HH-60G Plt QUAL MQF 2015_Cards.txt

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hvr4fun
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297819
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HH-60G Plt QUAL MQF 2015_Cards.txt
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2015-03-07 13:05:25
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MQF301rqs
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Description:
Pilot MQF ACC, 301st Rescue Squadron 2015
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  1. 1(10). With the SAS/FPS computer, is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-69 Chap: 1

    A. roll attitude less than 3 degrees
    B. airspeed less than 60 KIAS
    C. roll rate less than 5 deg/sec
    D. all of the above
    B. airspeed less than 60 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. 2(11). If the Ground BITE check (AFCC) is inadvertently initiated,________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-70 Chap: 1 Para: WARNING

    A. hold a 10 foot hover while resetting the AFCC
    B. no corrective action is necessary, the FPS will function normally
    C. reset the AFCC after takeoff, once straight and level flight is established
    D. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes to ensure FPS authority has been reenabled
    D. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes to ensure FPS authority has been reenabled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. 3(12). Flight near high power RF emitters such as microwave antennas or shipboard radar may cause uncommanded AFCS and/or stabilator inputs.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-79 Chap: 1 Para: NOTE
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  4. 4(172). If _______ of the stabilator check fails, do not fly the helicopter.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-20 WARNING Chap: 2

    A. all parts
    B. any part
    C. two parts
    D. one part
    B. any part
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. 5(9). With the AFCC,______is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-69 Chap: 1

    A. roll attitude less than 3 degrees
    B. roll rate less than 5 deg/sec
    C. airspeed less than 60 KIAS
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  6. 6(151). Do not conduct hoist training with the hoist operator's intercom inoperative.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.4

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  7. 7(153). For live hoist training, hoist riders will not be lifted higher than _____ feet over terrain, obstacles, or water; but may be lifted up to ____ feet to meet
    unique training requirements with concurrence of both the Aircraft Commander and Team Leader.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.2

    A. 25, 40
    B. 30, 50
    C. 25, 50
    D. 40, 40
    C. 25, 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. 8(154). ______ determine eligibility of personnel authorized to ride the hoist during training.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.1

    A. OG/CC
    B. Unit Commanders
    C. WG/CC
    D. Aircraft Commander
    B. Unit Commanders
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. 9(176). Once the tankers assume _______, the ______ will be responsible for all navigation, weather avoidance, and position reporting.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 204 b.

    A. formation lead, receivers
    B. formation lead, tankers
    C. 1/2 NM trail, tankers
    D. 1/2 NM trail, RAPCON
    B. formation lead, tankers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. 10(177). Overt ______ may cause excessive glare during NVG join ups.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-2 Chap: Part 3 Para: 403 b. (2) NOTE

    A. anti-collision lights
    B. position lighting
    C. tail position lights
    D. strobe lights
    A. anti-collision lights
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. 11(179). During HAAR Formation Option 2 (Trail), the helicopter flight separates into two elements in trail. Standard spacing between helicopter
    elements is ____; however, it may be as little as _____ and should be determined based on mission requirements such as number of receivers, terrain,
    forecast visibility, and light conditions.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 3-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: 303 a.

    A. 2nm, 0.5nm
    B. 3nm, 2nm
    C. 3nm, 1nm
    D. 2nm, 1 nm
    A. 2nm, 0.5nm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 12(180). If visual and electronic contact are lost after the tanker is within 3 NM of the receiver, the tanker will immediately call "CONTACT LOST",
    establish a minimum _____ foot vertical separation and _____ of the track heading.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 405 a. (1) (a) (i-iii

    A. 500/turn 45 degrees right
    B. 1,000/turn 90 degrees right
    C. 500/turn 30 degrees left
    D. 1,000/turn 45 degrees left
    A. 500/turn 45 degrees right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 13(181). Under no circumstances should the pilot stare at the _____ as this will result in poor aircraft control and may result in spatial disorientation.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-4 Chap: Part 3 Para: 206 b. WARNING

    A. drogue
    B. hose
    C. pod
    D. wing tip
    A. drogue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 14(182). Wing/prop turbulence can cause uncontrolled settling. If this occurs while connected to the drogue, disconnect immediately.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 206 b. WARNING

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  15. 15(183). A counter-clockwise rotating drogue could result in partial or complete unthreading of the probe nozzle.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-5 Chap: Part 3 Para: 206 b. CAUTION

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  16. 16(184). Lengths of pod hoses vary between _____ and _____ depending on the system and use; 24 m (80 ft) is typical of an integral system hose.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 3-2 Chap: Part 1 Para: 302 c. (1)

    A. 20 m (70 ft)/30 m (105 ft)
    B. 8 m (25 ft)/30 m (105 ft)
    C. 10 m (35 ft)/25 m (84 ft)
    D. 15 m (50 ft)/27 m (90 ft)
    D. 15 m (50 ft)/27 m (90 ft)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. 17(185). If a crossover is required, the receiver pilot will move to the outside of the tanker wing tip, _____ feet aft of the horizontal
    stabilizer and increase altitude a minimum of _____ feet above the tanker's vertical stabilizer.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 205

    A. 110/50
    B. 200/200
    C. 100/50
    D. 50/100
    C.100/50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 18(186). Due to distraction and the difficulty of maintaining lateral separation, two receivers will not disconnect or fly in the _____ position simultaneously.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-7 Chap: Part 3 Para: 208 b. WARNING

    A. observation
    B. contact
    C. astern
    D. disconnect
    C. astern
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 19(187). The ARCP (HAAR ONLY) is defined as _____.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-2 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. the designated geographic point at which the refueling track terminates
    B. normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up
    C. the area limits behind the tanker within which the receiver must fly to remain in contact with the tanker
    D. a designated point at which the receiver enters the anchor area
    B. normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 20(188). When conducting RV procedures, both the receivers and the tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however,
    if a deviation is required, receivers should arrive at the ARCP _____ and tankers should arrive at the ARCP _____.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-2 Chap: Part 3 Para: 203 b.

    A. earlier/later
    B. earlier (no more than 30 seconds)/later (no more than 30 seconds)
    C. earlier (no more than 1 minute)/later (no more than 1 minute)
    D. later (no more than 1 minute)/earlier (no more than 1 minute)
    C. earlier (no more than 1 minute)/later (no more than 1 minute)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 21(189). Disconnect is approximately _____feet above the contact position.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-5 Chap: Part 3 Para: 207

    A. 5 - 20
    B. 5 - 10
    C. 10 - 20
    D. 10 - 15
    B. 5 - 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. 22(190). One White light from the tanker indicates _____ to the receiver.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-4 Chap: Part 3 Para: Table 5A-4

    A. "clear to cross over"
    B. "proceed to observation"
    C. "clear wet/dry contacts"
    D. "prepare for turn"
    B. "proceed to observation"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. 23(191). The AAR Abort Point is defined as _____.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-2 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. a planned point along the receiver track at which the receiver must divert, if he is not in contact receiving fuel
    B. a point located upstream from the ARCP at which the receiver aircraft initiates a rendezvous with the tanker
    C. a designated point at which the receiver enters the anchor area
    D. any random point along the track at which the receiver or tanker will abort the HAAR, initiate separation procedures, and return to the ARIP
    A. a planned point along the receiver track at which the receiver must divert, if he is not in contact receiving fuel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 24(192)._____ is the minimum acceptable equipment for conducting electronic RV (HAAR).
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: 202 b.

    A. Radar (capable of displaying range and bearing)
    B. Operational A/A TACAN
    C. IFF Interrogator (capable of displaying range and bearing)
    D. all of the above are acceptable minimum equipment
    D. all of the above are acceptable minimum equipment
  25. 25(193)._____ is the command given by the tanker to receiver, either verbally or by signal, instructing receiver to disengage from tanker refueling equipment.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-6 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. "Breakaway"
    B. "Disengage"
    C. "Break Contact"
    D. "Disconnect"
    D. "Disconnect"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 26(194). During a "Tobaggan" procedure, the rate of descent is between _____ and _____ feet per minute and this should be used
    unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-13 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. 400/500
    B. 300/400
    C. 200/300
    D. 300/500
    D.300/500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 27(195). A planned geographic point prior to the RVCP to which tankers and receivers time independently to effect an arrival at the RVCT is the _____.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-11 Part 1 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. AREP
    B. RVIP
    C. ARCP
    D. ARCT
    B. RVIP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 28(196). The Observation Position is defined as a position to the left or right of the tanker, _____ of the wingtip and slightly above and ____ the tanker horizontal stabilizer.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-8 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. inboard, abeam
    B. outboard, abeam
    C. outboard, behind
    D. inboard, behind
    C. outboard, behind
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 29(197). Emission Option ______ (Emission Out) is defined as: No emitters will be used unless specifically authorized by the plan that the HAAR is supporting (ATO, SPINS, Rules of Engagement (ROE), Operations plan, Safe Passage procedures, or other mission directive).
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: Figure 5A-1

    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 1
    D. 4
    D. 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 30(198).______ is defined as: Any and all emitters are authorized, ie full RT for training purposes adding any timing that would affect the RV.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: Figure 5A-1

    A. Emission Option 2 - (HAAR)
    B. Emission Option 4 - (HAAR)
    C. Emission Option 1 - (HAAR)
    D. Emission Option 3 - (HAAR)
    C. Emission Option 1 - (HAAR)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 31(199). Emission Option _____ (Silent R/T) is defined as: Radio silent operations including formation, RV and HAAR. The use of other emitters is
    authorized unless specifically prohibited.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: Figure 5A-1

    A. 4 (HAAR)
    B. 2 (HAAR)
    C. 3 (HAAR)
    D. 1 (HAAR)
    C. 3 (HAAR)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 32(200). A _____ is made when the probe engages the drogue.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-5 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. Contact
    B. Sweet Lock
    C. Transfer
    D. Hit
    A. Contact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. 33(4). During Aerial Refueling if the OVERFLOW indicator on the fuel management panel illuminates, the following corrective action should be taken ____.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-37 Chap: 1

    A. retract the probe
    B. no action needed
    C. activate the FUEL DUMP switch
    D. hold the MAIN switch to SHUTOFF
    D. hold the MAIN switch to SHUTOFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 34(5). The probe valve can be opened to on-load fuel through a retracted probe with the helicopter on the ground by _____.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-48 Chap: 1

    A. activation of the left WOW switch
    B. set the MAN AUX FLOW switch to FLOW
    C. set MODE SELECT switch to MAN
    D. all of the above
    A. activation of the left WOW switch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 35(2). The FUEL PUMP switch should be at APU BOOST for all APU operations.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-15 Chap: 1

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  36. 36(46). The following corrective action should be accomplished in order to recover from a vortex ring state.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 6-2 Chap: 6

    A. increase forward airspeed and decrease collective pitch
    B. decrease forward airspeed and increase collective pitch
    C. both A and C
    D. enter autorotation, if altitude permits
    C. both A and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 37(6). If the APU generator is the sole source of AC power all equipment may be operated except
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-50 Chap: 1 Para: NOTE

    A. both A and B
    B. windshield anti-ice when the backup pump is on
    C. blade de-ice
    D. none of the above
    A. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 38(7). When the #1 AC generator is inoperative and BACKUP PUMP PWR circuit breaker is out for any reason, _____ must be shut off
    before resetting the circuit breaker.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-51 Chap: 1 Para: CAUTION

    A. #1 main generator switch
    B. both A and B
    C. AC electrical power
    D. BACKUP PUMP switch
    D. BACKUP PUMP switch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 39(16). The crash axe is located ______.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-95 Chap: 1

    A. AG's console
    B. cabin side of the aft console
    C. FE's console
    D. behind AC's seat
    A. AG's console
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 40(173). A boost servo malfunction _____ be accompanied by illumination of the BOOST SERVO OFF caution light.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-37 NOTE Chap: 3

    A. will never
    B. will sometimes
    C. will always
    D. may or may not
    D. may or may not
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. 41(174). Weapon Systems Emergencies: A _____ is the complete failure of the weapon to fire. This is not dangerous,
    but must be treated as a malfunction in the firing mechanism or a faulty round.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-53 Chap: 3

    A. runaway gun
    B. bent gun
    C. misfire
    D. hang fire
    C. misfire
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 42(26). Loss of DC primary power will result in the engine anti-ice and engine inlet anti-ice valves failing to the _____ position.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-15 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING

    A. depends on the OAT
    B. open
    C. depends on the switch positions
    D. closed
    B. open
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 43(27). During autorotations, pitch attitudes from a hover attitude to _____ degrees nose-up at the point of touchdown normally result in a safe landing.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-22 Chap: 3

    A. 4-5
    B. 25
    C. 15
    D. 10
    B. 25
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 44(28). Do not respond to ENG OUT audio and warning lights until checking _____.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING

    A. Nf
    B. both A and B
    C. TGT
    D. Nr
    B. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. 45(29). If AC electrical power is not available, only the _____ engine compartment has fire protection. Additionally only the _____ fire bottle is capable of being discharged.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-23 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING

    A. #1; main
    B. #1; reserve
    C. #2; reserve
    D. #2; main
    B. #1; reserve
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. 46(30). The minimum rotor speed for a single-engine go-around is _____ % Nr.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-26 Chap: 3

    A. 96
    B. 100
    C. 91
    D. 95
    D. 95
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. 47(31). If the airspeed fault advisory light is illuminated, continued flight above _____ KIAS with the stabilator in the AUTO mode is unsafe.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-33 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING

    A. 40
    B. 80
    C. 70
    D. 25
    C. 70
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. 48(32). _____ is the first step for both #1 or #2 FUEL PRESS CAUTION LIGHT and #1 or #2 FUEL FLTR BYPASS CAUTION LIGHT ON checklist.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-34 Chap: 3

    A. Fuel Boost Pump Switch (affected tank) - OFF
    B. Fuel Boost Pump Switch (unaffected tank) - OFF
    C. Fuel Selector (affected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)
    D. Fuel Selector (unaffected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)
    C. Fuel Selector (affected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. 49(33). _____ should be done when #1 RSVR LOW and #1 HYD PUMP caution lights illuminate with BACKUP PUMP ON advisory light on, followed by
    BACKUP RSVR LOW caution light on.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-36 Chap: 3

    A. BACKUP PUMP switch - OFF
    B. both A and C
    C. TAIL SERVO switch - BACKUP
    D. SVO OFF switch - 1st STG
    D. SVO OFF switch - 1st STG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 50(34). _____ is the first step of the BOOST SERVO MALFUNCTION checklist.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-37 Chap: 3

    A. BOOST switch - OFF
    B. SAS-1 and SAS-2 switches - OFF
    C. Airspeed - Adjust
    D. all of the above
    A. BOOST switch - OFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. 51(35). If tail rotor control is lost, do not use aerodynamic braking to slow the helicopter after touchdown.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-52 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  52. 52(1). The HMU provides Ng overspeed protection, _____ if Ng reaches 110% +/- 2.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-3 Chap: 1

    A. shutting off all fuel flow with no possible restart until maintenance corrective action
    B. shutting off all fuel flow followed by an automatic restart.
    C. through TGT limiting
    D. reducing fuel flow
    A. shutting off all fuel flow with no possible restart until maintenance corrective action
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. 53(169). With the throttle in ECU/DEC LOCKOUT, _____ is deactivated and the _____ must be manually controlled.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-10 Chap: 1

    A. Automatic TGT Limiting System, Ng
    B. Engine Overspeed Protection System, TGT
    C. Engine Overspeed Protection System, Ng
    D. Automatic TGT Limiting System, TGT
    D. Automatic TGT Limiting System, TGT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. 54(18). If ENG INLET ANTI-ICE ON light goes on with ENG ANTI-ICE NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches in the OFF position,
    it indicates that heat is being applied to that engine and a malfunction exists.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-113 Chap: 1

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  55. 55(8). Which of the following functions does the mixing unit provide as a result of increased collective?
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-62 Chap: 1

    A. left lateral cyclic input
    B. increased tail rotor pitch
    C. right lateral cyclic input
    D. both A and C
    D. both A and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. 56(170). Auxiliary Tanks: If the 200 Gallon Internal Auxiliary Fuel Tank contains more than ____ of its total fuel capacity,
    the lower cargo rings structure securing the left and right restraint beams may fail on impact with the ground, causing the tank to dislodge.
    This causes an increase in the probability and severity of injury.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-31 WARNING Chap: 1

    A. 58%
    B. 48%
    C. 55%
    D. 45%
    A. 58%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. 57(3). When using fuel without icing inhibitor, avoid flying at altitudes where indicated OAT is below _____ to preclude fuel system icing.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-27 Chap: 1 Para: CAUTION

    A. 0°C
    B. 4°F
    C. 4°C
    D. 0°F
    A. 0°C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. 58(110). Helicopters equipped with a _____ that provides sufficient light for a landing may substitute that for an operable landing light.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.20.5

    A. searchlight
    B. tail position light
    C. FLIR
    D. position lights
    A. searchlight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. 59(117). Deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 require specific approval of the _____ unless an urgent requirement or an aircraft emergency dictates otherwise.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 1.3

    A. MAJCOM/A3 (NGB: NGB/A3)
    B. SQ/CC
    C. WG/CC
    D. ACC/A3T (NGB: NGB/A3T)
    A. MAJCOM/A3 (NGB: NGB/A3)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. 60(118). The Aircraft Commander is responsible for all of the following except ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 2.1

    A. Ensuring aircraft security when away from home station.
    B. Responsible for the welfare of the crew and the safe accomplishment of the mission.
    C. The final authority for asking for and accepting waivers affecting the crew or mission.
    D. Approving deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 during routine mission accomplishment.
    D. Approving deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 during routine mission accomplishment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. 61(119). Passengers will not be carried on flights involving practice emergency procedure training.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 2.7.1

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  62. 62(120). Concerning MEP, unless otherwise stated in MAJCOM supplements to AFI 11-401, _____ or equivalent with
    Operational Control (OPCON) is the approving authority.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 2.8.1

    A. SQ/CC
    B. MAJCOM/DO
    C. Wing/CC
    D. OG/CC
    D. OG/CC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. 63(17). When WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE switch is on, and there is windshield ice build up, it indicates that the monitor has turned off the system,
    the following corrective action should be taken ______.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-113 Chap: 1

    A. both A and C
    B. turn the PITOT HEAT switch OFF
    C. WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE PILOT, CTR, and COPILOT switches must be placed OFF and then ON
    D. wait for the system to automatically turn back on
    C. WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE PILOT, CTR, and COPILOT switches must be placed OFF and then ON
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. 64(171). Maintain positive control of the engine cowling/work platform when opening and closing. Do not lean on vertical arm of cowling.
    Do not exceed _____ pounds of total weight on platform. Individual on platform will not exceed ______ pounds.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-6 WARNING Chap: 2

    A. 400, 400
    B. 400, 300
    C. 400, 250
    D. 300, 300
    C. 400, 250
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. 65(97). A PIC may deviate from any flight rule only when ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 1.7

    A. an in-flight emergency requires immediate action
    B. deviation is required to protect lives
    C. when safety of flight dictates
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  66. 66(98). The following are approved types of flight logs ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 2.5

    A. AF Form 70
    B. navigator's flight log
    C. lead command approved computer-generated flight log
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  67. 67(100). When two aircraft are approaching head-on, each shall alter course to the ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.7.3

    A. right
    B. the faster (less maneuverable) aircraft has the right of way
    C. left
    D. the slower (more maneuverable) aircraft has the right of way
    A. right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. 68(109). If weather prevents continued flight under VFR on the planned route, the PIC will alter the route of flight as necessary,
    so as to continue operations under VFR ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 7.1.3

    A. to the destination
    B. until obtaining an IFR clearance
    C. to a suitable landing location
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  69. 69(111). Avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least _____ laterally below FL 230.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.26.3.1

    A. 5 NM
    B. 20 NM
    C. 10 NM
    D. 3 NM
    C. 10 NM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. 70(112). Helicopters operating in class G airspace below 1200 ft AGL adhere to the following cloud clearance and visibility ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: TABLE 7.1

    A. both A and B
    B. night 1 SM clear of clouds
    C. day ½ SM clear of clouds
    D. none of the above
    A. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. 71(163). The final responsibility regarding equipment required for a mission rests with the _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.18.3

    A. SQ/CC
    B. Aircraft Commander
    C. SQ/DO
    D. Cabin NCOIC
    B. Aircraft Commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. 72(47). When visible moisture is present, pitot heat, engine anti-ice, blade de-ice and windshield anti-ice should be
    turned on when at or below _____ degrees C. These systems must be turned on at or below ______ degrees C.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-1 Chap: 7

    A. 13; 0
    B. 0; -5
    C. 10; 4
    D. 21; 10
    C. 10; 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. 73(48). If high engine oil pressure is observed during initial start in cold weather, accomplish the following ______.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-4 Chap: 7

    A. immediately shut down the engine
    B. make an AF Form 781 write-up
    C. run engine at idle until pressure is within limits
    D. both A and C
    C. run engine at idle until pressure is within limits
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. 74(49). During hot weather ground operations if engine oil pressure falls into the red gauge range and/or the engine oil
    pressure caution light comes on when the throttle is in IDLE, accomplish the following ______.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-5 Chap: 7

    A. no action required, it is acceptable to fly with the engine oil pressure caution light illuminated
    B. immediately move the throttle to the OFF position
    C. slightly advance the throttle, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable
    D. rapidly advance the throttle to fly, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable
    C. slightly advance the throttle, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. 75(50). During salt water operations, the rate of salt build up in engines is greatest in winds of ______knots.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-11 Chap: 7

    A. 8 to 12
    B. 3 to 4
    C. 15 to 20
    D. 5 to 10
    A. 8 to 12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. 76(14). In flight which of the following caution/advisory lights will indicate a hydraulic leak test was attempted ______.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-84 Chap: 1

    A. BACKUP RSVR LOW
    B. #1 and #2 RSVR LOW, #2 TAIL ROTOR SERVO ON, BACKUP PUMP ON
    C. #1 TAIL ROTOR SERVO, BOOST SERVO OFF, SAS OFF
    D. all of the above
    A. BACKUP RSVR LOW
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. 77(102). Helicopter pilots must use the published visibility minimums for "Copter Only" approaches as published.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.6.4

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  78. 78(104). The required climb gradient for a selected IFR departure is ______ (if a higher gradient is not published) to the appropriate minimum IFR altitude.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.10.4

    A. 200 ft/NM
    B. 250 ft/NM
    C. 300 ft/NM
    D. none of the above
    A. 200 ft/NM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. 79(105). For an airport to qualify as an alternate, the worst forecasted prevailing weather conditions (ETA +/- 1 hour) must meet or exceed ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.8.1.2

    A. a ceiling 200 ft. above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.
    B. a ceiling 400 ft above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.
    C. 700/1
    D. A or C, whichever is higher
    A. a ceiling 200 ft. above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.
  80. 80(106). For an airfield without a Published Instrument Approach Procedure to qualify as an alternate, the forecast weather
    for the ETA (+/- ______ ) must permit a VFR descent from the MIA to a VFR approach and landing.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.8.2

    A. 45 minutes
    B. 50 minutes
    C. 30 minutes
    D. 1 hour
    D. 1 hour
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. 81(107). Pilots may select an airport as an alternate that includes a temporary condition in the forecast if the condition is due to _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.8
    A. rain/snow shower
    B. both A and B
    C. thunderstorm
    D. none of the above
    B. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. 82(108). For airports without a published instrument approach, pilots may not ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.5.2

    A. file IFR to a point served by a published approach procedure where VMC descent can be made and then continue VFR
    B. file IFR to the airport
    C. file IFR to a point en route where VMC is forecast and continue VFR
    D. none of the above
    B. file IFR to the airport
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. 83(113). For IFR takeoff minimums for training flights, weather must be equal to or higher than ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.2.1

    A. the published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility)
    B. 700/1
    C. 1000/3
    D. the published approach minimums (ceiling only)
    A. the published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. 84(114). If unable to meet or exceed the required IFR departure climb gradient, a VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a
    VFR departure are authorized as a last resort for mission accomplishment.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.10.3

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  85. 85(115). If the airport does not have an authorized IFR departure method, then ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.9

    A. helicopters may take off using max climb and charted obstacle avoidance
    B. radar vectors at MEA are required
    C. an IFR departure to VMC conditions is authorized
    D. an IMC departure under IFR is not authorized
    D. an IMC departure under IFR is not authorized
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. 86(116). The term "Radar contact" by a controller means the aircraft has been identified on radar, but does not mean that
    terrain and obstruction clearance responsibility has transferred to the controller.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.6.3

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  87. 87(148). The use of a hood or other artificial vision-restricting device is authorized ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 5.1.1

    A. both A and B
    B. never
    C. when an IP/EP is at a set of controls
    D. in VMC conditions only
    B. never
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. 88(149). For precision instrument approach procedures, all of the following are required PNF calls except ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 5.2.3

    A. "500 feet above DH"
    B. "100 feet above DH"
    C. "Land" at DH if the runway environment is in sight and the aircraft is in a position for a normal landing
    D. "Go-around" at DH if the runway environment is not in sight or if the aircraft is not in a position for a normal landing.
    A. "500 feet above DH"
  89. 89(150). Any crewmember will announce heading deviations of _____ degrees, airspeed deviations of _____ knots, or when altitude deviation exceeds _____ feet.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 5.2.5

    A. 10, 20, 100
    B. 10, 10, 100
    C. 5, 10, 100
    D. 5, 20, 100
    B. 10, 10, 100
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. 90(19). After about a 2 minute warm up, the radar altimeter altitude pointer will be _____ feet, and the digital readout will be _____ feet.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-557 Chap: 1

    A. 0+/-3; 0 to +3
    B. 0 to +3; 0+/-5
    C. 0 to +5; 0+/-5
    D. 0+/-5; 0 to +3
    D. 0+/-5; 0 to +3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. 91(99). Flights conducted in IMC require ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 2.15.2

    A. A and B
    B. operational anti-icing and/or deicing equipment
    C. operative pitot heat
    D. none of the above
    A. A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. 92(15). If the helicopter has become airborne (the WOW switch has cycled) the Mode 4 codes will be lost if power is removed unless _____.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-84 Chap: 1

    A. the transponder is turned to STBY for 15 seconds before removing power
    B. the Mode 4 power switch is left in the ON position while AC power is removed
    C. no action required, the Mode 4 codes are only erased by the ZERO function
    D. specifically held with the HOLD function
    D. specifically held with the HOLD function
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. 93(175). To prevent APU overheating, APU operation at an OAT of ____ degrees Celsius and above with engine and rotor operating, is limited to _____ minutes.
    With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be operated continuously up to an OAT of ____ degrees Celsius.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-15 Chap: 5

    A. 20, 25, 30
    B. 43, 30, 51
    C. 45, 50, 55
    D. 34, 30, 45
    B. 43, 30, 51
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. 94(36). Maximum allowable Nr for normal operations and emergency procedures training is ______%. Maximum allowable Nr for functional check flights is _____%.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-1 Chap: 5

    A. 95; 101
    B. 110; 120
    C. 100; 107
    D. 100; 110
    B. 110; 120
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. 95(37). The maximum wind velocity, from any direction, for rotor start or stop is ______ KIAS.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-1 Chap: 5

    A. 45
    B. 25
    C. 55
    D. 35
    A. 45
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. 96(38). Avoid operation in the _____ and _____ Nf ranges.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-2 Chap: 5

    A. 20%-40% and 60%-90%
    B. 30%-50% and 70%-80%
    C. 35%-45% and 65%-85%
    D. 0%-50% and 80%-90%
    A. 20%-40% and 60%-90%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. 97(39). Routine rotor brake stops shall be done between _____% Nr, and should be limited to ____ psi.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-7 Chap: 5

    A. 30 to 50; 180
    B. 20 to 40; 50
    C. 20 to 40; 180
    D. 30 to 50; 50
    A. 30 to 50; 180
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. 98(40). The maximum airspeed with one engine inoperative is _____ KIAS.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-9 Chap: 5

    A. 120
    B. 100
    C. 130
    D. 145
    C. 130
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. 99(41). _____ is the sideward/rearward flight limit into the wind, when combined with wind speed.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-9 Chap: 5

    A. 45 KIAS
    B. 85 KIAS
    C. 25 KIAS
    D. 105 KIAS
    A. 45 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. 100(42). _____ is the maximum airspeed to extend either searchlight.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-10 Chap: 5

    A. 145 KIAS
    B. 130 KIAS
    C. 120 KIAS
    D. 100 KIAS
    D. 100 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. 101(43). The maximum airspeed authorized with cabin doors open, with soundproofing removed aft of station 379 or with
    soundproofing retention kit installed is _____.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-10 Chap: 5

    A. 130 KIAS
    B. 100 KIAS
    C. 120 KIAS
    D. 145 KIAS
    D. 145 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. 102(44). The cabin heater should be turned off before starting descents in icing conditions.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-15 Chap: 5

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  103. 103(45). The blade deicing system shall not be operated at an OAT above ______.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-15 Chap: 5

    A. 43 deg C
    B. 33 deg C
    C. 15 deg C
    D. 21 deg C
    D. 21 deg C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. 104(121). The VFR weather training minimums are ______and IAW AFI 11-202 for night practice emergency procedures.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.1.1-3.3.1.2

    A. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2 (NVG) / 1500/3 (Night Unaided)
    B. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2,(NVG) / 1000/3 (Night Unaided)
    C. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2 (NVG) / 1000/2 (Night Unaided)
    D. 700/1 (Day and NVG) / 1000/2 (Night Unaided)
    B. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2,(NVG) / 1000/3 (Night Unaided)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. 105(122). IFR Takeoff Minimums for training flights require weather equal to or higher than _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.2.1

    A. equal to or higher than published approach visibility minimums at the destination
    B. published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less than 1/4 mile (RVR 1200) at the departure airfield.
    C. equal to or higher than published ceiling and visibility minimums at the destination
    D. published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less then 1/2 mile (RVR 2400) at the departure airfield
    D. published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less then 1/2 mile (RVR 2400) at the departure airfield
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. 106(123). An IFR departure alternate airfield for operational flights _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.2.2

    A. should be within 60 minutes flight time
    B. must have prevailing weather equal to or better than the lowest published approach ceiling and visibility minimum (no lower than 1200 RVR),
    and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after the time you expect to arrive
    C. is not required if visibility at the departure point is at or above the published visibility minimums required for the appropriate aircraft
    category for an available approach
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  107. 107(124). For instrument flight planning purposes, when _____ criterion is used, or when destination weather information may be unreliable,
    fuel requirements for descent, approach, and missed approach will be _____ pounds. Ensure sufficient fuel remains to arrive at the alternate with appropriate reserves.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.5.2

    A. visibility and ceiling, 400
    B. visibility-only, 500
    C. visibility-only, 400
    D. circling, 400
    B. visibility-only, 500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. 108(125). Minimum en route altitude for unaided night navigation is 500 feet AHO within 5 NM for _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.10.2

    A. operational flights
    B. training flights
    C. both A and B
    D. none of the above
    C. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. 109(126). Helicopter crewmembers will wear survival vest/Load Bearing Vest (LBV) on all flights departing the local traffic pattern.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.12.2

    A. True
    B. False
  110. 110(127). A new or corrected DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance Form F, need not be recomputed provided the initial takeoff gross weight (item 16)
    is not changed by more than ____pounds.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.17.3

    A. 500
    B. 1,000
    C. 200
    D. None of the above
    A. 500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. 111(128). Malfunctions of the Enhanced Fuel Quantity Indicating (EFQI) system should not affect main fuel quantity indications and do not restrict
    the crew from flying the aircraft. However, if mission requirements dictate the use of auxiliary fuel with a malfunction in the EFQI then _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.23.2

    A. Both A and B
    B. the tank must be visually checked prior to takeoff
    C. the SQ/CC may approve the flight
    D. a crewmember must be designated to monitor the transfer of auxiliary fuel to preclude damaging the auxiliary fuel transfer pumps
    A. Both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. 112(92). If an alternate is required, fuel for approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel when _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 2.4.3.1

    A. ceiling and visibility criteria is used
    B. ETA is less than 1 hour
    C. ETA is greater than 1 hour
    D. visibility only weather criteria is used
    D. visibility only weather criteria is used
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. 113(93). Regarding helicopter operations, the required visibility minimum may be reduced to _____ of the published visibility minimums for category A aircraft.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.6.4

    A. one-quarter
    B. one-eighth
    C. one-third
    D. one-half
    D. one-half
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. 114(94). Regardless of weather, pilots must designate an alternate on all IFR flight plans when filing to a destination where _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.7.2

    A. all compatible approaches require radar
    B. there is no weather reporting capability
    C. required navaids are unmonitored
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  115. 115(129). Passengers will not occupy a seat with access to a set of flight controls.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.3

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  116. 116(130). Aircraft will avoid taxi obstructions by ______feet without wing walkers and by ____feet with wing walkers.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.8.1

    A. 25, 15
    B. 10, 5
    C. 25, 10
    D. 15, 10
    C. 25, 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. 117(131). The maximum hover taxi speed is _____, or as required when directed by ATC (N/A for air taxi).
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.8.3

    A. 10 KGS
    B. 15 KGS
    C. 10 KIAS
    D. 15 KIAS
    B. 15 KGS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. 118(132). The maximum ground taxi speed is ____ KGS, or as required when directed by ATC.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.8.4

    A. 20
    B. 10
    C. 15
    D. 5
    B. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. 119(133). During rotor turning crew changes, the new crew will review _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.9.3

    A. weather, flight plan, aircraft forms, asterisk item before takeoff items
    B. aircraft forms, weight and balance, asterisk item before takeoff items and TOLD
    C. flight plan, aircraft forms, weight and balance, TOLD
    D. weather, aircraft forms, TOLD
    B. aircraft forms, weight and balance, asterisk item before takeoff items and TOLD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. 120(134). If the aircraft commander becomes doubtful of the helicopter's airworthiness or encounters hazardous weather conditions, a ____ should be accomplished.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.13

    A. hit check
    B. power computation
    C. precautionary landing
    D. weather divert
    C. precautionary landing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. 121(135). In addition to flight manual prohibited maneuvers, all of the following maneuvers will not be practiced in the aircraft except ____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.1

    A. dual ECU/DEC malfunctions
    B. throttle reduction on a single engine
    C. power settling
    D. actual engine shutdown in flight
    B. throttle reduction on a single engine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. 122(137). Accomplish all emergency procedures to _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.5

    A. runways or taxiways
    B. helipads
    C. other areas approved by the SQ/CC and listed in the local Chapter 8.
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  123. 123(138). Marginal power and maximum performance takeoffs will be terminated when clear of the simulated obstacle and above
    safe single engine airspeed (or _____ KIAS if safe single engine airspeed is not available).
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.6 - 4.20.3.7

    A. 70
    B. 100
    C. 80
    D. 50
    C. 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. 124(139). When practicing a rolling takeoff, simulate max power _____percent below hover power.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.8
    A. 15
    B. 20
    C. 10
    D. 5
    C. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. 125(140). Initiate practice steep approaches at ____, _____, and a _____degree apparent angle.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.11

    A. 300 feet AHO, 50 knots KGS, 45
    B. 300 feet AGL, 50 knots KIAS, 45
    C. 300 feet AGL, 50 knots KGS, 45
    D. none of the above
    C. 300 feet AGL, 50 knots KGS, 45
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. 126(141). The maximum rate of descent on a steep approach is _____feet a minute.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.11

    A. 800
    B. 300
    C. 1000
    D. 500
    A. 800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. 127(142). The maximum touchdown speed for a practice roll-on landing is _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.12

    A. 60 KGS
    B. 50 KIAS
    C. 50 KGS
    D. 60 KIAS
    A. 60 KGS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. 128(143). When reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine, initiation of practice single-engine
    emergencies will not be lower than _____ feet AGL, _____ KIAS.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.13

    A. 500 / 80
    B. 500 / 50
    C. 300 / 80
    D. 300 / 50
    C. 300 / 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. 129(144). Practice single-engine emergencies may be initiated below 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS so long as torque available is
    limited on both engines versus reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine by actual throttle manipulation.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.13

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  130. 130(145). The following simulated single-engine maneuvers will be practiced by simulating a limited torque available on both
    engines versus reducing torque by actual throttle manipulation _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.13.1

    A. single-engine approaches to a spot (min-roll)
    B. A and B
    C. single-engine air refueling
    D. none of the above
    B. A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. 131(147). Practice autorotations will terminate and a power recovery will be initiated at the first indications of ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.18.1

    A. abnormally high/low rotor RPM
    B. excessive sink rate
    C. low airspeed
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  132. 132(155). For restricted visibility approaches, when the anticipated power margin is _____or less, a second
    aircrew member will reconfirm power computations using flight manual performance charts or the CDU Calculator Page.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.5

    A. 15%
    B. 3%
    C. 5%
    D. 10%
    D. 10%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. 133(156). For restricted visibility approaches training, power available must be equal to or greater than _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.4.1

    A. Hover power
    B. Hover power + 5%
    C. OGE hover power + 5%
    D. OGE
    C. OGE hover power + 5%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. 134(157). For water operations training, power available must be equal to or greater than _______________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.3.1

    A. Hover power + 5%
    B. OGE hover power + 5%
    C. OGE
    D. Hover power
    B. OGE hover power + 5%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. 135(158). When landing to a surface area smaller than your rotor diameter, such as a pinnacle or ridgeline, power for ____ hover must be available.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.2.3

    A. an OGE + 5%
    B. a 10 foot
    C. a 10 foot hover + 5%
    D. an OGE
    D. an OGE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. 136(159). Do not initiate fuel dumping except for life and death rescue missions, operational missions, MAJCOM exercises and emergencies.
    Except during emergencies, or operational deeds dictate due to inability to climb due to threats or weather, fuel will not be dumped
    below 3,000 feet AGL or over agricultural/populated areas.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.14

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  137. 137(160). Do not taxi another aircraft within ___ feet of a refueling operation.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.12

    A. 75
    B. 25
    C. 10
    D. 50
    D. 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. 138(161). Aircraft may be flown with one strobe light inoperative.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.7.1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  139. 139(162).____ approval is required to remove the FE and AG seats. _____ may delegate this authority no lower than ____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.20.2

    A. SQ/CC, SQ/CC, SQ/DO
    B. OG/CC, OG/CC, SQ/CC
    C. ACC/A3, ACC/A3, WG/CC
    D. WG/CC, WG/CC, OG/CC
    B. OG/CC, OG/CC, SQ/CC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. 140(164). Conduct all operations at or above ____ above ground level (AGL) except when lower altitudes are required for takeoff, departure, arrival, landing, operational missions, training flights in approved areas or routes, or approved exercise missions.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.10

    A. 1000 feet
    B. 500 feet
    C. 300 feet
    D. altitude required
    B. 500 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. 141(165). For all flights, VFR or IFR, plan to arrive at destination with a ____-pound usable fuel reserve.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.5.3

    A. 600
    B. 300
    C. 500
    D. 400
    C. 500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. 142(166). Prior to each flight the aircraft commander will ensure all passengers are briefed IAW TO 1H- 60(H)G-1CL-1 and applicable MAJCOM guidance.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.2.3

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  143. 143(51). Aircraft energy is the combination of airspeed (kinetic energy) and altitude (potential energy) at any time during flight.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-1 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.1

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  144. 144(52). Engine performance is affected by pressure altitude (PA) and outside air temperature, with ____ generally having the largest impact on power available.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-1 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.2

    A. density altitude
    B. temperature
    C. gross weight
    D. altitude
    B. temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. 145(53). The lowest point of the total power required curve indicates the airspeed that normally determines the aircraft's
    level flight speed for VY, VBE, and minimum rate-of-descent speed for autorotation is referred to as the ____ speed.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-5 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.4.4

    A. bucket
    B. Vne
    C. Vh
    D. Ps
    A. bucket
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. 146(54). As gross weights and DA increase, the single-engine airspeed range _____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-5 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.4.5

    A. is unaffected
    B. narrows
    C. widens
    B. narrows
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. 147(55). For an HH-60G in a stabilized hover in a no-wind environment, the application of right pedal for a moderate-rate
    pedal turn will result in an approximate ____ change in torque.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-7 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.6

    A. 5 % increase
    B. 5 % decrease
    C. 10 % decrease
    D. 10 % increase
    B. 5 % decrease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. 148(56). When hovering with a crosswind, the application of pedal to hold heading will result in power (required to hover)
    readings that will not match those estimated for a no-wind environment.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-10 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.7

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  149. 149(57). As main rotor and tail rotor thrust are both increased to cushion the landing, the helicopter may exhibit a right
    lateral drift. This phenomenon is most noticeable just prior to touchdown during an approach to the ground and is known as .
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-11 Chap: 14 Para: 14.4.1

    A. cross control state
    B. vortex ring state
    C. retreating blade stall
    D. translating tendency
    D. translating tendency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. 150(58). If a loss of tail rotor effectiveness occurs, consider counteracting by _____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-11 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.7.2.1

    A. reducing power
    B. allowing the aircraft to align into the wind
    C. increasing forward airspeed
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  151. 151(59). Excessive cyclic input and insufficient collective application may result in inadequate taxi speed and droop-stop pounding.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-3 Chap: 9 Para: 9.2.1.1.4

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  152. 152(60). Hover references off the nose of the helicopter (or using the probe on the pilot side) will help in detecting heading and
    sideward drift. If only one reference is available, attempt to position it at a ____ degree angle to the side.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-4 Chap: 9 Para: 9.2.2.1

    A. 90
    B. 30
    C. 60
    D. 45
    D. 45
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. 153(61). The normal takeoff may be made from the ground or a hover. Target torque value for the normal takeoff is ____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-7 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.1.1

    A. hover power +10 percent
    B. OGE + 5 percent
    C. OGE power
    D. 10 ft. hover power
    A. hover power +10 percent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. 154(62). Using more than ____degrees nose low when in close proximity to the ground can lead to difficulty during a single-engine or
    uncommanded stabilator movement emergency or result in inadvertent probe-to-ground contact.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-8 Chap: 9 Para: NOTE

    A. 12
    B. 5
    C. 10
    D. 7
    C. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. 155(63). For practice and simulated maximum performance takeoffs, use a target torque value of ____ or as specified by the IP/EP and a 100-foot vertical obstacle.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-8 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.2.1

    A. intended hover height + 5%
    B. OGE hover power
    C. 10 foot hover power + 10%
    D. OGE hover power + 5%
    D. OGE hover power + 5%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. 156(64). Maximum performance takeoff: As the aircraft clears the obstacle, adjust cyclic to obtain an accelerative attitude
    (e.g., approximately 5 to 10 degrees nose low) and allow the aircraft to crab into the wind while maintaining desired ground track.
    Once the aircraft is clear of the obstacle and above safe single-engine airspeed, or _____ if safe single-engine airspeed is not available,
    continue with normal takeoff procedures.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-9 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.2.3

    A. ETL
    B. 60 KIAS
    C. 70-80 KIAS
    D. 30-40 KIAS
    C. 70-80 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. 157(65). The marginal power takeoff is made from the ground or a stabilized 10-foot hover. For practice or simulated marginal power
    takeoffs, use a target torque value of ____ and a 50-foot vertical obstacle.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-10 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.3.1

    A. OGE
    B. OGE +10%
    C. 10 ft hvr pwr +5%
    D. 10 ft hvr pwr
    D. 10 ft hvr pwr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. 158(66). The ____ is used when power available is limited (e.g., high gross weights/high DA) and will not allow for the use of other types of takeoffs.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-11 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.4.1

    A. marginal power take-off
    B. normal take-off
    C. rolling take-off
    D. maximum power take-off
    C. rolling take-off
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. 159(67). For practice rolling takeoffs, use a simulated maximum power available value of ____. For rolling takeoffs when power is actually limited,
    apply torque as necessary, up to maximum available power (without droop).
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-11 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.4.1

    A. 5 percent less than 10-foot hover power
    B. 10 foot hover power
    C. 10 percent less than 10-foot hover power
    D. OGE minus 10 percent
    C. 10 percent less than 10-foot hover power
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. 160(68). To begin a rolling take-off, place the cyclic forward of neutral so that the tip-path plane is slightly above the horizon. Increase the collective and release the brakes.
    Apply approximately ___ percent torque to accelerate the aircraft.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-11 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.4.3

    A. 30 to 40
    B. 50
    C. 25
    D. 18 to 22
    A. 30 to 40
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. 161(69). The normal approach uses a _____ degree apparent angle and is initiated at ____ KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The normal approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-13 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.3.1

    A. 30, 100
    B. 45, 80
    C. 30, 80
    D. 30, 90
    C. 30, 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. 162(70). The steep approach is used when obstacles or terrain will not allow the use of other types of approaches. The steep approach uses a 45-degree apparent angle,
    is initiated at _____ and _____, and may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-14 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.4.1

    A. 50 KIAS, 300 AGL
    B. 80 KGS, 200 AGL
    C. 50 KGS, 300 AGL
    D. 80 KIAS, 200 AGL
    C. 50 KGS, 300 AGL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. 163(71). The shallow approach uses a 10-degree apparent angle and is initiated at 80 KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The shallow approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-16 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.5.1

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  164. 164(72). Aerodynamic braking is normally used when wheel-braking action may be inadequate due to the landing surface's size or surface or there is a concern that the
    aircraft's brakes may overheat. By using the aerodynamic forces of the main rotor system, the aircraft can be stopped or slowed down significantly in a relatively short distance.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-18 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.6.1

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  165. 165(73). When executing a rolling landing, maintain airspeed ____ or above minimum safe single-engine airspeed, until the landing area can be reached in the
    event of a loss of power.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-19 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.6.3

    A. above 50 KGS
    B. above 80 KGS
    C. between ETL and 60 KIAS
    D. between 60 to 80 KIAS
    D. between 60 to 80 KIAS
  166. 166(74). During a Boost/SAS malfunction, a well-executed ____ approach requires little maneuvering to terminate. Whatever approach angle is selected,
    ensure slow, smooth collective inputs at termination.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-22 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5 NOTE

    A. Shallow
    B. Steep
    C. Normal
    B. Steep
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. 167(75). During a stabilator malfunction, in order to provide a normal deceleration, sight picture, and landing attitude, the stabilator is slewed full down below ____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-24 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.3.3.5.1

    A. 50 KGS
    B. 40 KIAS
    C. 40 KGS
    D. 50 KIAS
    B. 40 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. 168(76). With the Stab set at zero degrees, the aircraft will take more time and distance to decelerate. The nose of the aircraft will pitch up several degrees higher than normal during the deceleration (particularly on short final), perhaps making forward visibility difficult.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-25 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.3.3.5.2

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  169. 169(77). When a throttle is dragged to simulate a single-engine failure, consider dragging the throttle on the ____ engine in the event of inadvertent shutdown.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-26 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.4 NOTE

    A. throttle closest to the PF
    B. weaker (e.g., lower engine torque factor [ETF])
    C. throttle closest to the PNF
    D. stronger (e.g., higher engine torque factor [ETF])
    B. weaker (e.g., lower engine torque factor [ETF])
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. 170(78). During practice emergency DEC operations, the PNF pulls the throttle downward out of the FLY detent and smartly/swiftly advances it full forward to LOCKOUT,
    then smartly/swiftly reduces it to _____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-26 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.5.2.1

    A. OFF
    B. an intermediate position between IDLE and FLY (the six o'clock position is recommended)
    C. FLY
    D. IDLE
    B. an intermediate position between IDLE and FLY (the six o'clock position is recommended)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. 171(79). For autorotations, any crewmember noting an out of parameter condition or adverse trend should announce the condition/trend and/or direct a ____, as necessary.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-29 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6 NOTE

    A. KIO
    B. terminate
    C. missed approach
    D. go around
    D. go around
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. 172(80). Some actual autorotations might require a near-zero ground speed, such as landing in/on ____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-30 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6.4.4

    A. trees
    B. water
    C. a confined LZ
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  173. 173(81). Allowing the aircraft attitude to pitch up during initiation of practice autorotations can result in ______.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-31 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6.5

    A. arcing the approach angle
    B. loss of termination point
    C. improper trim control
    D. loss of airspeed throughout the maneuver
    D. loss of airspeed throughout the maneuver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. 174(82). During performance of practice autorotations, initiating the wake-up while leveling the aircraft may not allow sufficient time for the engines to respond and may result in rotor droop and/or inadvertent landing.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-32 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6 CAUTION

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  175. 175(83). During brownout/whiteout operations and _____ wind conditions, extreme caution must be exercised due to the potential of near-zero visibility conditions.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-19 Chap: 10 Para: 10.21

    A. both A and B
    B. moderate
    C. light
    D. zero
    A. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. 176(84). Flying the high recon at approximately _____ should provide a reasonable compromise between providing a familiar sight picture and margin above hazards/obstacles, while being low enough to provide good viewing/analysis of the landing area.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-26 Chap: 10 Para: 10.26.2.1

    A. 300 feet above site elevation
    B. 300 AHO
    C. 50 feet above the highest obstacle on flight path
    D. 500 feet AGL
    A. 300 feet above site elevation
  177. 177(85). Light and variable wind conditions could result in a tailwind component on final approach, significantly increasing power requirements.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-3 Chap: 10 Para: 10.5.2

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  178. 178(86). High DA, clear skies, and vegetation can cause a bubble effect on mountaintops that can result in surface temperatures of ____
    degrees warmer than the same elevation outside the bubble.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-4 Chap: 10 Para: 10.6.1.2

    A. 8 to 15
    B. several
    C. 3 to 4
    D. 5 to 7
    B. several
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. 179(87). A common problem associated with steep approaches over barriers is that translational lift may be lost when the helicopter is possibly ____ AGL.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-9 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.1.3

    A. 100-200 feet
    B. 25 feet
    C. 50-100 feet
    D. 75 feet
    A. 100-200 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. 180(88). Use of IR lighting in brownout or whiteout conditions can seriously degrade visibility. When these conditions are anticipated, IR lighting, if used, should be _____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 8-1 Chap: 8 Para: 8.2 CAUTION

    A. controlled by the PNF
    B. used at maximum brightness
    C. dimmed to the lowest level necessary to safely accomplish the landing
    D. utilized below 100 feet AGL
    C. dimmed to the lowest level necessary to safely accomplish the landing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. 181(89). During formulation of approach plans during remote area reconnaissance, a normal approach may prove advantageous because it provides a familiar _____.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-9 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.1.1

    A. sight picture
    B. closure rate
    C. power application
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  182. 182(90). The _____ is a proactive, pre-emptive action taken when external conditions warn of a deteriorating condition.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-10 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.3

    A. go-around
    B. escape
    C. emergency plan
    D. none of the above
    A. go-around
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. 183(91). The ____ is a reactive maneuver performed because of malfunction or because the PF failed to notice a deteriorating condition.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-10 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.3

    A. emergency plan
    B. go-around
    C. escape
    D. none of the above
    C. escape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. 184(168). Failure to wait the full ____ minutes for APU cool down may result in the APU failing to start.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-15 NOTE Chap: 1

    A. 30
    B. 60
    C. 10
    D. 20
    A. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. 185(20). If the APU does not start, you should wait _____ before attempting a restart.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-13 Chap: 2 Para: CAUTION

    A. 30 seconds
    B. 30 minutes
    C. 2 minutes
    D. 5 minutes
    C. 2 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. 186(21). Monitor main fuel quantity during probe extension and retraction to ensure no more than the normal _____ pound changes occur in total main fuel quantity.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-21 Chap: 2 Para: CAUTION

    A. 80 to 120
    B. 30 to 50
    C. 50 to 80
    D. 20 to 30
    D. 20 to 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. 187(22). Due to the danger to personnel of electromagnetic fields radiating from the SATCOM antenna, no personnel should be on top of the aircraft when transmitting.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-22 Chap: 2 Para: WARNING

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  188. 188(25). With the BACKUP HYDRAULIC PUMP as the sole source of hydraulic pressure for either the #1 or
    #2 TAIL SERVO, do not ____ during shutdown.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-45 Chap: 2 Para: WARNING

    A. turn the SAS-1 off
    B. move the TAIL ROTOR SERVO switch to NORMAL
    C. move the BACKUP HYD PUMP switch from AUTO
    D. all of the above
    C. move the BACKUP HYD PUMP switch from AUTO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. 189(13). If the stabilator is slewed up using battery power, _____ to get a normal engagement of the automatic mode.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-80 Chap: 1

    A. press and hold the pilot/copilot stabilator slew up switch on the cyclic
    B. press the AUTO CONTROL RESET switch
    C. reset the STAB CONTR circuit breaker
    D. it must be manually slewed back down
    D. it must be manually slewed back down
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. 190(23). During the Engine HIT check, if TRQ is greater than 5% at 92% to 98% Nf, a torque stiction malfunction is possible _____.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-29 Chap: 2 Para: WARNING
    A. make an AF Form 781 write-up, before accepting the aircraft
    B. reaccomplish the HIT check
    C. do not fly the aircraft
    D. use 90% Nf instead
    C. do not fly the aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. 191(24). Do not place the MODE SEL switch to AUTO prior to moving the MAN AUX FLOW switches to NO FLOW.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-31 Chap: 2 Para: CAUTION

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  192. 192(152). Recommended hoist altitude over water or vessels is the minimum altitude necessary to avoid salt spray and/or shipboard obstacles.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.3

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  193. 193(95). Designate an alternate, for the first point of intended landing if the worst weather is forecast to be less than _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.7.1.2

    A. 700/1
    B. 1000/2
    C. Ceiling 400 ft. above the lowest compatible approach minimums, vis 2
    D. B and C, whichever is higher
    D. B and C, whichever is higher
  194. 194(96). Which of the following is an authorized method of departing IFR?
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.3

    A. Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)
    B. Standard Instrument Departure (SIDs) Procedures
    C. Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA)
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  195. 195(101). Helicopters may fly in fixed-wing rectangular pattern if they maintain a compatible airspeed with the fixed-wing traffic.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.11.8.4

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  196. 196(103). On a diverse departure, track runway centerline to _____before turning on course.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.7

    A. the departure end of the runway
    B. 500 feet above the departure end of the runway
    C. 400 feet above the departure end of the runway
    D. the minimum radar vectoring altitude
    C. 400 feet above the departure end of the runway
  197. 197(136). Simulated hoist and gun emergencies may be performed at night with _____.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.2
    A. both A and B
    B. concurrence of the aircraft commander
    C. an instructor/trainer or evaluator/certifier qualified in the event is on board the helicopter
    D. never
    B. concurrence of the aircraft commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. 198(146). Boost/SAS-Off maneuvers can be initiated .
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.15

    A. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 60 KIAS
    B. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 200 feet AGL and 60 KIAS
    C. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS
    D. in straight and level flight with a minimum of 200 feet AGL and 80 KIAS
    C. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. 199(167). When performing hover operations with light and variable winds at high gross weight and/or in a high density altitude environment, _____ the power required computations
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-5 WARNING Chap: 7

    A. subtract 5 percent from
    B. double check on pilot's CDU
    C. add a margin to
    D. confirm with the FE
    C. add a margin to
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. 200(178). For EMCON 2 - 4 Aided HAAR, receivers will FLASH formation/position lights _____ seconds prior to movement for disconnect.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-2 Chap: Part 3 Para: 403 c. (3)

    A. 3
    B. 5
    C. 0 (position lights to flash is technique only)
    D. 6
    B. 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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