Microbiology exam VI B

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bdgauthia
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Microbiology exam VI B
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2015-04-28 11:58:51
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chapter 14
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Microbiology chapter 14
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  1. What is meant by the term normal microbiota?
    microbes associated with a certain area of the body
  2. The competition for space and nutrients that occurs between different populations of microbes is known as __________.
    microbial antagonism
  3. Bacteria that possess structures such as fimbriae and glycocalyces are more likely to form which of the following?
    biofilms
  4. A Gram-negative infection could be more serious due to the presence of which of the following in the Gram-negative cell wall?
    endotoxin
  5. The capsule of a bacterial cell __________.
    protects it from destruction by the immune system
  6. John Snow contributed which of the following ideas to the science of microbiology?
    the study of the occurrence and spread of diseases in human populations
  7. Pasteurization of milk is designed to kill which of the following?
    pathogenic microbes
  8. Biological vectors of diseases affecting humans are typically which of the following?
    biting arthropods
  9. Portals of exit are __________.
    essentially the same as portals of entry
  10. A public water supply could be disinfected by all of the following antimicrobial control methods EXCEPT __________.
    lyophilization
  11. The fact that Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces fimbriae means that one would expect this bacterium to __________.
    attach to body cells or tissues
  12. Etiology is the study of __________.
    cause of disease
  13. Capsules are an example of which of the following?
    glycocalyx
  14. Which of the following would NOT be considered a communicable disease?
    herpes
  15. The growth of Staphylococcus aureus on human skin is an example of __________.
    commensalism
  16. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a pathogen?
    a parasite that causes disease
  17. Most of the members of the resident microbiota are classified as __________.
    commensals
  18. Which portal of entry is associated with premature births? 
    placenta
  19. Why do many pathogens prefer the mucous membranes over the skin as a portal of entry?
    Mucous membranes are generally thinner than the skin.
  20. The number of new cases of a disease in a given population during a given period of time is called __________.
    incidence
  21. Which of the following would be classified as a sign of a disease?
    diarrhea
  22. Which of the following affects the function of cells lining the gastrointestinal tract?
    enterotoxins
  23. Which of the following types of bacterial toxins can be produced by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
    only exotoxin
  24. Which of the following is the most severe stage of an infectious disease?
    illness
  25. Which of the following might be a source of a zoonosis?
    animals
  26. Which of the following is associated with vector transmission?
    houseflies
  27. A disease that develops rapidly and lasts a short time is called a(n) __________ disease.
    acute
  28. All of the following are examples of noncommunicable diseases EXCEPT __________.
    influenza
  29. A disease that occurs more frequently than expected for a given population would be considered __________.
    epidemic
  30. Koch's postulates are an important part of which of the following?
    experimental epidemiology
  31. Which of the following virulence factors helps a bacteria establish colonies in a host? 
    adhesions
  32. An infection caused by surgery or by the use of devices such as catheters is called a(n) __________ infection.
    iatrogenic
  33. Which of the following is NOT an activity associated with public health agencies in their work to limit disease transmission?
    screening of health care workers for latent infections
  34. T/F: Epidemiologists are concerned with the study of only infectious disease transmission.
    False
  35. T/F:AIDS is considered to be an epidemic.
    False
  36. T/F: Only infectious diseases can be classified according to their longevity or severity.
    False
  37. T/F: Mechanical vectors typically introduce pathogens into a host by a bite.
    False
  38. T/F: Fecal-oral infection is a common type of waterborne disease transmission.
    True
  39. T/F: Introduction of a normal microbioata into an unusual site in the body is one way normal microbioata become opportunistic pathogens. 
    True
  40. T/F: Direct contact transmission of a disease can occur within the same person
    True
  41. T/F: Every stage of a disease can be infectious.
    True
  42. T/F: Humans acquire zoonoses from animal reservoirs only when there is direct contact with animal fluids. 
    False
  43. T/F: Pathogenic microbes are either completely virulent or completely avirulent.
    False
  44. All of the following occur during the first exposure to an allergen in type I hypersensitivity reactions except __________.
    degranulation of sensitized mast cell, basophils, or eosinophils
  45. Which of the following is not a manifestation of type I hypersensitivity?
    Glomerulonephritis
  46. Which of the following combinations can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn?
    An Rh- mother and an Rh+ baby
  47. Farmer’s lung is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis resulting from __________.
    a type III hypersensitivity to mold spores
  48. Which of the following is not an example of type IV hypersensitivity?
    Transfusion reactions
  49. The immunoglobulin class that mediates type I hypersensitivity is __________.
    IgE
  50. When a surgeon conducts a cardiac bypass operation by transplanting a piece of vein from a patient’s leg to the same patient’s heart, this is __________.
    an autograft
  51. Allergens cause which of the following types of hypersensitivity?
    Type I
  52. The major inflammatory mediator released by degranulating mast cells in type I hypersensitivity is __________.
    histamine
  53. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by antibodies against which major blood group antigen?
    Rhesus antigen
  54. What accounts for the time-delayed nature of type IV hypersensitivity?
    The time needed for migration and proliferation of macrophages and T cells
  55. What do medical personnel administer to counteract various type I hypersensitivities?
    Antihistamine, bronchodilator, corticosteroid, and epinephrine
  56. A positive tuberculin skin test indicates that a patient not immunized against tuberculosis __________.
    has been exposed to tuberculosis antigens
  57. Which of the following plays a central role in mediating the response to the tuberculin test?
    memory T cells
  58. MHC is most directly involved in which of the following activities?
    recognition of self versus nonself by the immune system
  59. Which of the following classes of antibodies plays an important role in protecting the gastrointestinal tract?
    IgA
  60. The autoantibodies to platelets observed in systemic lupus erythematosus would be expected to cause which of the following?
    bleeding disorders
  61. Which of the following is the largest type of antibody molecule?
    IgM
  62. Which of the following is a chemical messenger secreted and used by immune cells in various immune responses?
    cytokines
  63. Which of the following types of body cells possess MHC class I molecules?
    nearly all body cells
  64. Which of the following types of immune cells CANNOT produce the effects of allergy?
    neutrophils
  65. Farmer's lung is an example of which of the following?
    hypersensitivity pneumonitis
  66. Which of the following is NOT an example of type IV hypersensitivity?
    transfusion reactions
  67. The majority of grafts in humans are which of the following?
    allografts
  68. Which of the following events is NOT associated with a transfusion reaction?
    purpura
  69. Which of the following can result from a bone marrow transplant?
    graft-versus-host disease
  70. Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation of the causes of autoimmune diseases?
    clonal deletion of T cells in the thymus
  71. Which of the following autoimmune diseases does NOT result from a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
    chronic granulomatous disease
  72. Which of the following is an example of a secondary immunodeficiency disease?
    AIDS
  73. T/F: IgE is routinely found in the bloodstream.
    False
  74. T/F: Epinephrine is a common treatment for type II hypersensitivity reactions.
    False
  75. T/F: Type III hypersensitivity is also known as "complex hypersensitivity."
    False
  76. T/F: Glomerulonephritis is an example of an autoimmune disease.
    • False
    • Glomerulonephritis is an example of type III hypersensitivity reaction.
  77. T/F: Individuals who have been previously sensitized to tuberculin will exhibit a red swelling at the site of tuberculin exposure.
    True
  78. T/F: Allergic contact dermatitis appears rapidly upon exposure to the allergen.
    False
  79. T/F: Grafting of skin from one part of the body to cover a burn area is an example of an autograft.
    True
  80. T/F: Some autoimmune diseases develop as a result of prior viral infections.
    True
  81. All of the following are examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT __________.
    transfusion reactions
  82. A severe and potentially lethal result of some allergic reactions is a condition called __________ shock.
    anaphalactic
  83. The term __________ refers to the mere presence of microbes in the body.
    contamination

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