots:"
    "1.) Engine fire2.) Severe Engine Damage3.) Uninhibited ECAM warnings and cautions4.)Unambiguouse indications that the aircraft will not fly safely."
  242. "First Officer duties Durring an RTO:"
    "1.) relinquish control.2.) Monitor brakes3.)Confirm Reverse4.) Cancel Audio5.) Inform ATC6.) locate evacuation checklist7.) QRC initiate"
  243. "During Take off
    when are PREDICTIVE windshear messages inhibited:"
  244. "What is a RNV Visual Appraoch"
    "AN RNV apprach selected from the data base that is flowen in APPRCH MODE.(It is an RNV apprach without published minimums or missed apprach procedure.)"
  245. "What is a Charted Visual Apprach?"
    "A Visual Procedure that is not selected from the database.(Crew should still used any published facilities to augment the procedure)"
  246. "What Altitude do you set in the FMCG performance page for the MDA
    for RNAV visual and Charted Visual Proceudres?"
  247. "What altitude do you set as a go arround altitude on RNAV visual and Charted Visual Proceudres? "
    "1500 AFE rounded up.(Set at FINAL APP or when appropiate.)"
  248. "What altitude do you set for a GO ARROUND altitude on a visual apprach with an IAP back up?"
    "1500 ft. AFE rounded up(set when appropriate)"
  249. "What altitude do you set as minimums on the FMCG performance page for a visual apprach wiht no IAP back up?"
    "1000 AFE"
  250. "What altitude do you set as a GO ARROUND ALTITUDE on a visual approach wiht no IAP back up?"
    "1500 ft. AFE rounded up (Set when appropriate)"
  251. "On an RNAV approach
    when will the autopilot automatically disconnect?"
  252. "What is the minimum altitude height for a for auto pilot use on a staight in non precision apprach?"
    "MDA"
  253. "What is the minimum altitude for auto pilot use for "all other phases?""
    "500 ft."
  254. "What is the minimum altitude for autopilot use on a CAT I ILS?"
    "160 ft."
  255. "What is the minimum height to engage the autopilot?"
    "100 ft."
  256. "Stall Recovery Technique:"
    "- Decrease AOA- Level Wings- Adjust Thrust as nescesary to minimize altitude loss-Check speed brakes retracted-Recover Flight Path"
  257. "What is the take off rotation rate to prevent tail strike:"
    "3 degrees per second to 15 degrees."
  258. "What is the TCAS proceudre:"
    "- AP off
  259. "Below what altitde are RAs inhibited?"
    "900 feet."
  260. "EGPWS escape Manuever:"Terrain - PULL UP""
    "  -AP off-Pitch - Pull up (full)-Thrust - TOGA- SPEED BRAKES - Check (retracted)- Bank - Wings Level. "
  261. "What does THR LOCK on FMAand/orENG 1(2) THRUST LOCKED ECAMmean"
    "-Dispalyed following a disconnection of the Auto Thrust through the FCU.-Thrust is frozen until the levers are moved."
  262. "Where is RVSM airspace?"
    "FL 290 to 410"
  263. "If an aircraft has an CAT III required item on deferral
    can it be dispatched to execute a CAT II approach."
  264. "what fuel is entered in the RTE RSV / % block of the FMCG INIT page for flag operations?"
    "10 PCT"
  265. "If an aircraft has an CAT III required item on deferral
    can it be dispatched to execute a CAT II approach."
  266. "NON ETOPS 1 hour rule:"
    "aircraft must remain within one hour of an adequate airport. 406 NM"
  267. "What should be done after selecting TOGA on a go arround.(particularly important on an RNP Approach)."
    "PUSH NAVThis will insure the aircraft stay on the GA Track
  268. "When is TOGA to NAV required to conduct an RNP approach."
    "When the MDA is located on an RF leg.(it will be noted on chart)"
  269. "What is the proper Pitch Attitude for an engine failure after/Durring Take off"
    "12.5 degrees"
  270. "Initial V1 cut procedure:"
    "- Rotate to 12.5 degrees-Center Beta Target-Trim out rudder load-Auto pilot on (above 100 feet)."
  271. "When Can a Cat II approach be flown?"
    "but it cant be dispatched that way.When recovering from an inflight anomoly. (Otherwise a full Cat III would be applicable.)The QRH directs the pilots to apply CAT II procedures only when restricted by status. (i.e. fail passive) but it cant be dispatcjhed that way."
  272. "What is the basic difference for a CAT II approach over a CAT III"
    "A cat II apprach will have a visibility minimum and requirement
  273. "For CAT II and CAT III approaches
    the 100 above call is based on the"
  274. "What is "Alert
    " on a CAT III approach"
  275. "What 2 FMA conditions must be verified by the FMA during a CAT II/III landing?"
    "FLARE - in no flare Go Arround.ROLL OUT - If no rollout
  276. "Single Engine Landings may only be conducted with the auto pilot..."
    "... on an ILS or LOC approach."
  277. "What is the NOSE LOW unusaul attidue recovery procedure?"
    "- Reduce Thrust-Roll level-Pitch up with caustion"
  278. "What is the NOSE HIGH unusual attitude recovery procedure?"
    "-Apply Thrust- Induce Roll to alleviate pitch and add load-Reduce Pitch."
  279. "TCAS RA Procedire"
    "- Auto Pilot off-Flight Directors off"
  280. "When is Engine Anti Ice Required on the Ground?"
    "When Icing conditions exist or are anticipated
  281. "When is Engine Anti Ice Required in a Decent?"
    "Before or During a Descent in Icing Conditions (10 TAT degrees C in visiible moisture) even if SAT is below -40"
  282. "A320 LASHO restrictions:"
    "1.) Landing distance at least 60002.)weather better than 1 SM and 3K3.) No tail Wind4.) Dry Runway(more in QRH
  283. "What is the Runway Crossing Rule:"
    "... Prohibited from performing FMS programming
  284. "What is the procedure for Fuel Transfer"
    "QRH DirectedFuel Cross Feed ON - Pumps on lighter side and Center OFF"
  285. "Which hydraulic system operates the slats"
    "Blue "
  286. "If an aircraft has an CAT III required item on deferral
    can it be dispatched to execute a CAT II approach."
  287. "what is the maximum power setting for breakaway thrust for taxiing?"
    "40 % N1"
  288. "Who completes the receiving check list?"
    "Captain."
  289. "When is the receiving checklist completed."
    "When Receiving a powered aircraft
  290. "At what N2 value does the start. alive close and igniter disengage?"
    "42%"
  291. "what is the maximum N2( Core) value for starter engagement?"
    "below 10% on groundbelow 18% in flight."
  292. "what is the tolerance for the rudder trim in the after star flow?"
    "+\- .3"
  293. "does the wing anti ice work on the ground?"
    "the valves open for a 30 second test sequence
  294. "can a APU bleed take off be performed if wing anti ice is required?"
    "no."
  295. "what go-around altitude do you set or all visual procedures?"
    "1500 ft AFE"
  296. "what minimums do you set for CVFP and RNAV Visual approaches"
    "500 ft. AFE"
  297. "when are we required to verbalize the max take off weight and verify it is below MTOW
    as well as above min take off fuel."
  298. ""
    "Back"
  299. ""
    "Back"
  300. "How long is a release valid?"
    "from 1 hour before to 3 hours after the ETD listed on the release for all operations
  301. "what is the difference between IMMED and DCT when exiting a hold?"
    "IMMED turns to fix inside the hold and maintains holding speed until passing it. DIR will make shortest turn and accelerate to cruise."
  302. "when will the CA/FO priority lights flash?"
    "during dual input and neither pilot as taken control."
  303. ""
    "Back"
  304. "when is auto pitch trim inhibited?"
    "1.) RA below 50(100 w/ap)2.) LF >1.25 or <.53.)during high speed protection.4.) using manual trim"
  305. "what happens in the alpha port range?"
    "1.) AP disconnect2.) nose up trim inhibited.3.) speed brakes retract4.) pitch control goes direct."
  306. "when is the low energy warning inhibited?"
    "1) TOGA2) RA below 100/ above 20003) alpha floor or GPWS warning4) alternate or direct law.5) both RA fail7) flaps less than 1."
  307. "when will "priority left/right" aural be annunciated."
    "each time priority is taken."
  308. "when will the red arrow above the priority light illuminate?"
    "when priority has been taken by other pilot."
  309. "how is a soft go around executed?"
    "set TOGA
  310. "singe engine go around anomaly."
    "SRS target may reference speed at engine failure. during GA engagement
  311. ""
    "Back"
  312. "A321 minimum and emergency fuel:"
    "5900 min4400 emergency"
  313. "A320suggested threshold for low pack flow"
    "below 115 Pax"
  314. "A321threshold for ECON pack flow"
    "140 core115 premium"
  315. "does jetBlue use auto function on seat belts?"
    "No."
  316. "additional FCOM CDA restriction added:"
    "Cannot execute CDA if GA altitude is below published FAF crossing altitude."
  317. "A321 max landing weight"
    "171
  318. "wax cross wind "
    "38 KTS gust included"
  319. " "
    "Back"
  320. "what action is required before you can activate a secondary flight plan."
    "you must select heading mode by pulling heading."
  321. ""
    "Back"
  322. "what two conditions will cause emergency lighting to illuminate with switch in ARM."
    "all lighting will loss of normal electrical power. exit signs with excessive cabin altitude."
  323. "After takeoff
    when does NAV mode engage"
  324. "During a managed descent
    what happens if HDG is pulled?"
  325. "how do you disengage TOGA lock?"
    "you must disengage auto thrust."
  326. "Under what flight control law is Alpha Floor available?"
    "Normal law only.remember; there is no alpha protection range under alternate law
  327. "what light illuminates when an APU auto shit down occurs?"
    "AMBERAPU FAULT under the master switch
  328. "Battery faultlight indicates:"
    "there is an internal problem with the battery or battery charging system
  329. "why can't a CDA be flown when the GA altitude is lower than the FAF crossing altitude?"
    "because the GA altitude will be set at the FAF
  330. "if both a LOC and GS angle are published on a chart
    which do you use for a CDA?"
  331. "what are The 2 CDA rules?"
    "1) must have a published angle. ( rounded up.)2) no modification after FAF."
  332. "what is the difference between the MDA and DH block on the FMCG perf screen."
    "MDA references barometric altitude for MDAs
  333. "starter limits"
    "2 min on15 sec off2 min on15 sec off1 min on 30 min off"
  334. "what is the maximum speed brake angle with autopilot on for the A321"
    "full"
  335. "RNAV approach rule"
    "cannot use FINAL APP if MAP. is located before runway
  336. "what validity checks must you make on a TLR before you can use the DATA."
    "the actual OAT must not be more the 10 degrees less than the planned OATthe actual QNH must not be more than .10 inches less than the planned QNH."
  337. "what minimums are used for an RNAV approach?"
    "published MDA with note for authorized users. otherwise MDA+50."
  338. "How is the flex temp determined when using TLR data?"
    "find the MTOW for your calculated weight
  339. "what are the two conditions that require using a derived MDA?"
    "1) all CDAs2) an RNAV approach without the authorized users note."
  340. "how is the landing altitude set via the selector on the cabin pressure panel?"
    "pull the selector to put the system in semi-automatic mode
  341. "what are the three restrictions for a CDA Approach"
    "1.) no step downs between FAF and MAP.2.) no VDP after MAP.3.) GA altitude no less than FAF crossing altitude."
  342. "A321what is the function of the Econ flow?"
    "on: a reduced low
  343. "why can't a CDA be flown with a step after the FAF."
    "because it will interrupt the constant angle of descent."
  344. "what is indicated when the IDG fault light remains illuminated after disconnect."
    "an overheat condition exists
  345. "why can't a CDA be flown with a VDP after the FAF?"
    "because the approach anticipates a level off at MDA prior to the MAP."
  346. "when do the green CA/FO lights flash?"
    "when a dualinput condition is present and neither pilot takes priority."
  347. "Area ATIS winds true or magnetic?"
    "ATIS and tower winds are magnetic and are appropriate for aero data entry.METARS are true "
  348. "when do the green CA/FO flight control lights illuminate independently."
    "the green light will illuminate I front of the pilot who has assumed priority
  349. "how long is max take off thrust permitted after take off"
    "10 minutes."
  350. "what do the DISCH 1 and DISCH 2 light next to the cargo agent bottles indicate?"
    "they illuminate when the respective bottle has low pressure."
  351. "what does DISCH AGENT 2 indicate?"
    "it is a reminder to discharge the second cargo bottle
  352. "when is the appropriate time to interrupt and ECAM procedure to execute a normal checklist?"
    "before briefing the status page: by saying "Stop ECAM ...""
  353. "when will DISCH AGENT 2 Light extinguish?"
    "when agent 2 is discharged."
  354. "can autopilot be engaged after a side sticklockout?"
    "yes"
  355. "speed brakes will auto retract for what flap setting on the A320"
    "full"
  356. "non normal philosophy sequence:"
    "1) maintain aircraft control2) memory items3) QRC. (bypass items?)4.) asses the situation5.) captain assigns FP in flight6) PM: performs ECAM7) reference QRH8) develop plan9) communicate10.) revise if required."
  357. "speed brakes will auto retract at what flap setting on the a321"
    "flaps 3"
  358. "tailwind / crosswind > 20takeoff procedure:"
    "full forward stick1) power to 50 % N12) keep full stick until 80neutral by 100"
  359. "what happens in the ALPHA prot range?"
    "A S A PALPHA protection- auto pilot disconnects-speed brakes retract-Sidestick to AOA - auto trimming stops."

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