C-32 MQF.txt

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bowe96
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298900
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C-32 MQF.txt
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2015-03-22 10:50:58
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MQF
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C-32 MQF - 10 Feb 13
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  1. How many minutes of oxygen are available when the PASS OXYGEN ON message is illuminated?
    A. Less than Zero
    B. 30 minutes
    C. More than 30
    D. 22 minutes
    D. 22 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. During a CABIN ALTITUDE or Rapid Depressurization, the first action will be to accomplish:
    A. OXYGEN MASKS…..ON/100%
    B. CREW COMMUNICATIONS…..ESTABLISH
    C. DESCENT…..INITIATE
    D. VMO/MMO….MAINTAIN
    A. OXYGEN MASKS…..ON/100%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. During a CABIN ALTITUDE or Rapid Depressurization when an emergency descent is required, accomplish which of the following:
    A. Move thrust levers to idle, retract the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
    B. Move thrust levers to idle, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
    C. Move thrust levers to idle, extend the landing gear, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
    D. Extend the landing gear, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
    B. Move thrust levers to idle, extend the speedbrakes and descend at Vmo/Mmo (If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads).
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. When accomplishing Aborted Engine Start procedures, initially place the:
    A. FUEL CONTROL SWITCH (affected side)….CUT OFF
    B. throttle (affected side)…..Retard
    C. ENG START selector….AUTO
    d. all of the above
    A. FUEL CONTROL SWITCH (affected side)….CUT OFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. When accomplishing Aborted Engine Start procedures, starter re-engagement above 30% N2 may:
    A. result in a hot start
    B. result in starter or gearbox damage
    C. damage engine start selector switch
    d. all of the above
    B. result in starter or gearbox damage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. If an engine start is aborted, motor the engine by selecting ENG START selector….GND, for a minimum of:
    A. 15 seconds
    B. 60 seconds
    C. 90 seconds
    D. 30 seconds
    D. 30 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. If a Dual Engine Failure occurs because either both engines have flamed out or have no response to thrust lever movement, accomplish the following:
    a. ENGINE START SELECTORS (both)….FLT
    b. THRUST LEVERS (both)….IDLE
    c. FUEL CONTROL SWITCHES (both)….CUT OFF, then RUN
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  8. When accomplishing the Dual Engine Failure checklist, be aware that the speedbrakes may automatically retract to the ____ % position when the airspeed exceeds 330 KIAS.
    A. 50
    B. 30
    C. 40
    D. 60
    A. 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The Engine Limit/Surge/Stall quick reaction checklist directs selecting A/T ARM switch….OFF and placing the thrust lever (affected side) Confirm….Retard until indications remain within normal limits or the thrust lever is at Idle.
    a. True.
    b. False.
    a. True.
  10. If Engine indications are unusual, indications are rapidly approaching or exceeding limits, unusual engine noises are heard, or there is no response to thrust lever movement or the response is abnormal, refer to the Engine Limit/Surge/Stall quick reaction checklist which will direct you to:
    a. move A/T ARM switch….OFF
    b. retard thrust lever (affected side) Confirm….until indications remain within normal limits or the thrust lever is at Idle
    c. cycle fuel control switch to cut off then run
    d. A and B above
    d. A and B above
  11. According to the Engine Failure or Shutdown checklist, one-engine inoperative landing flap position for landing is flaps ____ and speed ____.
    A. 20; VREF + 80
    B. 20; VREF 20
    C. 25; VREF 25
    d. none of the above
    B. 20; VREF 20
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. If you get an APU fire indication, reference the APU FIRE checklist which will direct you to:
    A. immediately advise the passengers to evacuate
    B. APU fire switch…. Confirm….Pull, rotate to the stop, and hold for 1 second
    C. immediately place the thrust lever in idle and pull the engine fire switch
    D. press the cockpit panic switch
    B. APU fire switch…. Confirm….Pull, rotate to the stop, and hold for 1 second
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The first step in the ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist is:
    A. A/T ARM switch….OFF
    B. FUEL CONTROL switch…..Confirm…..CUT OFF
    C. Engine fire switch…..Confirm…..Pull
    D. Thrust lever (affected side)….Confirm…..Idle
    A. A/T ARM switch….OFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. If the engine fire warning light stays illuminated after pulling the engine fire switch:
    A. set transponder mode selector to TA
    B. engine fire switch….Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second
    C. start the APU (if available)
    D. immediately increase airspeed to Vmo/Mmo
    B. engine fire switch….Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. If, 30 seconds after initially rotating the engine fire switch, the engine fire warning light stays illuminated:
    A. prepare for immediate landing
    B. Engine fire switch….Rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second
    C. immediately increase speed to Vmo/Mmo
    D. turn off associated air conditioning pack valve
    B. Engine fire switch….Rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist directs that for an engine-out landing, use flaps ____ for landing and flaps ____ for go-around.
    A. 20; 5
    B. 30; 20
    C. 5: 1
    D. 20; 30
    A. 20; 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. If a tailpipe fire occurs on the ground with no engine fire warning, the Engine Tailpipe Fire checklist directs to immediately:
    A. commence with passenger evacuation
    B. position the affected engine start selector to RUN
    C. position the FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side)….CUT OFF
    d. all of the above
    C. position the FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side)….CUT OFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Should you experience stabilizer movement occurring without a signal to trim, place:
    A. disconnect autothrottles
    B. throttles to maximum thrust
    C. disengage autopilot
    D. STABILIZER TRIM CUT OUT SWITCHES…..CUT OUT
    D. STABILIZER TRIM CUT OUT SWITCHES…..CUT OUT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. If you discover the aircraft airspeed or Mach indications are suspected to be unreliable, the Airspeed Unreliable checklist directs that should pitch attitude and thrust not be normal for phase of flight:
    a. autopilot disengage switch….Push
    b. autothrottle disconnect switch….Push
    c. F/D switches (both)….OFF
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  20. Simultaneous overspeed and stall warnings may be evidence of unreliable airspeed/Mach indication and require you to reference the Airspeed Unreliable checklist which will direct what initial action?
    A. reduce pitch attitude while simultaneously reducing thrust
    B. advance thrust levers to maximum thrust
    C. check the pitch attitude and thrust
    d. none of the above
    C. check the pitch attitude and thrust
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which of the following EICAS messages may be evidence of unreliable airspeed/Mach indication requiring accomplishment of the Airspeed Unreliable checklist?
    a. PROBE HEAT
    b. CAPT PITOT
    c. MACH/SPEED TRIM
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  22. Do not pressurize the airplane due to possible structural damage associated with a Tailstrike.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  23. If the TRU 1 or TRU 2 OVERTEMP light illuminates on the Self Defense System annunciation panel the TRU X OVERTEMP checklist will direct:
    a. CIU MODE SELECT SWITCH….OFF
    b. POWER SWITCH….OFF
    c. Monitor system for applicable equipment shutdown
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  24. At the first indication of a stall buffet or stick shaker:
    a. Hold the control column firmly
    b. Disconnect autopilot and autothrottles
    c. Smoothly apply nose down elevator to reduce the angle of attack until buffet or stick shaker stops.
    d. All the above
    d. All the above
  25. When performing the stall recovery maneuver, simultaneously advance thrust levers to maximum thrust, smoothly adjust pitch attitude to avoid ground contact or obstacles, level the wings and raise the gear and flaps if extended.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  26. If the decision is made to abort the takeoff, the Pilot Flying must:
    A. immediately apply maximum manual braking
    B. immediately extend the speedbrakes and initiate maximum reverse thrust
    C. without delay: close the thrust levers and verify proper operation of RTO autobrakes or apply maximum manual wheel brakes
    d. A and B above
    C. without delay: close the thrust levers and verify proper operation of RTO autobrakes or apply maximum manual wheel brakes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. If accomplishing a terrain avoidance maneuver in response to the GPWS warning, rotate the aircraft to:
    A. immediately to the pitch limit indicator
    B. an initial pitch attitude of 20 degrees
    C. approximately 15 degrees
    D. follow flight director commands on the go-around
    B. an initial pitch attitude of 20 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. If terrain remains a threat after initially rotating the aircraft in response to a GPWS warning:
    A. continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator or stick shaker or initial buffet
    B. raise flaps and gear, if extended, to enhance climb capability
    C. engage the autopilot and autothrottles
    D. immediately turn the aircraft away from perceived terrain threat
    A. continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator or stick shaker or initial buffet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which of the following configuration changes is allowed when performing the terrain avoidance maneuver?
    A. retracting the landing gear
    B. retracting the speedbrakes
    C. extending the flaps
    D. retracting the flaps
    B. retracting the speedbrakes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. If a resolution advisory (RA) occurs, use the autopilot to maneuver the aircraft away from the oncoming traffic.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  31. For a climb resolution advisory (RA) in a landing configuration:
    A. do not change the aircraft configuration
    B. advance thrust levers to ensure maximum thrust and call for "flaps 20"
    C. immediately retract the landing gear
    d. A and C above
    B. advance thrust levers to ensure maximum thrust and call for "flaps 20"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. If windshear is encountered prior to V1, there may not be sufficient runway remaining to stop if an RTO is initiated at V1.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  33. Unacceptable flight path deviations are recognized as uncontrolled changes from normal steady state flight conditions below 1000 feet AGL, in excess of ____ kts or vertical speed changes greater than ____ ft per minute.
    A. 50; 5000
    B. 10; 1000
    C. 15; 500
    D. 20; 1000
    C. 15; 500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. When encountering severe wind shear, the performance capability of the AFDS may be exceeded. In this case the pilot flying must be prepared to disconnect the autopilot and autothrottle and fly manually.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  35. During a manual wind shear recovery, rotate to an initial pitch attitude of ___ :
    A. stick shaker
    B. 10 degrees
    C. 22 degrees
    D. 15 degrees
    D. 15 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. If an engine fails between V1 and liftoff, rotate smoothly in one continuous motion to approximately 11 degrees of pitch. Maintain desired airspeed of _____ to ______.
    A. V1; V2 + 30
    B. V2; V2 + 50
    C. V2; V2 + 10
    D. V2; V2 + 15
    D. V2; V2 + 15
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The last step of the Evacuation checklist is:
    A. Outflow Valve….Close
    B. Parking Brake….Set
    C. Passenger Evacuation….Initiate
    D. APU Fire Switch….Rotate
    C. Passenger Evacuation….Initiate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. If the outflow valve is not open on the ground and an evacuation is required the Evacuation checklist directs:
    A. place cabin altitude mode selector to AUTO
    B. place cabin altitude MODE SELECT….MAN and CABIN ALTITUDE MANUAL control….Hold in CLIMB until the outflow valve is fully open
    C. pull emergency depressurization T-handle
    D. place cabin altitude mode selector to AUTO 2 and cabin altitude manual control to CLIMB
    B. place cabin altitude MODE SELECT….MAN and CABIN ALTITUDE MANUAL control….Hold in CLIMB until the outflow valve is fully open
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The Evacuation checklist directs which fire switches to be overridden and pulled during an evacuation?
    A. both engines only
    B. only the engine on fire
    C. APU & both engines
    D. APU only
    C. APU & both engines
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The maximum runway slope is:
    A. 1 %
    B. 2 %
    C. 4 %
    D. 3 %
    B. 2 %
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Maximum operating altitude is:
    A. 41,000 ft. PA
    B. 40,000 ft. PA
    C. 42,000 ft. PA
    D. 39,000 ft. PA
    C. 42,000 ft. PA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude is:
    A. 12,500 feet PA
    B. 13,000 feet PA
    C. 12,000 feet PA
    D. 13,500 feet PA
    D. 13,500 feet PA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind is ___ kts.
    A. 20
    B. 5
    C. 10
    D. 15
    D. 15
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Turbulence penetration airspeed is:
    A. 280 KIAS/.76 Mach, whichever is lower
    B. 270 KIAS/.76 Mach, whichever is lower
    C. 290 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
    D. 300 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
    C. 290 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is:
    A. 200 ft.
    B. 100 ft.
    C. None allowed.
    D. 300 ft.
    A. 200 ft.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Do not operate the weather radar in a hangar or within 50 feet of any personnel or fuel spill.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  47. The maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW) is:
    A. 186,000 lbs
    B. 210,000 lbs
    C. 256,000 lbs
    D. 255,000 lbs
    D. 255,000 lbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) is:
    A. 166,000 lbs
    B. 186,000 lbs
    C. 187,400 lbs
    D. 156,000 lbs
    C. 187,400 lbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Max operating cabin differential is 8.6 +/-.05 psi.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  50. After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below:
    A. 400 feet AGL
    B. 100 feet AGL
    C. 300 feet AGL
    D. 200 feet AGL
    D. 200 feet AGL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged:
    A. will not affect the longitudinal roll control when the autopilot is disengaged
    B. may only be accomplished above 200 feet AGL
    C. has no affect on the aileron trim since the autopilot is engaged
    D. is prohibited
    D. is prohibited
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. An autoland may not be accomplished at airports with pressure altitudes above 8,400 feet.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  53. The maximum crosswind for autoland operations is ___ kts.
    A. 10
    B. 25
    C. 40
    D. 15
    B. 25
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Engine vibration display may not be blanked by the pilots for takeoff.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  55. If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the maximum time for operating at full takeoff thrust is increased from ____ to ____ minutes.
    A. 10/20
    B. 3/6
    C. 5/15
    D. 5/10
    D. 5/10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Normal starter duty cycle is up to ___ minutes continuous operation then run down to zero N2.
    A. 5
    B. 3
    C. 10
    D. 2
    D. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. After three consecutive 2 minute starter cycles have been accomplished without a start:
    A. starter may be left on indefinitely
    B. a fourth attempt may immediately be made
    C. allow a 15 minute cooling period
    D. set engine start switch to EMER position
    C. allow a 15 minute cooling period
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Reverse thrust may be used while airborne to assist in descent.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  59. Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS II resolution advisory.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  60. The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of 3 consecutive starts or attempts within a:
    A. 30-minute period.
    B. 60-minute period.
    C. 45-minute period.
    d. None of the above.
    B. 60-minute period.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Pilots may use the GPWS look-ahead terrain display for navigation.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  62. Ground operations of the SDS is limited to ___ when outside air temperature (OAT) is at or above 44 degrees F:
    A. 15 minutes
    B. 45 minutes
    C. 60 minutes
    D. 30 minutes
    D. 30 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. When operating the SDS, exceeding roll, pitch or yaw maneuver rate of 10 degrees per second may degrade performance.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  64. For all flights, a full IRS alignment is recommended.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  65. Pressing the passenger oxygen (PASS OXY) switch during preflight causes deployment of the passenger oxygen masks.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  66. Pressing the ram air turbine (RAM AIR TURB) switch during preflight will not cause deployment of the ram air turbine.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  67. Do not transmit of HF frequencies when the aircraft is on the ground and personnel are working on the external skin.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  68. During the DV Arrival Normal Procedure, HYDRAULIC Panel….Set, a note states, "Pressurize the _______ hydraulic system first to prevent fluid transfer between systems."
    A. right
    B. left
    C. center two
    d. none of the above
    A. right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. During engine start, which pilot normally positions start selector to GND?
    A. Captain (left seat pilot)
    B. Jump seat pilot
    C. First Officer (right seat pilot)
    d. all of the above
    C. First Officer (right seat pilot)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. If there is no EGT rise within 20 seconds after selecting the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN:
    A. have crew chief/scanner manually open start valve
    B. continue engine start normally
    C. abort the engine start
    d. none of the above
    C. abort the engine start
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Do not advance thrust beyond that required for taxi until oil temperature reaches ____ degrees C.
    A. 50
    B. 40
    C. 80
    D. 143
    A. 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Set AUTO BRAKES selector to _____ during the Before Taxi Procedure.
    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. RTO
    D. RTO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. When accomplishing the flight control check:
    A. turn nose wheel tiller to check nose wheel movement while stationary
    B. displace the rudders, control wheel and control column in both directions
    C. both A and B
    D. make slow and deliberate inputs, one direction at a time
    C. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. After the gear handle is raised and the gear and door lights extinguish:
    A. Place gear lever back to DOWN
    B. verify flaps are still in a gated position
    C. position landing gear lever OFF
    D. leave gear handle in UP position
    C. position landing gear lever OFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. When flying an instrument approach using VNAV, set DA(H) or MDA(H) on the MCP when:
    A. approximately 2 NM before the final approach fix and after ALT HOLD, VNAV PTH or VNAV ALT is annunciated
    B. at least 300 feet below the missed approach altitude
    C. cleared the approach
    D. LAND 3 is annunciated
    A. approximately 2 NM before the final approach fix and after ALT HOLD, VNAV PTH or VNAV ALT is annunciated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. The After Takeoff Checklist is required after accomplishing a go-around.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  77. After reverse thrust is initiated on landing roll, the landing may be rejected at that point and go-around thrust may be applied.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  78. Which of the following is true concerning use of the vertical speed mode?
    a. it provides automatic low speed protection
    b. it permits flight away from MCP selected altitude
    c. both of the above
    d. none of the above
    b. it permits flight away from MCP selected altitude
  79. If during an assumed temperature takeoff roll and full thrust is then desired after 80 kts (autothrottle in THR HOLD mode):
    A. pressing TO/GA will advance the thrust levers to full thrust
    B. thrust levers cannot be physically moved
    C. thrust levers must be adjusted manually to achieve full takeoff thrust
    d. none of the above
    C. thrust levers must be adjusted manually to achieve full takeoff thrust
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. If operating into an airport requiring QFE altitudes and altimeter settings:
    A. do not use LNAV or VNAV below transition altitude/level
    B. do not use the metric altimeter below 10,000 ft
    C. do not use FLCH below transition altitude
    D. do not use vertical speed (V/S) below transition altitude/level
    A. do not use LNAV or VNAV below transition altitude/level
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. If the QFE altimeter setting is beyond the range of the altimeters:
    a. QNH procedures must be used
    b. QNE procedures must be used
    c. set appropriate QNH setting in the altimeters
    d. A and C above
    d. A and C above
  82. If combined operating time from last full IRS alignment to the expected next destination arrival time does not exceed ___ hours, a fast realignment may be accomplished.
    A. 24
    B. 12
    C. 18
    D. 10
    C. 18
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Takeoff with light coatings of frost, up to 1/8 inch (3mm) in thickness, on lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel is allowable; however, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces and all upper wing surfaces must be free of snow, ice and frost.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  84. During cold weather operations, taxi:
    a. at reduced speeds
    b. using small tiller and rudder inputs
    c. applying minimum thrust evenly and smoothly
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  85. Taxiing on slippery taxiways or runways at excessive speed or with high crosswinds may start a skid:
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  86. If taxi route is through slush or standing water in low temperatures or if precipitation is falling with temperatures below freezing, taxi out with flaps _____:
    A. in desired takeoff position
    B. in the flaps 1 position
    C. in full down position
    D. up
    D. up
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. If flaps are left up during taxi, complete the Before Takeoff checklist:
    A. after the flaps are in a takeoff configuration
    B. before starting to taxi the aircraft
    C. when normally accomplished
    D. once cleared for takeoff
    A. after the flaps are in a takeoff configuration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3 degrees or below, the takeoff must be preceded by a static engine run-up to a minimum of _____ % N1 and stable engine operations must be confirmed before the start of the takeoff roll.
    a. 70
    b. 99
    c. 40
    d. 50

  89. Engine anti-ice must be ON during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below ____ degrees C SAT:
    A. 0
    B. – 50
    C. – 40
    D. – 20
    B. – 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. When operating in icing conditions, do not rely on airframe visual icing cues before activating engine anti-ice. Use the temperature and visible moisture criteria because late activation of engine anti-ice may allow excessive ingestion of ice and result in engine damage or failure.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  91. Do not use wing anti-ice when the total air temperature is above ___ degrees C.
    A. 10
    B. 11
    C. 13
    D. 15
    A. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. A reduced thrust takeoff wll be used during wind shear conditions as long as the longest suitable runway is used.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  93. The following precautionary actions are recommended if windshear is suspected:
    a. use maximum takeoff thrust instead of reduced thrust.
    b. use the longest suitable runway for takeoff provided it is clear of areas of known windshear.
    c. for landing, use the most suitable runway that avoids the areas of suspected windshear and is compatible with crosswind or tailwind limitations.
    d. all of the above.
    d. all of the above.
  94. The _____ determines the minimum obstruction clearance path. All other portions of the airplane structure remain within this arc:
    A. aircraft nose
    B. wing tip
    C. aircraft tail
    D. outside main wheel truck
    B. wing tip
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. The minimum width of pavement for 180 degree turn is:
    A. 180 feet
    B. 100 feet
    C. 120 feet
    D. 150 feet
    C. 120 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within _____ feet of the wing tip or within _____ feet of the nose:
    A. 10 / 10
    B. 30 / 40
    C. 25 / 25
    D. 22 / 33
    D. 22 / 33
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. EICAS warnings alert the crew to a non-normal operational or system condition requiring immediate crew awareness:
    A. and corrective action
    B. with recall items required
    C. but not immediate corrective action
    D. while corrective action may be required
    A. and corrective action
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. EICAS alert messages are displayed:
    A. only in prioritized order
    B. only in chronological order
    C. only after the flight is complete
    D. in both prioritized and chronological order
    D. in both prioritized and chronological order
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. The Master WARNING lights and fire bell are inhibited for fire during part of the takeoff. The inhibit begins at nose gear extension during rotation and continues until the first of the following occur:
    a. 400 feet AGL
    b. 20 seconds elapsed time
    c. airspeed increases past V2 + 25
    d. A or B above
    d. A or B above
  100. Status messages are checked during preflight to assess acceptability of the airplane for dispatch. After engine start it is not necessary to check the Status page as any message having adverse effect on safe continuation of the fight, requiring crew attention appears as an EICAS alert message.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  101. Unnecessary conversation reduces crew efficiency and alertness and is not recommended when below _____ feet MSL / FL _____. At high altitude airports, adjust this altitude upward, as required.
    A. 11,000/110
    B. 9,000/090
    C. 10,000/100
    D. 12,000,/120
    C. 10,000/100
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. The takeoff briefing assumes normal operating procedures are used and therefore it"s necessary to include a review of normal or standard takeoff procedures.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  103. While adjusting thrust to begin taxiing, allow time for airplane response before increasing thrust further. A maximum of _____ N1 should be adequate to initiate taxi in most situations:
    A. 25%
    B. 30%
    C. 40%
    D. 35%
    D. 35%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Taxi speed should be closely monitored during taxi. Normal taxi speed is approximately _____ knots, adjusted for conditions. On long straight taxi routes, speeds up to _____ knots are acceptable:
    A. 20 / 30
    B. 25 / 35
    C. 15 / 25
    D. 10 / 20
    A. 20 / 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Pilots _____ refer to the particular airport"s SMGCS Low Visibility Taxi Route chart (found in Jeppesen) before attempting to taxi in low visibility conditions (RVR 1200 or less):
    A. will
    B. may
    C. are advised to
    D. should
    A. will
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. A PIC with an augmented crew may seek OG/CC approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission. This provision may be exercised during the planning phase of the mission or to recover from unscheduled/unplanned en route delays/changes.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  107. Conditions permitting, a qualified and current pilot certified as an AC, IP or EP will accomplish all takeoffs, approaches and landings from the left seat under the following conditions:
    a. aircraft emergencies
    b. when making an actual Category II or III ILS approach
    c. when operating to or from airfields requiring airfield related waivers
    d. all the above.
    d. all the above.
  108. Pilot Flying will announce:
    a. changes to levels of automation
    b. flight director an autopilot mode selections and mode transitions
    c. when circumstances require deviating from normal procedures
    d. all the above.
    d. all the above.
  109. Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least_____ feet.
    A. 15
    B. 25
    C. 10
    D. 20
    B. 25
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. VFR departures can be flown in lieu of obstacle clearance planning:
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  111. On operational mission, minimum takeoff RVR is 600 feet provided:
    a. the runway has a minimum of 2 functioning RVR readouts (minimum 600 RVR on all readouts)
    b. runway has centerline lighting and it"s operational
    c. both of the above
    d. either of the above
    c. both of the above
  112. Flight into areas of forecast or reported severe turbulence is prohibited
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True

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