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  1. What does TACSOP stand for?
    Tactical Standard Operating Procedure
  2. How many people are assigned to the Q-36 section by MTOE?
  3. How many people are assigned to the Q-37 section by MTOE?
  4. Who is responsible for commanding and directing the TA Platoon’s operations and associated equipment?
    TA Platoon Leader
  5. Who is responsible for the maintenance, logistics, and discipline of the platoon and serves as the senior enlisted advisor to the platoon leader?
    TA Platoon Sergeant
  6. Who is responsible for the selection and emplacement procedures for the WLR within the general area for positioning during operations?
    Section Chief
  7. Who is responsible for performing the duties of the section chief in his absence?
    Senior Radar Operator (SRO)
  8. List at least three duties of the FF Radar Operator:
    a. Emplaces and displaces the radar and ancillary equipment.

    b. Initializes and operates all radar and ancillary equipment.

    c. Determines and corrects the altitudes of weapon locations from a contour map, when required.

    d. Transmits the point of origin to the counterfire operations cell or as directed by the RDO.

    e. Maintains record of transmitted locations.

    f. Operates and performs maintenance on the radar's prime movers.

    g. Performs unit maintenance using built-in-test/built-in-test-equipment, fault detection, and isolation.

    h. Isolates failures to a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit that can be replaced by a crewmember.

    i. Provides local security.

    j. Performs other duties assigned by the section chief.
  9. Who is responsible for performing field level maintenance on the radar systems?
    MOS 94M Radar Repairer
  10. Who develops and issues radar deployment orders (RDOs) to all radar sections controlled by the FIB and/or the BCT?
    Counterfire Officer / Targeting Officer
  11. What page of the TACSOP covers PCC's and PCI's?
  12. What do PCC's and PCI's stand for?
    Pre-combat checks & Pre-combat inspections
  13. Cueing is conducted as a continuous, situational, or on-demand process and only designated cueing agents may cue the radar. True or False?
  14. The brevity code for cueing consisting of 15 seconds on and 45 seconds off is named __________ .
  15. Regarding WLR site selection, the ground in front of the antenna must be clear for the first 200m and not have a downward slope of more than _____ degrees.
  16. What are the four radar emplacement priorities of work?
    • 1. Security / Force Protection
    • 2. Communications
    • 3. Establish acquisition capability
    • 4. Position improvement
  17. Security / Force Protection consists of establishing __________ and/or __________ during site selection and emplacement.
    • dismounted fighting positions
    • mounted security and patrols
  18. How many steps are listed in position improvement?
  19. What information is required for FF Radars to be able to conduct friendly fire missions?
    • i. Mission type: Artillery impact, Artillery datum or Artillery airburst)
    • ii. Firing element location (easting / northing / altitude)
    • iii. Target location (easting / northing / altitude)
    • iv. Maximum ordinate
    • v. Quadrant elevation or Angle of Fall
    • vi. Target number
  20. The optimum radar tracking situation for the friendly fire mode is an angle T between _____ and _____ mils.
    800 & 1200
  21. What are the default target blocks for the Q-36 and Q-37?
    • AD 8000-8299 - AN/TPQ-36
    • AD 8300-8599 - AN/TPQ-37

  22. In Appendix 6 (Shelter Operations) what are steps 2f, 2g, 2h, and 2i?
    f. Sleeping is not authorized in the shelter at any time.

    g. Target acquisition logs, maintenance records, and an accurate DA 1594 log will be filled out by all operators and NCOs on shift.

    h. At all times there will be someone inside the shelter and monitoring activity. NO EXCEPTIONS…..

    i. Operators will remain in uniform at all times unless otherwise directed.
  23. What are the eight FF Radar Troop Leading Procedures (TLP's)?
    • Receive the mission RDO
    • Issue a concise warning order to your section
    • Make a tentative plan
    • Initiate movement
    • Conduct reconnaissance
    • Complete the plan
    • Issue the order
    • Supervise
  24. What does RPAS stand for?
    Radar Positioning Analysis System
  25. The Radar Positioning Analysis System is an extremely useful tool in aiding the Radar Section Chief to determine __________ .
    whether a future radar site has potential for an adequate radar site
  26. Meteorological (MET) data are crucial to the accuracy of hostile weapon location and friendly fire data. The MET parameters entered during radar initialization affect radar performance by correcting for atmospheric refraction. They are also important in estimating the effect of wind, temperature, and density on the projectile’s trajectory. However, the greatest effect on the accuracy of hostile and friendly weapon
    impact prediction is caused by wind. Therefore, MET data should be entered into the radar. True or False?
  27. What information is included in a SALUTE report?
    Size, Activity, Location, Unit, Time, Equipment, Action Taken
  28. What are the five steps of Risk Management listed in Block 3 of the Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet?
    • 1. Identify the hazards
    • 2. Assess the hazards
    • 3. Develop controls and make decisions
    • 4. Implement controls
    • 5. Supervise and evaluate
  29. How many lines are reported on a MEDEVAC request?
  30. What is the form number for the Radar Deployment Order (RDO)?
    DA 5957-R
  31. Which radar zone depicts an area in which are located friendly units or units that the maneuver commander designates as critical and generates a Priority 1 call for fire?
    Critical Friendly Zone (CFZ)
  32. Which radar zones depicts an area in enemy territory that the maneuver commander
    considers extremely important to neutralize fires from by immediate counterfire and generates a Priority 2 call for fire?
    Call For Fire Zone (CFFZ)
  33. Which radar zone depicts an area in enemy territory that the maneuver commander wants to monitor closely?
    Artillery Target Intelligence (ATI) Zone
  34. Which radar zone is an area from which
    the commander wishes to ignore all target detections?
    Censor Zone (CZ)
  35. Which annex / appendix in the TACSOP covers reporting requirements?
    Appendix 8 to Annex J
  36. Which annex / appendix outlines the procedures for requesting survey support?
    Appendix 2 to Annex K
Card Set:
2015-06-29 05:49:27

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