rAD rEVIEW eASY

Card Set Information

Author:
McCrae
ID:
294370
Filename:
rAD rEVIEW eASY
Updated:
2015-01-31 02:12:14
Tags:
rAD rEVIEW eASY
Folders:

Description:
rAD rEVIEW eASY
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user McCrae on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Which of the following artifacts is occasionally associated with the use of grids in digital imaging?

    A Incomplete erasure 
    B Aliasing 
    C Image fading 
    D Vignetting
    A
  2. In 1906, Bergonié and Tribondeau theorized that undifferentiated cells are highly radiosensitive. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of undifferentiated cells?
    1-Young cells
    2-Highly mitotic cells
    3-Precursor cells
    • A- 1 only  
    • B-1 and 2 only  
    • C- 1 and 3 only  
    • D- 1, 2, and 3
  3. According to the NCRP, the annual occupational dose-equivalent limit (50 rem) to the thyroid, skin, and extremities is

    A 50 mSv  
    B 150 mSv  
    C 500 mSv  
    D 1,500 mSv
    c
  4. Which of the following terms refers to the period between conception and birth? 
    A Gestation  
    B Congenital  
    C Neonatal  
    D In vitro
    a
  5. Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

    A AP  
    B PA  
    C RPO  
    D LPO
    d
  6. With milliamperage adjusted to produce equal exposures, all the following statements are true except 

    A a single-phase examination done at 10 mAs can be duplicated with three-phase, 12-pulse at 5 mAs.  

    B There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment. 

     C Three-phase equipment can produce comparable radiographs with less heat unit (HU) buildup.  

    D Three-phase equipment produces lower-contrast radiographs than single-phase equipment.
    b
  7. A diuretic is used to 

    A induce vomiting  
    B stimulate defecation  
    C increase urine output  
    D inhibit coughing
    c
  8. The moral principle that describes the radiographer's aspiration to do no harm or to allow no act that might cause harm to the patient is termed 

    A beneficence.  
    B nonmaleficence.  
    C autonomy.  
    D veracity.
    b
  9. In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?




     
    Occipital bone 



     
    Frontal bone 



     
    Facial bones 



     
    Basal foramina
    a
  10. During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be




     
    protected from injury. 



     
    placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. 



     
    allowed to thrash freely. 



     
    given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.
    A
  11. Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons?

    1. To promote rapid response

    2. To administer parenteral nutrition

    3. To achieve a local effect






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  12. The reduction in x-ray photon intensity as the photon passes through a material is termed




     
    absorption. 



     
    scattering. 



     
    attenuation. 



     
    divergence.
    C
  13. Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?




     
    Nephrotomography 



     
    Retrograde urography 



     
    Cystourethrography 



     
    IVU
    B
  14. Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal recorded detail?




     
    Anterior 



     
    Posterior 



     
    Medial 



     
    Lateral
    C
  15. Linear energy transfer (LET) may be best described as




     
    the amount of energy delivered per distance traveled in tissue. 



     
    the unit of absorbed dose. 



     
    radiation equivalent man. 



     
    radiation absorbed dose.
    A
  16. Which combination of exposure factors most likely will contribute to producing the shortest-scale contrast?




     
    mAs: 10; kV: 70; Film–screen system: 400; Grid ratio: 5:1; Field size: 14 × 17 in. 



     
    mAs: 12; kV: 90; Film–screen system: 200; Grid ratio: 8:1; Field size: 14 × 17 in. 



     
    mAs: 15; kV: 90; Film–screen system: 200; Grid ratio: 12:1; Field size: 11 × 14 in. 



     
    mAs: 20; kV: 80; Film–screen system: 400; Grid ratio: 10:1; Field size: 8 × 10 in.
    D
  17. Which of the following will influence recorded detail?

    1. Screen speed

    2. Screen–film contact

    3. Focal spot






     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  18. If a lateral projection of the chest is being performed on an asthenic patient and the outer photocells are selected, what is likely to be the outcome?




     
    Decreased density 



     
    Increased density 



     
    Scattered radiation fog 



     
    Motion blur
    A
  19. Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in which of the following positions?




     
    Erect 



     
    Recumbent 



     
    Fowler 



     
    Sims
    B
  20. The structure labeled number 3 in Figure 2–39 is the




    Reproduced, with permission, from Doherty GM, ed. Current Surgical Diagnosis & Treatment, 12th ed. New York: McGraw-Hill, 2006:824.






     
    left subclavian artery 



     
    brachiocephalic artery 



     
    right common carotid artery 



     
    left vertebral artery
    D
  21. Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using




     
    a pinhole camera 



     
    a star pattern 



     
    radiopaque objects 



     
    a slit camera
    C
  22. Exposure-type artifacts include

    1. poor screen–film contact

    2. motion

    3. chemical fog






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  23. Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?




     
    BE 



     
    Upper GI 



     
    IVU 



     
    Bone survey
    C
  24. The practice that is used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria is termed




     
    antisepsis. 



     
    disinfection. 



     
    sterilization. 



     
    medical asepsis.
    A
  25. The cycle of infection includes which of the following components?

    1. Reservoir of infection

    2. Susceptible host

    3. Means of transmission






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  26. A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include

    1. a few hives

    2. nausea

    3. a flushed face






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  27. In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct modifying factor (rad × QF) is used to determine




     
    roentgen (C/kg) 



     
    rem (Sv) 



     
    curie (Cu) 



     
    radiation quality
    B
  28. Examples of primary radiation barriers include

    1. radiographic room walls

    2. lead aprons

    3. radiographic room floor






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  29. Which of the following terms refers to light being reflected from one intensifying screen, through the film, to the opposite emulsion and intensifying screen?




     
    Reflectance 



     
    Crossover 



     
    Scatter 



     
    Filtration
    B
  30. The act of expiration will cause the

    1. diaphragm to move inferiorly

    2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly

    3. diaphragm to move superiorly






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  31. A dose of 25 rad to the fetus during the fourth or fifth week of pregnancy is more likely to cause which of the following:




     
    Spontaneous abortion 



     
    skeletal anomalies 



     
    neurologic anomalies 



     
    organogenesis
    B
  32. What is the effect on RBE as LET increases?




     
    As LET increases, RBE increases. 



     
    As LET increases, RBE decreases. 



     
    As LET increases, RBE stabilizes. 



     
    LET has no effect on RBE.
    A
  33. Which of the following affects both radiographic density and intensifying screen speed?

    1. Thickness of phosphor layer

    2. Type of phosphors used

    3. Thickness of spongy screen support






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  34. Types of gonadal shielding include which of the following?

    1. Flat contact

    2. Shaped contact (contour)

    3. Shadow






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  35. Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body?




     
    Decreases pain 



     
    Helps delay clotting 



     
    Increases urine output 



     
    Combats bacterial growth
    D
  36. Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?




     
    IV urogram 



     
    Retrograde pyelogram 



     
    Voiding cystourethrogram 



     
    Nephrotomogram
    C
  37. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of




     
    invasion of privacy. 



     
    slander. 



     
    libel. 



     
    defamation.
    A
  38. An exposure was made using 8 mAs and 60 kV. If the kilovoltage was changed to 70 to obtain longer-scale contrast, what new milliampere-seconds value is required to maintain density?




     




     




     
    16 



     
    32
    B
  39. What is likely to occur if 25 rad is accidentally delivered to a recently fertilized ovum?




     
    Skeletal anomalies 



     
    CNS anomalies 



     
    Spontaneous abortion 



     
    Childhood malignancy
    C
  40. Which of the positions illustrated below would best demonstrate the cervical pedicles?


















    1. A.
    2. B.
    3. C.






     
    1 only 



     
    2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    2 and 3 only
    C
  41. The hard palate is formed by the
    1. ethmoid bone.
    2. maxillary bone.
    3. palatine bone.





     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  42. The radiograph shown in Figure 5–5 was made using a








     
    three-phase, 6-pulse rectified unit 



     
    three-phase, 12-pulse rectified unit 



     
    single-phase, full-wave rectified unit 



     
    high-frequency rectified unit
    C
  43. Types of inflammatory bowel disease include

    1. ulcerative colitis.

    2. Crohn's disease.

    3. intussusception.






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  44. Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile technique?




     
    Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms. 



     
    Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level. 



     
    Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face. 



     
    A sterile field should not be left unattended.
    C
  45. Irradiation of macromolecules in vitro can result in

    1. main-chain scission

    2. cross-linking

    3. point lesions






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  46. When interviewing a patient, what is it that the health care professional can observe?




     
    Symptoms 



     
    History 



     
    Objective signs 



     
    Chief complaint
    C
  47. The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is the




     
    capacitor 



     
    grid 



     
    cathode 



     
    anode
    D
  48. Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8–10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation?

    1. Abdominal survey

    2. Upper GI series

    3. BE






     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  49. The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce




     
    patient skin dose 



     
    operator exposure 



     
    scattered radiation 



     
    image noise
    A
  50. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy?

    1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason.

    2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated.

    3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between.






     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  51. If the exposure rate to a body standing 3 feet from a radiation source is 12 mR/min, what will be the exposure rate to that body at a distance of 7 feet from the source?




     
    2.2 mR/min 



     
    5.1 mR/min 



     
    28 mR/min 



     
    36 mR/min
    A
  52. With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate?




     
    Manubrium 



     
    Coracoid process 



     
    Coronoid process 



     
    Acromion process
    D
  53. Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a




     
    secondary barrier 



     
    primary barrier 



     
    leakage barrier 



     
    scattered barrier
    B
  54. Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing

    1. the SID

    2. the OID

    3. patient/part motion






     
    1 only 



     
    3 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  55. In which of the following procedures is quiet, shallow breathing recommended during the exposure to obliterate prominent pulmonary vascular markings?

    1. RAO sternum

    2. Lateral thoracic spine

    3. AP scapula






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  56. Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

    1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.

    2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.

    3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  57. Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive?




     
    Myelocytes 



     
    Myocytes 



     
    Megakaryocytes 



     
    Erythroblasts
    B
  58. When the erect position is requested as part of an IVU, it is used to demonstrate




     
    the adrenal glands. 



     
    the renal surfaces. 



     
    kidney mobility. 



     
    the bladder neck.
    C
  59. Which of the following factors influence(s) the production of scattered radiation?

    1. Kilovoltage level

    2. Tissue density

    3. Size of field






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  60. Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam?

    1. Half-value layer (HVL)

    2. Kilovolts (kV)

    3. Milliamperes (mA)






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  61. Isotopes are atoms that have the same




     
    mass number but a different atomic number 



     
    atomic number but a different mass number 



     
    mass number but a different neutron number 



     
    atomic number and mass number
    B
  62. Geometric unsharpness is most likely to be greater




     
    at long SIDs. 



     
    at the anode end of the image. 



     
    with small focal spots. 



     
    at the cathode end of the image.
    D
  63. Ipecac is a medication used to induce vomiting and is classified as a(n)




     
    diuretic. 



     
    antipyretic. 



     
    antihistamine. 



     
    emetic.
    D
  64. A quality-control (QC) program includes checks on which of the following radiographic equipment conditions?

    1. Reproducibility

    2. Linearity

    3. Positive beam limitation/automatic collimation






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  65. IRs/cassettes frequently have a lead-foil layer behind the rear screen that functions to




     
    improve penetration 



     
    absorb backscatter 



     
    preserve resolution 



     
    increase the screen speed
    B
  66. The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the

    1. advance health care directive.

    2. living will.

    3. health care proxy.






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  67. Before bringing a patient in the radiographic room, the radiographer should
    1. clean the x-ray table and change the pillowcase.
    2. assemble the accessories needed for the examination.
    3. warm the x-ray tube anode.





     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  68. For exposure to 1 rad of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result in the greatest dose to the individual?




     
    External source of 1-MeV x-rays 



     
    External source of diagnostic x-rays 



     
    Internal source of alpha particles 



     
    External source of beta particles
    C
  69. Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements?

    1. Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees.

    2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles.

    3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick.






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  70. Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?




     
    Moving mandible position 



     
    AP open-mouth projection 



     
    Flexion and extension laterals 



     
    AP right and left bending
    C
  71. How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the SID is doubled?




     
    Its intensity increases two times. 



     
    Its intensity increases four times. 



     
    Its intensity decreases two times. 



     
    Its intensity decreases four times.
    D
  72. Which of the following adult radiographic examinations usually require(s) use of a grid?

    1. Ribs

    2. Vertebrae

    3. Shoulder






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  73. The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following?




     
    Let the master answer. 



     
    The thing speaks for itself. 



     
    A thing or matter settled by justice. 



     
    A matter settled by precedent.
    B
  74. Referring to the nomogram in Figure 3–3, what is the approximate patient ESE from an AP projection of the abdomen made at 105 cm using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 200 ms, and 2.5 mm Al total filtration?




    Reproduced, with permission, from McCullough EC, Cameron JR. Exposure rates from diagnostic x-ray units. Br J Radiol 1970;43:448–451.






     
    5 mR 



     
    166 mR 



     
    245 mR 



     
    288 mR
    D
  75. Which of the following statements referring to Figure 7–11 is (are) correct?

    1. Image A was performed AP.

    2. Image B was performed AP.

    3. The AP image was obtained using ureteral compression.









    Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology.






     
    1 only 



     
    2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    2 and 3 only
    B
  76. Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2–14?








     
    PA axial projection (Caldwell method) 



     
    Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) 



     
    Lateral projection 



     
    Submentovertical projection
    B
  77. Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about




     
    11/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip 



     
    11/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip 



     
    3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip 



     
    3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip
    A
  78. Which of the following body parts is (are) included in whole-body dose?

    1. Gonads

    2. Blood-forming organs

    3. Extremities






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  79. Which of the dose–response curves shown in Figure 6–2 illustrate(s) illustrates a linear relationship between dose and response?

    1. Curve number 1

    2. Curve number 2

    3. Curve number 3










     
    1 only 



     
    2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  80. Grid cutoff due to off-centering would result in




     
    overall loss of density 



     
    both sides of the image being underexposed 



     
    overexposure under the anode end 



     
    underexposure under the anode end
    A
  81. Which of the following diastolic pressure readings might indicate hypertension?




     
    40 mm Hg 



     
    60 mm Hg 



     
    80 mm Hg 



     
    100 mm Hg
    D
  82. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?















    1. Scapular Y projection
    2. Inferosuperior axial
    3. Transthoracic lateral






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  83. LET is best defined as

    1. a method of expressing radiation quality

    2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue

    3. absorption of polyenergetic radiation






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  84. Replacing 200-speed intensifying screens with 400-speed screens will

    1. require the exposure to be cut in half.

    2. enable the radiographer to decrease the exposure time.

    3. increase the production of scattered radiation.






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  85. The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate




     
    the duodenal loop 



     
    filling of the duodenal bulb 



     
    hiatal hernia 



     
    hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
    C
  86. Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in




     
    sonography 



     
    computed tomography (CT) 



     
    magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 



     
    nuclear medicine
    C
  87. The CR should be directed to the center of the part of greatest interest to avoid




     
    rotation distortion 



     
    magnification 



     
    foreshortening 



     
    elongation
    A
  88. A test pattern, such as the TG 18-CT test pattern, is used to qualitatively evaluate




     
    Radiographic film-screen contact 



     
    The luminance response of a digital display monitor 



     
    The X-ray exposure field alignment 



     
    The exposure rate in an X-ray beam
    B
  89. If obtaining multiple images on one image plate, it is important to:




     
    Allow for X-ray tube cooling between successive exposures 



     
    Avoid shielding of the image plate at all times to avoid field recognition errors 



     
    Properly shield each exposed and unexposed area during the imaging of each individual image 



     
    Expose the AP or PA projection in the right lower portion of the image plate
    C
  90. :
    During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate

    1. the filling of the ureters

    2. the renal pelvis

    3. the superior calyces






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  91. Which of the following is an inappropriate manner of speaking to a patient?




     
    "Are you warm enough?" 



     
    "Do you have any questions about this examination?" 



     
    "I have several other patients, so please change quickly." 



     
    "Can I help you out of the chair?"
    C
  92. The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that cells are more radiosensitive if they are

    1. highly proliferative

    2. highly differentiated

    3. immature






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    1 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  93. Which of the following is a measurement of dose to biologic tissue?




     
    Roentgen (C/kg) 



     
    Rad (Gy) 



     
    Rem (Sv) 



     
    RBE
    C
  94. What venous device can be used for a patient requiring IV injections at frequent or regular intervals?




     
    Butterfly needle 



     
    Heparin lock 



     
    IV infusion 



     
    Hypodermic needle
    B
  95. Each of the following is an example of a fomite except




     
    a doorknob. 



     
    a tick. 



     
    a spoon. 



     
    an x-ray table.
    B
  96. Hospitals and other health care providers must ensure patient confidentiality in compliance with which of the following legislation?




     
    MQSA 



     
    MRSA 



     
    HIPAA 



     
    HIPPA
    C
  97. As the image intensifier's FOV is reduced, how is the resulting image affected?















    1. Magnification increases
    2. Brightness decreases
    3. Quality increases






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  98. If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following?















    1. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.
    2. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops.
    3. Apply warm, moist heat.






     
    1 only 



     
    1 and 2 only 



     
    2 and 3 only 



     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  99. Which of the following will produce the most significant increase in patient dose?




     
    Decreased mAs 



     
    Decreased SID 



     
    Increased filtration 



     
    Increased kVp
    B
  100. The most radiosensitive portion of the GI tract is the




     
    upper esophagus 



     
    stomach 



     
    small bowel 



     
    cecum and ascending colon
    C
  101. All the following are central venous lines except




     
    a Port-a-Cath. 



     
    a PICC. 



     
    a Swan–Ganz catheter. 



     
    a Salem-sump.
    D
  102. What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a 0.5-mm lead-equivalent apron at 75 kVp provide?




     
    51% 



     
    66% 



     
    75% 



     
    88%
    D

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview