rAD rEVIEW eASY

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  1. Which of the following artifacts is occasionally associated with the use of grids in digital imaging?

    A Incomplete erasure 
    B Aliasing 
    C Image fading 
    D Vignetting
    A
  2. In 1906, Bergonié and Tribondeau theorized that undifferentiated cells are highly radiosensitive. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of undifferentiated cells?
    1-Young cells
    2-Highly mitotic cells
    3-Precursor cells
    • A- 1 only  
    • B-1 and 2 only  
    • C- 1 and 3 only  
    • D- 1, 2, and 3
  3. According to the NCRP, the annual occupational dose-equivalent limit (50 rem) to the thyroid, skin, and extremities is

    A 50 mSv  
    B 150 mSv  
    C 500 mSv  
    D 1,500 mSv
    c
  4. Which of the following terms refers to the period between conception and birth? 
    A Gestation  
    B Congenital  
    C Neonatal  
    D In vitro
    a
  5. Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

    A AP  
    B PA  
    C RPO  
    D LPO
    d
  6. With milliamperage adjusted to produce equal exposures, all the following statements are true except 

    A a single-phase examination done at 10 mAs can be duplicated with three-phase, 12-pulse at 5 mAs.  

    B There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment. 

     C Three-phase equipment can produce comparable radiographs with less heat unit (HU) buildup.  

    D Three-phase equipment produces lower-contrast radiographs than single-phase equipment.
    b
  7. A diuretic is used to 

    A induce vomiting  
    B stimulate defecation  
    C increase urine output  
    D inhibit coughing
    c
  8. The moral principle that describes the radiographer's aspiration to do no harm or to allow no act that might cause harm to the patient is termed 

    A beneficence.  
    B nonmaleficence.  
    C autonomy.  
    D veracity.
    b
  9. In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?



    A
     
    Occipital bone 


    B
     
    Frontal bone 


    C
     
    Facial bones 


    D
     
    Basal foramina
    a
  10. During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be



    A
     
    protected from injury. 


    B
     
    placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. 


    C
     
    allowed to thrash freely. 


    D
     
    given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.
    A
  11. Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons?

    1. To promote rapid response

    2. To administer parenteral nutrition

    3. To achieve a local effect





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  12. The reduction in x-ray photon intensity as the photon passes through a material is termed



    A
     
    absorption. 


    B
     
    scattering. 


    C
     
    attenuation. 


    D
     
    divergence.
    C
  13. Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?



    A
     
    Nephrotomography 


    B
     
    Retrograde urography 


    C
     
    Cystourethrography 


    D
     
    IVU
    B
  14. Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal recorded detail?



    A
     
    Anterior 


    B
     
    Posterior 


    C
     
    Medial 


    D
     
    Lateral
    C
  15. Linear energy transfer (LET) may be best described as



    A
     
    the amount of energy delivered per distance traveled in tissue. 


    B
     
    the unit of absorbed dose. 


    C
     
    radiation equivalent man. 


    D
     
    radiation absorbed dose.
    A
  16. Which combination of exposure factors most likely will contribute to producing the shortest-scale contrast?



    A
     
    mAs: 10; kV: 70; Film–screen system: 400; Grid ratio: 5:1; Field size: 14 × 17 in. 


    B
     
    mAs: 12; kV: 90; Film–screen system: 200; Grid ratio: 8:1; Field size: 14 × 17 in. 


    C
     
    mAs: 15; kV: 90; Film–screen system: 200; Grid ratio: 12:1; Field size: 11 × 14 in. 


    D
     
    mAs: 20; kV: 80; Film–screen system: 400; Grid ratio: 10:1; Field size: 8 × 10 in.
    D
  17. Which of the following will influence recorded detail?

    1. Screen speed

    2. Screen–film contact

    3. Focal spot





    A
     
    1 and 2 only 


    B
     
    1 and 3 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  18. If a lateral projection of the chest is being performed on an asthenic patient and the outer photocells are selected, what is likely to be the outcome?



    A
     
    Decreased density 


    B
     
    Increased density 


    C
     
    Scattered radiation fog 


    D
     
    Motion blur
    A
  19. Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in which of the following positions?



    A
     
    Erect 


    B
     
    Recumbent 


    C
     
    Fowler 


    D
     
    Sims
    B
  20. The structure labeled number 3 in Figure 2–39 is the

    Image Upload 1


    Reproduced, with permission, from Doherty GM, ed. Current Surgical Diagnosis & Treatment, 12th ed. New York: McGraw-Hill, 2006:824.





    A
     
    left subclavian artery 


    B
     
    brachiocephalic artery 


    C
     
    right common carotid artery 


    D
     
    left vertebral artery
    D
  21. Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using



    A
     
    a pinhole camera 


    B
     
    a star pattern 


    C
     
    radiopaque objects 


    D
     
    a slit camera
    C
  22. Exposure-type artifacts include

    1. poor screen–film contact

    2. motion

    3. chemical fog





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  23. Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?



    A
     
    BE 


    B
     
    Upper GI 


    C
     
    IVU 


    D
     
    Bone survey
    C
  24. The practice that is used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria is termed



    A
     
    antisepsis. 


    B
     
    disinfection. 


    C
     
    sterilization. 


    D
     
    medical asepsis.
    A
  25. The cycle of infection includes which of the following components?

    1. Reservoir of infection

    2. Susceptible host

    3. Means of transmission





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  26. A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include

    1. a few hives

    2. nausea

    3. a flushed face





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  27. In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct modifying factor (rad × QF) is used to determine



    A
     
    roentgen (C/kg) 


    B
     
    rem (Sv) 


    C
     
    curie (Cu) 


    D
     
    radiation quality
    B
  28. Examples of primary radiation barriers include

    1. radiographic room walls

    2. lead aprons

    3. radiographic room floor





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  29. Which of the following terms refers to light being reflected from one intensifying screen, through the film, to the opposite emulsion and intensifying screen?



    A
     
    Reflectance 


    B
     
    Crossover 


    C
     
    Scatter 


    D
     
    Filtration
    B
  30. The act of expiration will cause the

    1. diaphragm to move inferiorly

    2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly

    3. diaphragm to move superiorly





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  31. A dose of 25 rad to the fetus during the fourth or fifth week of pregnancy is more likely to cause which of the following:



    A
     
    Spontaneous abortion 


    B
     
    skeletal anomalies 


    C
     
    neurologic anomalies 


    D
     
    organogenesis
    B
  32. What is the effect on RBE as LET increases?



    A
     
    As LET increases, RBE increases. 


    B
     
    As LET increases, RBE decreases. 


    C
     
    As LET increases, RBE stabilizes. 


    D
     
    LET has no effect on RBE.
    A
  33. Which of the following affects both radiographic density and intensifying screen speed?

    1. Thickness of phosphor layer

    2. Type of phosphors used

    3. Thickness of spongy screen support





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  34. Types of gonadal shielding include which of the following?

    1. Flat contact

    2. Shaped contact (contour)

    3. Shadow





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  35. Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body?



    A
     
    Decreases pain 


    B
     
    Helps delay clotting 


    C
     
    Increases urine output 


    D
     
    Combats bacterial growth
    D
  36. Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?



    A
     
    IV urogram 


    B
     
    Retrograde pyelogram 


    C
     
    Voiding cystourethrogram 


    D
     
    Nephrotomogram
    C
  37. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of



    A
     
    invasion of privacy. 


    B
     
    slander. 


    C
     
    libel. 


    D
     
    defamation.
    A
  38. An exposure was made using 8 mAs and 60 kV. If the kilovoltage was changed to 70 to obtain longer-scale contrast, what new milliampere-seconds value is required to maintain density?



    A
     



    B
     



    C
     
    16 


    D
     
    32
    B
  39. What is likely to occur if 25 rad is accidentally delivered to a recently fertilized ovum?



    A
     
    Skeletal anomalies 


    B
     
    CNS anomalies 


    C
     
    Spontaneous abortion 


    D
     
    Childhood malignancy
    C
  40. Which of the positions illustrated below would best demonstrate the cervical pedicles?
    Image Upload 2
    Image Upload 3
    Image Upload 4















    1. A.
    2. B.
    3. C.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    2 and 3 only
    C
  41. The hard palate is formed by the
    1. ethmoid bone.
    2. maxillary bone.
    3. palatine bone.




    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  42. The radiograph shown in Figure 5–5 was made using a

    Image Upload 5





    A
     
    three-phase, 6-pulse rectified unit 


    B
     
    three-phase, 12-pulse rectified unit 


    C
     
    single-phase, full-wave rectified unit 


    D
     
    high-frequency rectified unit
    C
  43. Types of inflammatory bowel disease include

    1. ulcerative colitis.

    2. Crohn's disease.

    3. intussusception.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  44. Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile technique?



    A
     
    Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms. 


    B
     
    Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level. 


    C
     
    Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face. 


    D
     
    A sterile field should not be left unattended.
    C
  45. Irradiation of macromolecules in vitro can result in

    1. main-chain scission

    2. cross-linking

    3. point lesions





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  46. When interviewing a patient, what is it that the health care professional can observe?



    A
     
    Symptoms 


    B
     
    History 


    C
     
    Objective signs 


    D
     
    Chief complaint
    C
  47. The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is the



    A
     
    capacitor 


    B
     
    grid 


    C
     
    cathode 


    D
     
    anode
    D
  48. Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8–10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation?

    1. Abdominal survey

    2. Upper GI series

    3. BE





    A
     
    1 and 2 only 


    B
     
    1 and 3 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  49. The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce



    A
     
    patient skin dose 


    B
     
    operator exposure 


    C
     
    scattered radiation 


    D
     
    image noise
    A
  50. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy?

    1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason.

    2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated.

    3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between.





    A
     
    1 and 2 only 


    B
     
    1 and 3 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  51. If the exposure rate to a body standing 3 feet from a radiation source is 12 mR/min, what will be the exposure rate to that body at a distance of 7 feet from the source?



    A
     
    2.2 mR/min 


    B
     
    5.1 mR/min 


    C
     
    28 mR/min 


    D
     
    36 mR/min
    A
  52. With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate?



    A
     
    Manubrium 


    B
     
    Coracoid process 


    C
     
    Coronoid process 


    D
     
    Acromion process
    D
  53. Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a



    A
     
    secondary barrier 


    B
     
    primary barrier 


    C
     
    leakage barrier 


    D
     
    scattered barrier
    B
  54. Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing

    1. the SID

    2. the OID

    3. patient/part motion





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    3 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  55. In which of the following procedures is quiet, shallow breathing recommended during the exposure to obliterate prominent pulmonary vascular markings?

    1. RAO sternum

    2. Lateral thoracic spine

    3. AP scapula





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  56. Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

    1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.

    2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.

    3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  57. Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive?



    A
     
    Myelocytes 


    B
     
    Myocytes 


    C
     
    Megakaryocytes 


    D
     
    Erythroblasts
    B
  58. When the erect position is requested as part of an IVU, it is used to demonstrate



    A
     
    the adrenal glands. 


    B
     
    the renal surfaces. 


    C
     
    kidney mobility. 


    D
     
    the bladder neck.
    C
  59. Which of the following factors influence(s) the production of scattered radiation?

    1. Kilovoltage level

    2. Tissue density

    3. Size of field





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  60. Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam?

    1. Half-value layer (HVL)

    2. Kilovolts (kV)

    3. Milliamperes (mA)





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  61. Isotopes are atoms that have the same



    A
     
    mass number but a different atomic number 


    B
     
    atomic number but a different mass number 


    C
     
    mass number but a different neutron number 


    D
     
    atomic number and mass number
    B
  62. Geometric unsharpness is most likely to be greater



    A
     
    at long SIDs. 


    B
     
    at the anode end of the image. 


    C
     
    with small focal spots. 


    D
     
    at the cathode end of the image.
    D
  63. Ipecac is a medication used to induce vomiting and is classified as a(n)



    A
     
    diuretic. 


    B
     
    antipyretic. 


    C
     
    antihistamine. 


    D
     
    emetic.
    D
  64. A quality-control (QC) program includes checks on which of the following radiographic equipment conditions?

    1. Reproducibility

    2. Linearity

    3. Positive beam limitation/automatic collimation





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  65. IRs/cassettes frequently have a lead-foil layer behind the rear screen that functions to



    A
     
    improve penetration 


    B
     
    absorb backscatter 


    C
     
    preserve resolution 


    D
     
    increase the screen speed
    B
  66. The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the

    1. advance health care directive.

    2. living will.

    3. health care proxy.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  67. Before bringing a patient in the radiographic room, the radiographer should
    1. clean the x-ray table and change the pillowcase.
    2. assemble the accessories needed for the examination.
    3. warm the x-ray tube anode.




    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  68. For exposure to 1 rad of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result in the greatest dose to the individual?



    A
     
    External source of 1-MeV x-rays 


    B
     
    External source of diagnostic x-rays 


    C
     
    Internal source of alpha particles 


    D
     
    External source of beta particles
    C
  69. Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements?

    1. Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees.

    2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles.

    3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  70. Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?



    A
     
    Moving mandible position 


    B
     
    AP open-mouth projection 


    C
     
    Flexion and extension laterals 


    D
     
    AP right and left bending
    C
  71. How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the SID is doubled?



    A
     
    Its intensity increases two times. 


    B
     
    Its intensity increases four times. 


    C
     
    Its intensity decreases two times. 


    D
     
    Its intensity decreases four times.
    D
  72. Which of the following adult radiographic examinations usually require(s) use of a grid?

    1. Ribs

    2. Vertebrae

    3. Shoulder





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  73. The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following?



    A
     
    Let the master answer. 


    B
     
    The thing speaks for itself. 


    C
     
    A thing or matter settled by justice. 


    D
     
    A matter settled by precedent.
    B
  74. Referring to the nomogram in Figure 3–3, what is the approximate patient ESE from an AP projection of the abdomen made at 105 cm using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 200 ms, and 2.5 mm Al total filtration?

    Image Upload 6


    Reproduced, with permission, from McCullough EC, Cameron JR. Exposure rates from diagnostic x-ray units. Br J Radiol 1970;43:448–451.





    A
     
    5 mR 


    B
     
    166 mR 


    C
     
    245 mR 


    D
     
    288 mR
    D
  75. Which of the following statements referring to Figure 7–11 is (are) correct?

    1. Image A was performed AP.

    2. Image B was performed AP.

    3. The AP image was obtained using ureteral compression.



    Image Upload 7


    Image Upload 8


    Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    2 and 3 only
    B
  76. Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2–14?

    Image Upload 9





    A
     
    PA axial projection (Caldwell method) 


    B
     
    Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) 


    C
     
    Lateral projection 


    D
     
    Submentovertical projection
    B
  77. Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about



    A
     
    11/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip 


    B
     
    11/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip 


    C
     
    3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip 


    D
     
    3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip
    A
  78. Which of the following body parts is (are) included in whole-body dose?

    1. Gonads

    2. Blood-forming organs

    3. Extremities





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  79. Which of the dose–response curves shown in Figure 6–2 illustrate(s) illustrates a linear relationship between dose and response?

    1. Curve number 1

    2. Curve number 2

    3. Curve number 3



    Image Upload 10





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  80. Grid cutoff due to off-centering would result in



    A
     
    overall loss of density 


    B
     
    both sides of the image being underexposed 


    C
     
    overexposure under the anode end 


    D
     
    underexposure under the anode end
    A
  81. Which of the following diastolic pressure readings might indicate hypertension?



    A
     
    40 mm Hg 


    B
     
    60 mm Hg 


    C
     
    80 mm Hg 


    D
     
    100 mm Hg
    D
  82. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?















    1. Scapular Y projection
    2. Inferosuperior axial
    3. Transthoracic lateral





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  83. LET is best defined as

    1. a method of expressing radiation quality

    2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue

    3. absorption of polyenergetic radiation





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  84. Replacing 200-speed intensifying screens with 400-speed screens will

    1. require the exposure to be cut in half.

    2. enable the radiographer to decrease the exposure time.

    3. increase the production of scattered radiation.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  85. The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate



    A
     
    the duodenal loop 


    B
     
    filling of the duodenal bulb 


    C
     
    hiatal hernia 


    D
     
    hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
    C
  86. Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in



    A
     
    sonography 


    B
     
    computed tomography (CT) 


    C
     
    magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 


    D
     
    nuclear medicine
    C
  87. The CR should be directed to the center of the part of greatest interest to avoid



    A
     
    rotation distortion 


    B
     
    magnification 


    C
     
    foreshortening 


    D
     
    elongation
    A
  88. A test pattern, such as the TG 18-CT test pattern, is used to qualitatively evaluate



    A
     
    Radiographic film-screen contact 


    B
     
    The luminance response of a digital display monitor 


    C
     
    The X-ray exposure field alignment 


    D
     
    The exposure rate in an X-ray beam
    B
  89. If obtaining multiple images on one image plate, it is important to:



    A
     
    Allow for X-ray tube cooling between successive exposures 


    B
     
    Avoid shielding of the image plate at all times to avoid field recognition errors 


    C
     
    Properly shield each exposed and unexposed area during the imaging of each individual image 


    D
     
    Expose the AP or PA projection in the right lower portion of the image plate
    C
  90. :
    During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate

    1. the filling of the ureters

    2. the renal pelvis

    3. the superior calyces





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    B
  91. Which of the following is an inappropriate manner of speaking to a patient?



    A
     
    "Are you warm enough?" 


    B
     
    "Do you have any questions about this examination?" 


    C
     
    "I have several other patients, so please change quickly." 


    D
     
    "Can I help you out of the chair?"
    C
  92. The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that cells are more radiosensitive if they are

    1. highly proliferative

    2. highly differentiated

    3. immature





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    1 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  93. Which of the following is a measurement of dose to biologic tissue?



    A
     
    Roentgen (C/kg) 


    B
     
    Rad (Gy) 


    C
     
    Rem (Sv) 


    D
     
    RBE
    C
  94. What venous device can be used for a patient requiring IV injections at frequent or regular intervals?



    A
     
    Butterfly needle 


    B
     
    Heparin lock 


    C
     
    IV infusion 


    D
     
    Hypodermic needle
    B
  95. Each of the following is an example of a fomite except



    A
     
    a doorknob. 


    B
     
    a tick. 


    C
     
    a spoon. 


    D
     
    an x-ray table.
    B
  96. Hospitals and other health care providers must ensure patient confidentiality in compliance with which of the following legislation?



    A
     
    MQSA 


    B
     
    MRSA 


    C
     
    HIPAA 


    D
     
    HIPPA
    C
  97. As the image intensifier's FOV is reduced, how is the resulting image affected?















    1. Magnification increases
    2. Brightness decreases
    3. Quality increases





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    D
  98. If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following?















    1. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.
    2. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops.
    3. Apply warm, moist heat.





    A
     
    1 only 


    B
     
    1 and 2 only 


    C
     
    2 and 3 only 


    D
     
    1, 2, and 3
    C
  99. Which of the following will produce the most significant increase in patient dose?



    A
     
    Decreased mAs 


    B
     
    Decreased SID 


    C
     
    Increased filtration 


    D
     
    Increased kVp
    B
  100. The most radiosensitive portion of the GI tract is the



    A
     
    upper esophagus 


    B
     
    stomach 


    C
     
    small bowel 


    D
     
    cecum and ascending colon
    C
  101. All the following are central venous lines except



    A
     
    a Port-a-Cath. 


    B
     
    a PICC. 


    C
     
    a Swan–Ganz catheter. 


    D
     
    a Salem-sump.
    D
  102. What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a 0.5-mm lead-equivalent apron at 75 kVp provide?



    A
     
    51% 


    B
     
    66% 


    C
     
    75% 


    D
     
    88%
    D
Author:
McCrae
ID:
294370
Card Set:
rAD rEVIEW eASY
Updated:
2015-01-31 07:12:14
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