TEST 1 study guide

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  1. The story of 13 year-old Genie is an example of a way that we can learn about the consequences of deprivation (and possibly trauma) upon development.  Her story is an example of :
    A.  An experiment                       
    B.  Naturalistic Observation               
    C. A survey      
    D.  A case study
    a case study
  2. Make sure that you understand experiments, independent and dependent variables.
  3. What is an IRB? What is its purpose?
    • IRB: International Review Board
    • committee established to review and approve research involving human subjects. The purpose of the IRB is to ensure that all human subject research be conducted in accordance with all federal, institutional, and ethical guidelines.
  4. If I go to several Starbucks coffee shops in Houston and distribute 10,000 surveys about childhood experiences and attempt to publish the results in the Houston Chronicle, claiming that this is “Texas’ Upbringing”, is there anything wrong with my methods? Identify at least 2 things wrong with my approach and explain why.  (*Assume that 10,000 is an adequate sample size)
    • Volunteer bias: people are choosing whether they participate or not. 
    • Social desirability bias: people will be answering their survey based upon what they think you want to hear.
  5. What is the Hawthorne effect and why would it be a problem for researchers if they were attempting to study children’s use of table manners by attending family dinners?
    • Hawthorne Effect: people behave differently when they're being watched. 
    • So if researchers are attending family dinners, children might behave either better or worse simply because the researchers are there.
  6. Which one of these is the strongest correlation?A.  .12         B. -.15         C. -.40         D. .24
  7. Let’s assume that a correlation of -.79 between self-esteem and delinquency in adolescence exists.   This statistic tells us: 
    A.  The higher and adolescent’s self-esteem, the more likely he or she is to be delinquent
    B.  Self-esteem and delinquency are not correlated during adolescence
    C.  The lower an adolescent’s self-esteem, the more likely he or she is to be delinquent.
    D.  Self esteem causes delinquency
    C.  The lower an adolescent’s self-esteem, the more likely he or she is to be delinquent.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Fill in the blank & explain:    “ Correlation does not equal  __________________.”  What does this mean?
    It means that because something is correlated it does not show that one is the reason for the other.
  9. Give a brief example of an experiment that you could construct to find the answer to this question:* Do people who drink diet sodas score higher on psychology tests compared to those who do not drink diet sodas?  [Identify your Independent and Dependent variables and anything that you would want to control for in your study.]
    • Independent: Drinking of soda
    • Dependent: scoring higher on psychology tests
    • Control: having one group drink soda and another not drink soda
  10. What is a double-blind experiment? Why employ this technique?
    • Double blind: both participant/experimenter are blind to assignment
    • This technique may be employed so there are no biases.
  11. Let’s say that NYU wanted to study academic outcomes of students who were in their freshman year during the attacks of 9/11.   If they followed this group of individuals over a period of 15 years, asking them to complete interviews/surveys periodically during this time frame what kind of research design are they using? :
    A.  Longitudinal
    B.  Correlational
    C.  Cross-sectional
    D.  Latitudinal
  12. Name & define 3 measures of central tendency.
    • Mean: average
    • Mode: most
    • Median: middle
  13. When would you not want to use the mean as your primary measure of central tendency?
  14. Give an example of a naturalistic observation:
    seeing how children react while in the classroom.
  15. What do we mean when we talk about the concept of “plasticity” in development?
    Plasticity: capacity for change throughout the lifespan.
  16. Describe the 3 domains of change in development: Physical/biosocial, cognitive, psychosocial
    • Physical/Biosocial: nutrition, exercise, brain and body changes
    • Cognitive: (mental processes) abilities, language mastery, education
    • Psychosocial: emotions, personality, relationships
  17. What is meant by the term “context” in developmental psychology?            
    What is a cohort?
    • Context: environment/circumstances that can influence an individual. 
    • Cohort: a group of ppl banded together or treated as a group by age.
  18. What is the difference between normative and nonnormative experiences?
    • Normative: typical
    • Non-Normative: not typical
  19. What is the difference between race and ethnic group?
    • Ethnic group: ppl whose ancestors were born in the same region and who often share a language, culture, and religion.
    • Race: a group of ppl who are regarded by themselves or by other as distinct from other groups on the basis of physical appearance.
  20. What is SES & how might it influence development?
    • Socioeconomic Status
    • income
    • education
    • occupation
    • neighborhood
    • opportunities, stressors, limitations.
  21. What are mirror neurons? (some have linked them with the “infectiousness” of yawns!)
    cells in the brain that respond to an action performed by someone else in the same way they would if the observer had actually performed that action.
  22. What is preformationism?
    children as little adults.
  23. What does “tabula rasa” mean (as it applies to development/childhood)?
    John Locke: theory that everyone starts out as a blank slate.
  24. List Freud’s psychosexual stages & describe briefly what happens in each:
    • Oral (0-1yr) breast/bottle feeding
    • Anal (1-3yrs) potty training
    • Phallic (3-6yrs) sexual desire for parent/identify with other parent
    • Latency (6-11yrs) increased superego development
    • Genital (puberty) return to phallic stage
  25. List/describe Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.
    • Basic trust vs. Mistrust (birth-1yr)
    • Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (1-3yrs)
    • Initiative vs. Guilt (3-6yrs) parent supports child's sense of purpose
    • Industry vs. Inferiority (6-11yrs) work/cooperate/meet demands
    • Identity vs. Identity Confusion (adol.) all about finding out who you are
    • Intimacy vs. Isolation (young adult) 
    • Generativity vs. Stagnation (middle age)
    • Ego Integrity vs. Despair (old age)
  26. How does social learning theory explain children’s learning/social development?
    • Explained development of social behaviors using learning theories
    • modeling- imitation/observational learning 
    • role of cognition- imitate selectively
  27. Using Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological systems theory, give examples of factors at each level of environment that can impact a child.
    • family
    • classroom
    • peer group
    • religious class
  28. Know what the micro & mesosystems are.
    • Microsystems: family, peer, groups, classroom, neighborhood, house of worship
    • Mesosytems: refer to interactions among systems
  29. What is the butterfly effect?
    small changes>>big changes
  30. What are the major characteristics of each of the 4 stages of cognitive development according to Piaget?
    • Sensorimotor (0-2yrs) explore through senses, object permanence 
    • Preoperational (2-7yrs) symbolic/illogical, no conservation 
    • Concrete operational (7-11yrs) logical, but can't abstract
    • Formal operational (11yrs+) abtract
  31. Discuss the sociocultural theory of development. What is guided participation? What is the zone of proximal development?
    • Society/culture integral to development
    • Zone of proximal development: learning with independence but not yet independent.
  32. What is the difference between a somatic cell and a gamete?
    • Somatic cell: body cell, contains 46 chromosomes
    • Gamete: sex cell
  33. What is a zygote?
    egg+sperm (divides & specializes)
  34. What is significant about the 23rd chromosome’s role in reproduction?
    dictates whether a person is male or female. X or Y
  35. What are our autosomes?
    any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome.
  36. Define phenotype:
    what you see on the outside.
  37. Define genotype:
    the internal code.
  38. What is a recessive gene?
    a gene that is not fully expressed, expressed when dominant is absent.
  39. What is a carrier?
    a person who carries the recessive allele but does not express the trait.
  40. What is a dominant gene?
    when present, is expressed.
  41. Why are men more likely to suffer from X-linked diseases?
    a mutation on the x chromosome causes the phenotype to be expressed.
  42. Give an example of an X-linked disease & describe the symptoms of it:
    X- Turner's syndrome: female, stunted sexual development, sterile, short, low hairline, scoliosis, slight MR in some, HRT can help (hormone replacement therapy)
  43. What is PKU?  How is it acquired?
    • PKU (phenylketonuria)
    • abnormal digestion of phenylalanine
    • consumption of it leads to brain damage
    • special diet
  44. What is Tay-Sachs Disease?  How is it acquired?
    • enzyme disease
    • healthy infant becomes weaker, usually dying by age 5
  45. What is sickle cell anemia?  How it is acquired?
    • impaired blood flow, pain/tissue damage
    • blood cells change shape into sickle
  46. What is Huntington’s Disease? How is it acquired? When do symptoms emerge?
    • a degenerative disease
    • loss of muscle control, cognitive deterioration
  47. What is Cystic Fibrosis? How is it acquired?
    • excessive mucus production
    • breathing/digestive problems
  48. What is Muscular Dystrophy? Describe probable inheritance.
    • weakening of the muscles
    • inability to walk, move, wasting away, sometimes death
    • recessive or multifactorial
  49. What is the difference between monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins?
    • MZ: 100% shared genetic material
    • DZ: 25-75% shared genetic material (same as regular siblings)
  50. What is the diathesis stress theory?
    • genetic predisposition (diathesis) & stress>> disorder
    • stress releases disorder
  51. Be able to discuss the role of environment/genetics in alcoholism and nearsightedness
    • inherited biochemistry makes some people more vulnerable to alcoholism
    • environments such as fraternities may encourage alcohol consumption
    • nearsightedness is mostly due to heritability
  52. XXX- Superfemale Syndrome
    • female, reduced fertility 
    • unusually long legs, torsos, but look normal
    • tendency for below average IQ/ low normal
    • problems with spatial relationships
    • 1/1000 female births
  53. XXY- Klinefelter's syndrome
    • male, some female secondary characteristics, sterile, tall, obese, 25% of mental deficiency, can see it with DS
    • 1/500 male births
    • can be unaware
    • more extra x's worse prognosis
  54. XYY- Supermale syndrome
    • male, taller than average, fertile but low sperm count, once thought to be more aggressive (high testosterone)
    • severe acne in adol.
    • may be unaware of abnormality
    • 1/1500 male births
  55. What is Trisomy 21?  What are the major signs of this abnormality?
    • Down syndrome
    • 3 chromosomes on the 21st pair
    • physical appearance, mental deficits, Alzheimer's disease in later life
  56. Be able to describe the following: IVF & ART
    • IVF: in vitro fertilization
    • fertilization that takes place outside the women's body.
    • the procedure involves mixing sperm with ova that have been surgically removed from the woman's ovary. if a zygote is produced, it is inserted into the women's uterus, where it may implant and develop into a baby. 
    • (ART) assisted reproductive technology
    • general term for the techniques designed to help infertile couples conceive and then sustain a pregnancy. 
  57. What is genetic counseling?
    the giving of advice to prospective parents concerning the chances of genetic disorders in a future child.
  58. List several prenatal diagnostic methods and describe briefly the techniques of each:
    • Amniocentesis: take sample of amniotic fluid around developing fetus, examine fetus (14-15 wks), can detect the presence of about 400 specific genetic abnormalities. 1% risk of MC
    • Chorionic villus sampling (CVS): sampling placenta tissue, early on in pregnancy (10 wks), 2% risk of MC
    • Nuchal translucency: ultrasound procedure (measurement of nuchal fold), screen for DS, 11-14 wks
  59. What are the 3 stages of prenatal development (list)?
    germinal (2wks), embryo (3-8 wks), fetus (9 wks-birth)
  60. What is the major task of the Germinal stage?
    IMPLANTATION of the zygote.
  61. What is an ectopic pregnancy?
    a zygote implants itself into a fallopian tube.
  62. Early in the embryonic period, the embryonic disk differentiates into what 3 layers?  What is formed by each layer?
    • outer layer: ectoderm>> neural tube, skin, becomes CNS
    • middle layer: mesoderm>> muscles, skeleton, circ. sys. 
    • inner layer: endoderm>> lungs, GI/urinary tracts
  63. What is a teratogen?
    environmental agents that can cause disruption of organogenesis (organ formation)
  64. During which period is the developing organism the most vulnerable to teratogens?
  65. Teratogenic effects of a substance are dependent upon what factors?
    • Dose/frequency
    • timing in pregnancy
    • genetic vulnerability
    • other negative influences
  66. Describe the potential teratogenic effects of:  alcohol, smoking, caffeine, Thalidomide, rubella, toxoplasmosis, AIDS, mercury, radiation and cocaine.
  67. How might the diathesis stress model apply to cerebral palsy?
    CP often results from genetic vulnerabiliy therefore, any stressor that the mother may encounter may onset cerebral palsy.
  68. List the 3 stages of birth.
    • Dilation & effacement (widen/thin of cervix)
    • birth of the baby
    • delivery of placenta
  69. List/describe at least 2 perinatal complications.
    • Breech position
    • Anoxia- lack of O2 during delivery/labor
  70. What does the Apgar scale assess? Describe each area assessed.
    • an assessment given to check the baby's health
    • appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration.
    • scale of 7-10
  71. What is the age of viability?
    the age at which a premature baby can survive outside the uterus.
  72. What are 2 major causes for Low Birthweight?
    • born too soon
    • small for gestational age
  73. What is SGA?  Common causes?
    • SGA- small for gestational age
    • tobacco use during pregnancy (25% of SGA births)
    • nutrition/poverty
  74. What is kangaroo care?
    a method of caring for premature babies in which the infants are held skin-to-skin with a parent, usually the mother, for as many hours as possible every day.
  75. Be familiar with the section on Postpartum Depression
Card Set:
TEST 1 study guide
2015-02-13 22:15:12
growth development psychology
lifespan: growth&development
study guide.
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