Bacteriology- Pathogenic Bacteria Part 2.txt

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Bacteriology- Pathogenic Bacteria Part 2.txt
2015-04-02 21:02:50
vetmed bacteriology

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  1. Lyme disease is caused by ___________ and is a _________ disease.
    Borrelia burgdorferi; zoonotic
  2. What is a common clinical sign indicative of Borrelia burgdorferi infection (Lyme disease)?
    "bull's eye" rash
  3. What is a genetic virulence factor of Borrelia burgdorferi?
    phenotypic and genotypic antigenic variation
  4. What is a physical virulence factor of Borellia burgdorferi?
    slender shape, corkscrew motility to seek out immunologically privileged areas
  5. How do you prevent Lyme Disease? (3)
    reservoir control: wild rodents; OspA (outer surface protein A) vaccine to in-tick neutralizing vaccine; use insect repellent containing DEET
  6. How do you diagnose Borrelia burgdorferi infection? (3)
    spirochetes (helical rods), motile by axial filaments, Western blot analysis
  7. How can you treat Lyme disease?
    If early diagnosis, antibiotic; if chronic, irreversible damage
  8. What is a problem with treatment/control of Lyme disease?
    there is often co-infection with other tick-borne bacteria
  9. Leptospira is a __________ that causes ___(4)___; transmission occurs when the organism enters through ___________ or ____________ with ________ or ___________.
    spirochete; anemia, icterus, nephritis, abortion; mucous membranes; damaged skin; direct contact with infected animals; through contact with urine-contaminated soil or water
  10. Leptospira is a _________.
  11. Brachyspira (Treponema) hyodysenteriae is a ____________ that causes ____________; it is spread by ________________ from ___________.
    spirochete; swine dysentery mucohemorrhagic diarrhea; fecal-oral transmission; rodents
  12. Brachyspira (Treponema) hyodysenteriae is a ___________.
  13. Yersinia pestis causes __________; what are the 2 forms of this disease?
    Plague (black death); bubonic form (swollen lymph nodes and pain); pneumonic form (wild animals- zoonotic)
  14. Yersinia pestis spreads through ________ and _________.
    rapid growth; septicemia
  15. The ___________ of Yersinia pestis is anti-phagocytic.
    capsule(fraction 1)
  16. Proteins that inactivate leukocytes' microbicidal activity and cause apoptosis of various cells; component of Yersinia pestis that activates transcription of genes encoding virulence factors.
    Type III secretion sytem
  17. Yersinia pestis are ________ _________ bacteria that multiply in phagolysosomes of macrophages.
    facultative intracellular
  18. Yersinia pestis produces _________ that serves as a virulence factor.
  19. What is the reservoir for Yersinia pestis?
    wild rodents (zoonotic)
  20. Yersinia pestis is transmitted by _________ and __________.
    fleas; aerosol transmission
  21. How can you prevent infection with Yersinia pestis?
    use insect repellent containing DEET
  22. How do you diagnose Yersinia pestis infection? (5)
    gram - coccobacilli, bipolar staining (safety pin) in blood smear, fluorescent antibody, or by PCR
  23. What is a complication concerning the treatment/control of Yersinia pestis?
    disease is too rapid to wait for diagnosis
  24. What are 2 Yersinia spp. (other than Y. pestis) that cause diarrhea and mesenteric lymphadenitis.
    Y pseudotuberculosis, Y. enterocolitica
  25. What are the 2 strains of E. coli?
    enterotoxigenic and enterohaemorrhagic
  26. The enterotoxigenic strain of E. coli is _________; it causes ________ in __(3)___; it does not cause _______ or _______.
    not invasive; watery diarrhea; piglets, calves, humans; inflammation; fever
  27. The enterohemorrhagic strain of E. coli is _________; is causes _________, ___________, and __________.
    moderately invasive; bloody diarrhea; sever inflammation; hemolytic uremic syndrome
  28. What are 2 virulence factors of the enterotoxigenic strain of E. coli?
    pili, enterotoxin (LT, STa)
  29. What are 2 virulence factors of the enterohemorrhagic strain of E. coli?
    shiga toxin, type III secretion
  30. What are 2 host factors that allow infection with E. coli?
    stress, changes in intestinal flora (neonate, weanling)
  31. What are 2 methods of preventing E. coli infection/ spread?
    reduce the number of bacteria in cattle and pigs that carry it (feed chlorate); reduce fecal build up and the contamination of meat during slaughter
  32. E. coli is spread by __________.
    fecal-oral contamination
  33. E. coli are _________; their oxygen requirement is ___________; they are resistant to ________; they grow on __________; E. coli is lactose ______; they can be identified by __________ and _________.
    gram - rods; facultative anaerobes; bile salt; MacConkey agar; positive; LPS (O antigen); flagella (H antigen)
  34. What are the 2 types of diseases caused by Salmonella?
    gasteroenteritis, enteric fever
  35. Gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella is characterized by an ____________ and an infiltration of ___________.
    inflammatory response; neutrophils
  36. Gatroenteritis caused by Salmonella stimulates fluid secretion mediated by....
    prostaglandin stimulation of adenylcyclase.
  37. Enteric fever caused by Salmonella is characterized by ______________ via ___(2)___, causing ___(3)___.
    dissemination of bacteria; blood and lymph; septicemia, endotoxemia, and abortion.
  38. What are 2 virulence factors of Salmonella?
    Type III secretion systems, facultative intracellular bacteria
  39. What are 2 host factors that allow Salmonella infection?
    stress, pregnancy
  40. Administration of antibiotics during infection with Salmonella may convert __________ to __________ due to disruption of normal flora.
    enteric disease; septicemic disease
  41. How can you control spread of Samonella?
    cull carrier animals
  42. Salmonella is spread by ___________; it is a _______ disease.
    fecal-oral transmission; zoonotic
  43. Salmonella are ________; their oxygen requirement is _________; they are resistant to _________; they grow on _________; they are lactose ______; they have many ________.
    gram-negative rods; facultative anaerobes; bile salt; MacConkey agar; negative; serovars
  44. What species of salmonella infects every species of animal, whereas other serovars are specific to certain species?
    S. typhimurium
  45. What are 2 famous human diarrhea causing pathogen (not Salmonella)?
    Shigella, Vibrio cholerae
  46. Pseudomonas aeuruginosa is an _________ pathogen that causes a variety of _________ infections of any tissues when __________________.
    opportunistic; suppurative; tissue defenses are compromised
  47. What are 5 virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    pili, elastase, exotoxin A, type III secretion system, biofilm
  48. What hot factor allows infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    associated w/ compromised innate defense mechanisms
  49. How can you contract disease caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    free living saprophytes in soil and water
  50. How do you diagnose Pseudomonas aeruginosa? (4)
    gram - rods, pyocyanin and fluorescein pigments
  51. Burkhorderia mallei is a bacterium related to _________ that causes _________; it was eradicated from the U.S. by...
    Pseudomonas; equine glanders; test and slaughter
  52. Burkhorderia pseudomallei is a bacterium related to __________ that causes ___________; its reservoir is ________.
    Pseudomonas; meliodosis (pseudoglanders); wild rodents
  53. Brucella abortus causes what kind of disease in cattle? (3)
    bovine abortion, orchitis (inflammation of testis), Bang's disease (contagious abortion of cattle caused by B. abortus)
  54. Brucella abortus causes what symptom in humans?
    undulant fever
  55. Brucella abortus causes __________ infection in.... (3)
    chronic; bovines, horses, and dogs
  56. What are 3 virulence factors of Brucella abortus?
    facultative intracellular bacteria, obligate parasites, type IV secretion system
  57. Brucella induces endocytosis by host __________, and multiplies rapidly within them; it multiplies in the placenta, fetal fluids, and chorion due to the presence of __________.
    monocytes/macrophages; erythritol (genital tract of male and pregnant female)
  58. Brucella abortus causes a _____________.
    miliary granuloma (disease accompanied by a rash)
  59. Most animals infected with Brucella abortus remain ________ for life and shed the organism in ________ and _________.
    carriers; uterine exudate; milk
  60. How can you prevent/control Brucella abortus? (3)
    test and slaughter (Brucellosis eradication program), prevent ingestion, prevent contact with infected animals (zoonotic dz)
  61. How do you diagnose Brucella abortus infection? (4)
    small gram - coccobacilli, obligate anaerobes, serum 5-10% CO2 for growth
  62. Fusobacterium necrophorum causes what pathology associated with infection? (4)
    focal coagulation necrosis, ischemia, abscess, putrid odor
  63. What are 5 diseases caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum?
    bovine rumenitis, bovine foot rot, bovine and ovine contagious interdigital dermatits, ovine infective bulbar necrosis, bovine diptheria
  64. Bovine rumenitis is caused by ___________ and is a ____________.
    F. necrophorum; liver abscess complex
  65. Bovine foot rot is a synergistic infection with _________ and __________.
    F. necrophorum; Bacteroides melaninogenicus
  66. Bovine and ovine contagious interdigital dermatitis is caused by synergistic infection with _________ and _________.
    F. necrophorum; Bacteriodes nodosus
  67. Ovine infective bulbar necrosis (hell abscess) is caused by synergistic infection with ________ and ________.
    F. necrophorum; Actinomyces pyogenes
  68. Bovine diphtheria causes ___________ formation; it is caused by __________ when there has been a prior infection with __________.
    laryngeal pseudomembrane; F. necrophorum; Haemophilus somnus
  69. What are 3 virulence factors of F. necrophorum?
    endotoxin, hemolysin, leukocidin
  70. What are 2 host factors that permit infection with F. necrophorum?
    oxygen-insufficiency (due to bacterial infection, surgery/trauma, disruption of gut flora), co-infection with other bacteria
  71. How can you prevent infection with F. necrophorum? (2)
    prevent other pathogen infection, prevent oxygen insufficiency
  72. How can you diagnose infection with F. necrophorum? (4)
    gram - fusiform, fermentative metabolism, putrid odor
  73. What are 2 pathognomonic lesions associated with Mycoplasma infection?
    bronchiectasis, infection of the respiratory epithelium of airway
  74. Mycoplasma causes chronic ___________.
  75. What are 2 examples of Mycoplasma species?
    avian and swine mycoplasma
  76. Newly reclassified unculturable erythrocyte-tropic Mycoplasma that causes anemia and jaundice.
    M. haemofelis
  77. The adherence virulence factor of Mycoplasma allows the organism to _______________; it causes _________ destruction of _________; it contains an ________ to obtain purine and pyrimidine bases from the host.
    evade the host's immune response; immune-mediated; host cells; endonuclease
  78. Stimulation of immune cells by Mycoplasma results in secretion of ______________.
    pro-inflammatory cytokines
  79. Mycoplasma is a(n) ____________ of animals and humans; transmission is by ________, _________, or _________.
    obligatory parasite; aerosol; contact; vector (haemotropic species)
  80. How can you diagnose infection with Mycoplasma? (6)
    aerobic, requires cholesterol for growth, fried egg colony, smallest self-replicating prokaryote (they go through filter), no cell wall, extremely pleomorphic
  81. To diagnose erythrocyte-tropic species of Mycoplasma, observe... (2)
    blood smear, PCR
  82. What is a complication with treatment/control of Mycoplasma?
    carriers are asymptomatic (latent infection)
  83. Ureaplasma is closely related to _________ and causes _________ infections and hydrolyzes _______.
    Mycoplasma; urogenital; urea
  84. Neorickettsia risticii causes __________, which is ________, ________ illness often accompanies by severe _____________ and ___________.
    Potomac horse fever; acute, febrile; watery diarrhea; laminitis
  85. Neorickettsia helminthoeca causes ______________.
    salmon poisoning disease of dogs
  86. What are the virulence factors of Neorickettsia?
    obligatory intracellular bacteria of monocytes and macrophages
  87. _________ carry Neorickettsia, and dogs are infected with is when they...
    trematodes; ingest raw fish infested with trematodes
  88. What is the zoonotic form of Neorickettsia infection?
    Human Ehrlichiosis
  89. How do you diagnose infection with Neorickettsia?
    Antibody test, PCR
  90. How do you treat infection with Neorickettsia?
    doxycycline, oxytetracycline
  91. ___________ is a common feature of chlamydial infections.
  92. Latent chlamydial infections are often activated by ______________.
    various stresses
  93. Chlamydophila psittaci causes __________________; the disease initially resulting from inhalation is __________.
    psittacosis or avian chlamydiosis; pneumonitis
  94. Chlamydophila psittaci can be spread through _________ to cause systemic disease and can cause __________ disease.
    blood; zoonotic
  95. Reproduction of Chlamydia: ____________ enter host cell and form _____________ filled with _____________ they divide by _____________; this causes generation of _____________.
    elementary bodies; intracytoplasmic inclusions; reticulate bodies; binary fission; inflammatory cytokines
  96. Psittacosis or ornithosis is controlled by....
    isolation of imported pittacene birds and administration with prophylactic antibiotics.
  97. 2 ways to diagnose Chlamydia.
    demonstration of organisms in stained smears and sections of lesions, isolation and cultivation in cell cultures
  98. The No. 1 sexually transmitted human disease, transmitted by contact.
  99. Frequent infection of cats; infection is by inhalation and begins as an upper respiratory infection with conjunctivitis; consolidation of lung may follow.
    Feline pneumonitis- Chlamydophila felis
  100. Enzootic abortion of ewes (EAE) is ____________ caused by _____________.
    ovine pneumonitis; Chlamydophila abortus (also affects goats)
  101. Disease in young calves causing dyspnea, diarrhea, lameness, followed by paralysis; causes serofibrinous peritonitis and encephalomyelitis.
    sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis- Buss disease- chlamydial
  102. Disease of young calves, lambs, and swine that causes depression, lameness, swollen joints/tendons, reluctant to move, fever, diarrhea, conjunctivitis, and nasal catarrh.
    polyarthritis caused by Chlamydia suis
  103. Disease associated with edema, petechial hemorrhage, and epithelial erosion and ulceration; intestinal carrier exist.
    bovine enteritis-chlamydial