EXN105A2

Card Set Information

Author:
ndarlenebeck
ID:
297137
Filename:
EXN105A2
Updated:
2015-03-01 13:17:44
Tags:
Excelsior
Folders:
Excelsior
Description:
Excelsior N105 Form A-2
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user ndarlenebeck on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Which dietary instruction should the nurse teach a patient to prevent constipation?
    A) Eat foods high in fiber like fresh fruit.
    B) Increase the amount of coffee or tea you drink daily.
    C) Use laxatives daily.
    D) Increase intake or highly refined breads and cereals.
    A) Eat foods high in fiber like fresh fruit.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which is a factor in the development of total urinary incontinence?
    A) decreased abdominal muscle tone
    B) impaired sensory nerves
    C) decreased glomerular filtration rate
    D) constriction of the renal arteries
    B) impaired sensory nerves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. When planning to digitally remove a patient's fecal impaction, the nurse should be aware that which problem could be caused by vagal stimulation during removal?
    A) hypertension
    B) hemorrhoids
    C) diarrhea
    D) dysrhythmias
    D) dysrhythmias
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A patient's urinalysis results are pH of 5.7, protein ), glucose negative, ketones negative, RBC ), and specific gravity of 1.034. What do these results indicate?
    A) alkalosis
    B) dehydration
    C) hypoxia
    D) infection
    B) dehydration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which problem can be caused by the administration of more than three consecutive tap water enemas?
    A) water intoxication
    B) dehydration
    C) bowel infection
    D) bowel perforation
    A) water intoxication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which clinical manifestation is indicative of a fecal impaction?
    A) tarry stools
    B) passage of small, hard stool daily
    C) flatulence
    D) seepage of liquid stool
    D) seepageĀ  of liquid stool
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The nurse is planning care for a patient who has been experiencing constipation. Which is an appropriate expected outcome for this patient?
    A) pass liquid stool once per day.
    B) pass a large amount of flatus once per day.
    C) eliminate soft stool three times per day.
    D) eliminate a soft, formed stool every one to two days.
    D) eliminate a soft, formed stool every one to two days.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What is the primary function of the kidneys?
    A) to secrete renin and control blood pressure
    B) to regulate volume and composition of extracellular fluid
    C) to excrete urine and waste and regulate acid-base balance
    D) to produce erythropoietin and activate vitamin D
    B) to regulate volume and composition of extracellular fluid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which statement indicates that a patient needs further ostomy care teaching?
    A) "I should apply a new skin barrier daily."
    B) "I can get my stoma wet in the shower."
    C) "I should empty and pouch when it is 1/3 to 1/2 full of drainage."
    D) "I may reuse the pouch by rinsing it out and allowing it to air dry."
    A) "I should apply a new skin barrier daily."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. The nurse is administering a cathartic to a patient who has just had a barium enema. The patient says, "I don't need this, I just had a bowel movement yesterday. "Which is the nurse's best response?
    A) "The cathartic will prepare you for the next part of your test."
    B) "You still had stool in your colon and now we need another set of X rays."
    C) "The cathartic will prevent your body from absorbing the barium and turning your stools white."
    D) "The cathartic will reduce your chanceĀ of becoming constipated after this test."
    D) "The cathartic will reduce your chance of becoming constipated after this test."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. A patient who is newly admitted says to the nurse, "I experience an accidental leakage of urine whenever I cough, sneeze, or laugh." Which type of incontinence is the patient describing?
    A) urge
    B) overflow
    C) functional
    D) stress
    D) stress
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which data indicates that the nurse's dietary interventions for a patient with a history of urinary tract infection has been effective?
    A) Urine specific gravity increases.
    B) RBCs are present in the urine.
    C) Urinary pH decreases from 7.0 to 5.4.
    D) Dipstick is positive for ketones.
    C) Urinary pH decreases from 7.0 to 5.4.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. A patient who is breast-feeding is concerned that her infant's stool is yellow instead of brown. Which is an appropriate explanation for the nurse to give the patient?
    A) The infant may be dehydrated.
    B) The infant may have an intestinal infection.
    C) A change in formula may be necessary.
    D) The stool is normal for the infant.
    D) The stool is normal for the infant.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The nurse is planning to test a patient's stool specimen for blood. Which factor may lead to a false positive result?
    A) hemoglobin level
    B) consistency of stool
    C) dietary intake
    D) elevated temperature
    C) dietary intake
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. In catheterizing a male patient, the nurse should implement which action to prevent paraphimosis?
    A) Anchor the catheter to the thigh.
    B) Lubricate the catheter 5 to 7 inches (12.7 to 17.8 centimeters)
    C) Replace the foreskin
    D) Wear sterile gloves
    C) Replace the foreskin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. What is the function of the brain's sleep control centers?
    A) to regulate the transition from NREM to REM sleep
    B) to actively inhibit wakefulness
    C) to respond to fatigue with a rest signal
    D) to synchronize sleep patterns with light and darkness
    B) to actively inhibit wakefulness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which is a clinical manifestation of prolonged sleep deprivation?
    A) sudden muscle weakness
    B) evening headaches
    C) hyperactive reflexes
    D) increased sensitivity to pain
    D) increased sensitivity to pain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A patient is two days postoperative. While making rounds, the night nurse finds the patient unable to return to sleep. Which action should the nurse take initially?
    A) Review the patient's sleep history.
    B) Bring the patient a glass of warm milk.
    C) Administer a tranquilizer.
    D) Assess the patient for pain.
    D) Assess the patient for pain.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which medications suppress REM sleep?
    A) antidepressants
    B) tranquilizers
    C) beta blockers
    D) hypnotics
    D) hypnotics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which intervention is commonly used to assist a patient to fall asleep?
    A) Provide a back massage
    B) Administer a prescribed sedative.
    C) Offer a bedtime snack.
    D) Perform passive range of motion exercises.
    A) Provide a back massage.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which observation best indicates that a patient is adequately hydrated?
    A) Mucous membranes are moist.
    B) Urine is dark amber in color.
    C) Temperature is within normal limits.
    D) Fluid intake for 24 hours is 1,000 cc.
    A) Mucous membranes are moist.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The nurse should give priority to which nursing diagnosis for a patient with hyperkalemia?
    A) risk of injury related to seizures
    B) fluid volume excess related to thirst
    C) altered tissue perfusion related to peripheral edema
    D) decreased cardiac output related to cardiac dysrhythmias
    D) decreased cardiac output related to cardiac dysrhythmias
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Over the next 24 hours, a patient is to receive 4 liters of D5W. The IV administration set delivers 15 gtt/mL. At how many gtt/min should the infusion be regulated?
    A) 41-42
    B) 30-31
    C) 18-19
    D) 25-26
    A) 41-42
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Which serum electrolyte value will be elevated in a patient who has been immobilized for an extended period?
    A) potassium
    B) magnesium
    C) calcium
    D) sodium
    C) calcium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which finding is indicative of hyponatremia in a client experiencing diarrhea?
    A) weight gain
    B) increasing confusion
    C) increased blood pressure
    D) bradycardia
    B) increasing confusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. A patient who is unconscious is admitted to the emergency department. Arterial blood gas levels indicate pH 7.30, low bicarbonate level, low carbon dioxide level, and normal oxygen level. The nurse also notes an elevated potassium level. These findings indicate which acid-base imbalance?
    A) respiratory alkalosis
    B) metabolic alkalosis
    C) respiratory acidosis
    D) metabolic acidosis
    D) metabolic acidosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which assessment finding indicates that a patient with fluid volume excess has regained normal hydration status?
    A) The patient has lost weight.
    B) The patient has clear breath sounds.
    C) The patient has balanced intake and output.
    D) The patient has output of 30 to 45 mL per hour.
    B) The patient has clear breath sounds.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which solution should be administered to rehydrate the cells of a patient with metabolic acidosis?
    A) normal saline
    B) human serum albumin
    C) 5% dextrose in half-strength saline
    D) lactated Ringer's
    D) lactated Ringer's
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which clinical manifestation is indicative of fluid volume deficit?
    A) adventitious breath sounds
    B) increased urine specific gravity
    C) elevated hemoglobin levels
    D) full bounding pulse
    B) increased urine specific gravity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. A patient who exhibits poor skin turgor is showing signs of which problem?
    A) impaired circulation
    B) decreased oxygenation
    C) poor nutrition
    D) dehydration
    D) dehydration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which medication order should the nurse anticipate for a patient whose serum potassium level is 6.8 mEq/L?
    A) sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
    B) spironolactone (Aldoctone)
    C) triamterene (Dyrenium)
    D) furosemide (Lasix)
    A) sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. A postoperative patient is to receive D5W intravenously. The nurse should monitor the patient for the development of which electrolyte imbalance?
    A) hypocalcemia
    B) hyponatremia
    C) hyperkalemia
    D) hyperchloremia
    B) hyponatremia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Why are infants at a greater risk for fluid imbalance than adults?
    A) Infants have decreased metabolic rate.
    B) Infants have smaller body surface area.
    C) Infants have immature kidneys.
    D) Infants have increased thirst.
    C) Infants have immature kidneys.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which instruction should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is taking a thiazide diuretic?
    A) "Increase your daily intake of oranges and bananas."
    B) "Omit the daily dose of potassium if leg cramps occur."
    C) "Take a potassium supplement twice a day."
    D) "Measure your abdominal girth daily."
    A) "Increase your daily intake of oranges and bananas."
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which intervention should the nurse include when planning to administer potassium intravenously to a patient?
    A) Measure output after administration.
    B) Administer the medication rapidly.
    C) Dilute the medication before administration.
    D) Change the IV site prior to administration.
    C) Dilute the medication before administration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. How should the nurse interpret blood gas vales of pH 7.34, PaCO2 50, HCO3_ 28, and PO2 80?
    A) compensated metabolic acidosis
    B) compensated respiratory acidosis
    C) uncompensated respiratory acidosis
    D) uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
    B) compensated respiratory acidosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The nurse should suspect hypocalcemia when the patient exhibits which signs?
    A) pale mucous membranes, shortness of breath, and lethargy
    B) night blindness, tachycardia and weakness
    C) bleeding tendencies, thirst, and hypotension
    D) tingling of the fingers, muscle spasms, and tetany
    D) tingling of the fingers, muscle spasms, and tetany
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A 67 year old patient has shortness of brethe, numbness of the hands, respiratory rales, and slurred speech. Which of these findings is most clearly related to fluid overload?
    A) respiratory rales
    B) slurred speech
    C) numbness of the hands
    D) shortness of breathe
    A) respiratory rales
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which serum electrolyte value will be elevated in a patient who has had a high fever for an extended period?
    A) potassium
    B) calcium
    C) sodium
    D) magnesium
    C) sodium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which electrolyte imbalance may develop as a result of immobility?
    A) hypercalcemia
    B) hypomagnesemia
    C) hyperkalemia
    D) hyponatremia
    A) hypercalcemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. How many mL is the desirable amount of fluid intake and loss for an adult in 24 hours?
    A) 1,500 mL
    B) 2,500 mL
    C) 1,000 mL
    D) 3,500 mL
    B) 2,500 mL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which electrolyte imbalance would predispose a patient to digoxin toxicity?
    A) hypocalcemia
    B) hypernatremia
    C) hypermagnesemia
    D) hypokalemia
    D) hypokalemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. A patient with bone cancer is admitted with hypercalcemia. What is the most appropriate expected outcome for this patient?
    A) manifest adequate tissue perfusion: normal vital signs for age.
    B) achieve normal pattern and consistency of stool elimination
    C) have a negative Chvostek's sign by the second day of care.
    D) avoid personal injury from seizures during hospitalization.
    B) achieve normal pattern and consistency of stool elimination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which is a cause of metabolic acidosis?
    A) hypokalemia
    B) gastric suction
    C) starvation
    D) airway obstruction
    C) starvation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Treatment with which type of pharmacologic agent may result in magnesium and water imbalance?
    A) glucocorticoid
    B) sedative
    C) antibiotic
    D) bronchodilator
    C) antibiotic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which is a function of parathyroid hormone?
    A) to regulate the retention of sodium
    B) to regulate the absorption of calcium
    C) to stimulate the production of antidiuretic hormone
    D) to stimulate the production of renin
    B) to regulate the absorption of calcium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. A patient may be susceptible to developing water intoxication after which intravenous therapy?
    A) lactated Ringers
    B) 3% NaCl
    C) total parenteral nutrition
    D) 0.45% NaCl
    D) 0.45% NaCl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which assessment findings indicate that a patient has hypocalcemia?
    A) prolonged QT interval and peaked T waves
    B) anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
    C) positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs
    D) low-grade fever and dry tongue
    C) positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Which patient can be a universal recipient?
    A) AB negative
    B) AB positive
    C) O positive
    D) O negative
    B) AB positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which situation would indicate the development of hypovolemia in an adult?
    A) an increased postural blood pressure
    B) a drop in urinary output to below 30 mL/hr
    C) a decrease in the hematocrit level
    D) a gradually increasing temperature
    B) a drop in urinary output to below 30 mL/hr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview