Card Set Information
How do we calculate negative predictive value?
= TN/ (TN+ FN)
= 180/ (180 + 140)
What forms the Allantois?
, which extends into the
What does the allantois become?
, a duct between the fetal
bladder and yolk sac.
What is the urachus? What forms it?
is a duct between the fetal
bladder and yolk sac.
It is formed by the
What is a patent urachus? What does it present with?
Connects the umbilicus and the bladder.
discharge from the umbilicus.
Urine discharge from the umbilicus is characteristic of?
What is a Vesicourachal diverticulum? What does it present as?
Failure to close the part of urachus adjacent to the bladder
Outpouching of bladder
Outpouching of the apex of the bladder is due to?
What is a urachal sinus? What does it present as?
Failure to close the distal part of the urachus
(adjacent to the umbilicus).
It presents with
purulent discharge from the umbilicus
due to the persistent and
What is a urachal cyst? What can it lead to?
Failue of central portion of urachus to obliterate
Leads to formation of a urachal cyst, a
fluid-filled cavity lined with uroepithelium, between umbilicus and bladder.
Can lead to infection,
What is Omphalocele?
Incomplete closure of
anterior abdominal wall
causes persistence of herniation of abdominal contents into umbilical cord, covered by
What is the pathology seen below?
What is Gastrochisis?
Due to inadequate enlargement of the peritoneal cavity.
Extrusion of abdominal contents through
covered by peritoneum.
What is the pathology seen below?
Where does Acetazolamide work? How does it work?
Proximal convoluted tubule
which effectively blocks reabsorption of
Glaucoma drug which causes a highly alkaline urine?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
- blocks reabsorption of
Describe the presentation and findings of a transient ischemic attack.
Sudden onset of transient
of left arm which lasts less than 15 mins
Patient experiences sudden onset of transient numbness and tingling of the left arm. MRI shows no abnormalities. What is the pathology?
Transient ischemic attack
Increased gastrointestinal blood loss is the most common side effect of?
Describe the mutation of sickle cell anemia.
Valine replaces glutamate at position 6 of the beta chain
What promotes sickling of RBCs?
Low oxygen / oxygen unloading
Low blood volume (dehydration)
Which complement deficiencies are associated with increased susceptibility to Neisseria?
Which complement deficiencies are associated with lupus-like syndrome?
C1, C3, C4
What are some of the long term symptoms of hydrocephalus?
Lower extremity spasticity.
Spasticity results from loss of inhibition of motor neurons, causing excessive muscle contraction.
Results from upper motor neuron damage caused by stretching of the
periventricular pyramidal tracts.
Lower extremity hyporeflexia would result from?
Damage to the
lower motor neurons
of the lower extremities
Can occur in
What is the composition of the 3' end of the tRNA molecule?
What does the D arm of the tRNA contain?
necessary for tRNA recognition byt the correct aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
Dihydrouracil residues are contained in this part of the tRNA.
What does the anticodon arm contain?
Contains sequences which are complementary to the mRNA codon and is read in the
This part of the tRNA contains sequences which are complementaty to the mRNA codon.
What does the T arm contain?
(thiamine, pseudouracil, cytosine)
sequence necessary for
binding of tRNA to ribosomes.
This part of the tRNA contains the thiamine, pseudouracil, cytosine sequence.
Label the diagram below.
Polyadenylation occurs at which end ?
The 7-methylguanosine cap is added at which end?
The cell type below is diagnostic of?
Owl eye inclusions
The image below indicated infection with?
Owl eye inclusion
Explain the pathology seen below.
Left Avascular necrosis/ Osteonecrosis
Note how the femoral neck is markedly shortened compared to the right side.
Are common in
elderly patients with osteoporosis who have sustained a
medial femoral circumflex artery
is vulnerable to damage from femoral neck fractures.
Injury to this vessel can cause avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Medial circumflex femoral artery
What is the function of the ductus arteiosus?
Deoxygenated blood from the SVC passes through the RA → RV → pulmonary artery →
patent ductus arteriosus → descending aorta
BLOOD BYPASSES THE LUNGS
The ductus arteriosus is an embryonic derivative of?
The 6th aortic arch
The ductus arteriosus closes shortly after birth secondary to?
Decreased prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) levels
Increased oxygen concentration
Describe the murmur of a patent ductus arterisosus.
Continuous machinery-like murmur
What are the effects of Indomethacin on the patent ducuts arteriosus?
Closes the PDA
Inibitor of PGE
What does the bulbus cordis form?
part (outflow tract) of the left and right
The embryonic structure forms the smooth part (outflow tract) of the left and right
What does the primitive atrium form?
part of the left and right
This embryonic structure forms the rough/ trabeculated part of the left and right atrium.
What does the right horn of the sinus venosus form?
This embryonic structure forms the sinus venarum.
Right horn of sinus venosus
Smooth part of right atrium
This embryonic structure forms the smooth part of the right atrium
Right horn of sinus venosus -
How does leuprolide work?
agonist properties when used in a pulsatile fashion
antagonist properties when used in continuous fashion
What is the mechanism of Finasteride?
(↓conversion of testosterone to DHT)
What is the mechanism and use of Cladribine?
which is resistant to degradation by
adenosine deaminase, inhibits DNA polymerse, DNA strand breaks
hairy cell leukemia
This drug is resistant to degradation by adenosine deaminase.
- purine analog
What is the DOC for hairt cell leukemia?
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
Spike and dome appearance on methenamine silver stain is characteristic of this glomerular nephropathy?
Incomplete gallbladder emptying/ gallbladder hypomotility resutls in?
and formation of
Black pigment stones result from?
Brown pigment stones result from?
Biliary tract infection
Loss of infectivity after ether exposure is a characteristic feature of?
Ether and other organic solvents dissolve the lipid bilayer that makes up the outer viral envelope.
How is the Hepatitis A virus transmitted?
Often via ingestion of
At restaurants, overcrowded areas
What is the use of Inulin clearance?
Inulin clearance can be used to calculare
because it is freely filtered and is neither reabdorbed nor secreted.
What can be used to estimate GFR?
Paraaminohippuric acid is used to calculate?
Renal plasma flow
Where is Coccidioides immitis endemic to?
Southern & central California
Rupture of apical blebs or cysts is the most common cause of?
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax-
tall thin, males
What causes a primary spontaneous pneumothorax? Who does it frequently occur in?
Rupture of apical blebs or cysts
Occurs most frequently in
tall, thin, young males
Tall, thin male presents with sudden-onset unilateral chest pain with hyperresonance and absent breath sounds on physical examinaton? What is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax
due to rupture of apical blebs or cysts
Describe the presentation of a pneumothorax.
Unilateral chest pain
Unilateral chest expansion
Absent breath sounds
Describe the metabolism of Nitroprusside.
Nitroprusside is initally metabolized to
, with subsequent conversion to
How can we treat cyanide toxicity?
to enhance conversion of
cyanide to thiocyanate.