Bacteriology- Oxygen Metabolism and Genes.txt

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Bacteriology- Oxygen Metabolism and Genes.txt
2015-04-02 21:02:05
vetmed bacteriology

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  1. Pathogenic bacteria are _____________.
  2. Source of energy for photoheterotroph and photoautotroph growth.
  3. Source of carbon for growth of autotrophs.
  4. Source of carbon for the growth of heterotrophs.
    organic compounds
  5. Source of energy for growth of chemoautotrophs.
    oxidation of inorganic compounds
  6. Source of energy for the growth of chemoheterotrophs.
    oxidation of organic compounds
  7. _____________ require oxygen for growth and have a respiratory metabolism.
    obligate aerobes
  8. __________ require oxygen-free conditions for growth and have a fermentative metabolism.
    Obligate anaerobes
  9. Mycobacterium and bordatella are ____________.
    obligate aerobes
  10. Give 2 examples of an obligate anaerobe.
    clostridium, bacteroides
  11. Oxygen is ________ because it becomes ____________.
    toxic; superoxide
  12. Grow either aerobically, using oxidative phosphorylation, or anaerobically by fermentation.
    facultative anaerobe
  13. Bacteria that require oxygen for growth but prefer a reduced oxygen concentration of 3-15%.
  14. Bacteria that prefer a carbon dioxide concentration and b/ 3 and 20 percent.
  15. Process by which large quantities of ATP are formed by oxidative phosphorylation.
    aerobic electron transport (aerobes)
  16. Process by which small amount of ATP are formed, NADH is used to reduce pyruvate.
    fermentation (anaerobes or facultative anaerobes)
  17. The hub of fermentation.
  18. Under anaerobic conditions the electron transport systems may be coupled to electron acceptors other than oxygen.
    anaerobic electron transport (facultative anaerobes, anaerobes)
  19. What are the 4 types of alterations in the nucleotide sequences of DNA?
    base pair substitution, deletions, insertions, large deletions
  20. the substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine and vice versa.
  21. the substitution of purine for purine or pyrimidine for pyrimidine.
  22. Occur as a result of base pair substitution which may result in missense, nonsense, or neutral mutation.
    point mutation
  23. 2 types of physical mutagens.
    ultraviolet light, high-energy ionizing radiation
  24. Physical mutagens cause formation of _________.
    thymine dimers
  25. Agents that alter the pyrimidines or purines to cause errors in base pairing to labilize the base to spontaneous chemical modification.
    chemical mutagens, ethylene sulfate or nitrogen and sulfur mustards
  26. Agents which interact with DNA and its secondary structure, producing local distortions in the helix, and therefore, promoting replication and recombination errors.
    chemical mutagens, acrydine orange
  27. Transformation occurs with ________.
    naked DNA
  28. Conjugation occurs with ___________ and require _________.
    cell-to-cell contact; plasmid
  29. Transduction is a mechanism of ____________.
    phage infection
  30. Process when DNA binds irreversibly to recipient bacteria, traverses the membrane with concomitant hydrolysis of one of the strands resulting in a single-stranded molecule gaining entrance to the cell; DNA single strand synapses with homologous regions of the endogenote; and recombination occurs.
  31. Powerful mechanism of adaptation of pathogens.
  32. A nonessential extrachromosomal double stranded circular DNA capable of autonomous replication; required for conjugation.
  33. A plasmid capable of replication either autonomously or as in integrated part of the host chromosome.
  34. The transfer of genetic material by direct contact b/w donor and recipient; plasmid is essential.
  35. converts F- to F+ cells
    F factor
  36. tip able to attach to surface of an F- cell
    F pilus
  37. specific receptor site for F pilus attachment
    F- cell
  38. With F-mediated conjugation, the first step is _______ attachment; then, it retracts, allowing __________; both donor and recipient become __________.
    pilus; direct contact of donor and recipient; F+ cells
  39. Process by which both plasmid and host chromosome are transferred to the recipient by conjugation mediated by the episome.
    Hfr transfer
  40. With Hfr transfer, the _______ is the donor cell.
    Hfr cell
  41. The Hfr cell has a ________ integrated with the host chromosome, which initiates conjugation with the _______ cell to transfer ________.
    F factor; F- cell; host chromosome
  42. Plasmids carrying genes that confer the resistance to normally toxic substances.
    R factors
  43. Bacteriophage capable of entering a lysogenic cycle.
    temperate phage
  44. Bacteriophage capable of producing new viruses and lyses the bacteria.
    virulent phage
  45. Inactivated phage genome which replicates synchronously with the host genome that produces repressor, which inhibit productive replication and maturation of phage particles.
  46. The repressor is produced by the _________ and inhibits productive replication and maturation of the _________.
    prophage; phage particles
  47. Prophage is integrated into the host chromosome and replicates as part of the host genome.
    λ-type lysogeny
  48. Prophage attaches to the cell membrane as independent entity, replicating in synchrony w/ host genome
    P1-type lysogeny
  49. What are the 3 steps of the lysogenic cycle?
    repression ---> synchronous replication ---> derepression
  50. Transduction that results from defective prophage excision, involving a λ-type prophage and only bacterial genes near the sites of prophage attachment; aberrant excision.
    Specialized (restricted) transduction
  51. Transduction that result from packaging error during maturation, involving a P1-type prophage and any portion of the bacterial genome.
    generalized transduction
  52. What 3 things can be spread by gene transfer that are of public health significance?
    antibiotic resistance R factors, toxins, and virulence factor
  53. What are 2 types of ingress (do not cross epithelial barrier), which bacteria use to enter the body?
    inhalation, ingestion
  54. What are 4 types of penetration (cross epithelial barrier) that bacteria can sue to enter the body?
    insect bite, cutes/wounds, organ transplant, blood transfusion
  55. Cell lysis, apoptosis, pharmacological alterations of metabolism, and damage due to host responses (inflammation) are examples of what stage of disease-causing by bacteria?
  56. The immune response provides ______ and _______ defense.
    constitutive; induced
  57. What are the 2 types of pathogenic bacteria?
    obligate pathogens, opportunistic pathogens
  58. Opportunistic pathogens affect __________ or have an ____________.
    immunocompromised hosts; unusual port of access
  59. What is an antiphagocytic factor of bacteria that allows them to cause disease?
  60. Gram-positive bacteria have what unique antiphagocytic factor?
    M protein
  61. Pili, M protein, and cytoplasmic membrane are _____________ factors.
  62. Haemophilus influenzae has a ________________ that helps it to invade the meninges.
    type b capsular polysaccharide
  63. Bacteria utilize ____________ to avoid immune recognition and destruction.
    intracellular parasitism
  64. Intracellular parasites induce internalization and avoid _______________.
    lysosomal enzyme action
  65. 3 facultative intracellular bacteria that multiply in the membrane-bound inclusion of macrophages by inhibiting lysosomal fusion with the phagosome.
    Brucella, Salmonella, Mycobacterium
  66. Facultative intracellular bacteria that multiply in the phagolysosome.
    Yersinia pestis
  67. Facultative intracellular bacteria that multiply in the cytoplasm.
    L. monocytogenes
  68. Obligate intracellular bacteria that escape from the phagosome to the cytoplasm to multiply in the cytoplasm.
  69. Obligate intracellular bacteria that multiply in the exocytic compartment.
  70. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Moraxella bovis achieve genotypic variation of cell surface Ag by variation in _______.
  71. Bacteria achieve genotypic variation in cell surface Ag by _______________.
    DNA rearrangement and recombination
  72. Give examples of phenotypic variation of cell surface Ag. (3)
    smooth vs rough, temperature dependent virulence, surface lipoproteins
  73. When gram (-) bacteria cross an epithelial barrier, __________ acts on macrophages, which then release ___(5)___ in large quantities, causing...(4)
    endotoxin; TNF, prostaglandins, IL-1, nitric oxide, reactive oxygen intermediates; fever, intravascular coagulation, shock, and death.
  74. Exotoxins that act from the outside have what affect on the cell?
    they kill the cells
  75. Exotoxins which act from the inside have hat affect on the cell?
    they deregulate the cells
  76. Exotoxins that lyse erythrocytes (sometimes phagocytic cells as well).
  77. Which s. aureus hemolysin(s) that produce zones of complete hemolysis on sheep blood agar.
    alpha, gamma, delta
  78. Which s. aureus hemolysin(s) produce a zone of incomplete hemolysis on sheep blood agar?
  79. S. aureus beta toxin hemolysin degrades ___________ of the ___________.
    sphingomyeline; erythrocyte membrane
  80. S. aureus delta toxin hemolysin lyses erythrocytes by a _______________.
    detergent-like activity
  81. Oxygen-labile hemolysin of group A streptococci which binds cholesterol in the membrane.
    Streptolysin O
  82. Toxins that kill and lyse phagocytic cells.
  83. S. aureus leukocidin has to components that interact __________ and interrupt ___________ of the ____________ membrane.
    synergistically; phospholipids;; phagocyte (neutrophils and macrophages of rabbits and man)
  84. Diphtheria toxin inhibits ____________ by catalyzing the inactivation of _____.
    polypeptide chain elongation; EF-2
  85. Diphtheria toxin has two fragments; ___________ binds to the cell membrane, facilitating the entry of ________ into the cell; it inactivates EF-2 by coupling it with ______________.
    fragment B; fragment A; adenosine diphosphate ribose
  86. ___________ of Pseudomonas aeruginosa mode of action is similar to that of Diphtheria toxin.
    Exotoxin A
  87. Multicomponent protein complex that inhibits eukaryotic cytoplasmic protein biosynthesis by inactivating the 60S ribosomal subunits ina catalytic manner.
    Shigella cytotoxins (Shiga toxin)
  88. Choleragen of vibrio cholerae is a(n) ___________ that activates __________, which enzymatically degrades ATP, leading to increased intracellular levels of _________, stimulating hypersecretion of _____ and ______.
    enterotoxin; adenylate cyclase; cAMP; electrolytes; water
  89. Heat-labile enterotoxin of E. coli stimulates ___________.
  90. Heat-stable enterotoxin of E. coli activates __________, which enzymatically degrades GTP, causing a subsequent increase in ___________.
    guanylate cyclase; cGMP
  91. Botulism toxins of C. botulinum inhibits the release of _________ from __________, resulting in ___________.
    acetylcholine; cholinergic motor nerve endings; flaccid paralysis
  92. Tetanus toxin of C. tetani blocks ________________ in the CNS, resulting in ____________ and _____________.
    presynaptic and post-synaptic inhibition; hyperflexia; spasms of skeletal muscles
  93. Extracellular enzyme that cleaves specific molecules and is known as "spreading factor."
  94. Extracellular enzymes that degrade membranes, resulting in tissue necrosis and exhibits several toxic effects, which include hemolytic, dermonecrotic, and lethal.
    lipase, alpha toxin of C. perfringens
  95. B. bronchiseptica produces and releases _______________, which is an extracellular enzyme enters eukaryotic cells and causes whooping cough.
    calmodulin-sensitive adenylcyclase
  96. Small, iron-chelating molecules; examples include aerobactin and enterobatin of E. coli and mycobactrin of M. tuberculosis.
    siderophore/ siderochromes
  97. Ag that bind MHC of APC and stimulate large numbers of T cell nonspecifically, causing derangement of the immune response.
    super antigens
  98. Exotoxin is released by ________ parent organisms.
    gram + or -
  99. Endotoxin is produced by _________ parent organisms.
    gram - only
  100. Exotoxins are ________ in chemical nature.
  101. Endotoxins are _________ in chemical nature.
    lipid A (LPS)
  102. Exotoxins are ________ at 100°C.
  103. Endotoxins are _________ at 100°C.
  104. Exotoxins are ________ in formaldehyde.
  105. Endotoxins are _________ in formaldehyde.
  106. Neutralization of exotoxins by Ab is _________.
  107. Neutralization of endotoxins by Ab is _________.
  108. Biologic activity os exotoxin is __________, whereas biologic activity of endotoxin is __________.
    variable; always the same
  109. Exotoxins have ________ toxicity than endotoxin.
  110. Many gram (-) bacteria use __________- and _________ secretion systems for subverting the normal cellular functions of their target eukaryotic cells.
    type III and type IV
  111. Type III and type IV secretion systems evolved from ___________ and ___________, respectively, which function like a syringe to inject proteins through an external needle into a target cell's membrane and cytosol.
    bacterial flagella (type III); sex pili (type IV)
  112. A family of signal sensor (histidine autokinase), transduction, and response regulatory systems that allows bacteria to sense wide varieties of environmental signals and respond rapidly to changes in their environment.
    Two-component regulatory system (2CRS)