Microbiology Final Exam

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  1. What is spontaneous generation?
    the theory that living organisms may arise from nonliving matter
  2. How did Francesco Redi attempt to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation?
    He performed a series of experiments involving decaying meat and maggots.
  3. Which scientist definitively ended the debate over spontaneous generation?
  4. Which of the following steps is NOT included in the scientific method?
    Repeat experiment until desired result is achieved.
  5. When conducting an experiment, it is generally necessary to include __________ groups that are treated exactly the same as treatment groups except for the condition being tested.
  6. If the results from an experiment contradict the hypothesis, what should be a scientist’s next step?
    The scientist should reject or modify the hypothesis.
  7. Some critics of Spallanzani’s experiments thought that the reason sealed flasks were unable to spontaneously generate microorganisms was that there was not enough air present to support life. How did Louis Pasteur respond to this claim?
    He modified the experiment to include air as treatment.
  8. What is a hypothesis?
    A hypothesis is a possible answer to a scientific question.
  9. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to
    view microorganisms and record these observations.
  10. T/F:Lazzaro Spallanzani was the first scientist to provide evidence disproving the spontaneous generation of microorganisms.
  11. What is the correct order for the application of Koch's postulates?
    I. Inoculate suspect agent into test subject and observe that subject develops disease of interest.
    II. Isolate and culture suspect agent in the laboratory.
    III. Find suspect agent is every case of disease of interest but not in healthy hosts.
    IV. Recover and isolate suspect agent from test subject.
    III, II, I, IV
  12. Which of the following subatomic particles does NOT have a charge?
  13. In discussions of atomic mass, electrons are often ignored because __________.
    their mass makes a negligible contribution to the atom's overall mass
  14. T/F:Hydrogen bonds are stronger then covalent bonds.
  15. Sucrose is an example of which of the following?
    a disaccharide
  16. Which of the following is NOT a type of lipid?
  17. Which of the following is a property of water?
    a) it is not a common reactant in metabolic reactions.
    b) it has a high capacity for heat.
    c) It is not a good solvent.
    d)it is liquid in a very narrow temperature range.
    e) it is a non-polar molecule.
  18. A protein is a __________ of amino acids.
  19. An oxygen atom has two electron shells and 6 valence electrons. How many total electrons does this atom have?
  20. When the nucleus of an atom contains a constant number of protons but a variable number of neutrons, the atom is called a(n) __________.
  21. What is the common trait of all lipids?
    They are at least partially hydrophobic.
  22. Which of the following prokaryotic cells contains an outer membrane?
    Gram-negative bacteria
  23. Which of the following statements concerning osmosis is FALSE?
    a)During osmosis, water crosses to the side of the membrane with a lower solute concentration.
    b)Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will gain water.
    c)Osmosis stops when the system reaches equilibrium.
    d)Crenation results when cells are placed in a hypertonic solution.
    e)Osmosis requires a selectively permeable membrane.
  24. Which of the following would NOT be found in the cytoplasm of a bacterial cell?
  25. T/F: All cell membranes contain phospholipids and a wide variety of proteins.
  26. The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell performs all of the following functions EXCEPT
    a)protection against dehydration.
    b)transfer of genetic material between cells.
    c)strengthening the cell surface.
    d)anchoring cells to each other.
    e)cellular recognition and communication.
  27. Lipid A is also known as
  28. A bacterial cell possesses a glycocalyx. Which of the following is NOT true?
    a)It will be engulfed more quickly by defensive cells of the host.
    b)It will be less likely to dry out.
    c)It will be more pathogenic.
    d)It will be able to attach to surfaces.
  29. Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial cell walls?
  30. Bacterial cell walls that are resistant to drying contain
  31. When cells are placed in a hypertonic solution, they lose water and shrivel. This process is called
  32. The cell walls of __________ contain peptidoglycan.
  33. The cytoplasmic membranes of __________ contain lipids.
    All prokaryotes
  34. Which of the following is NOT associated with the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell?
  35. Bacterial pili can be described as
    specialized fimbriae.
  36. Which of the following is a false statement concerning flagella?
    Flagellin is a molecule found only in eukaryotic flagella.
  37. Cells engaging in taxis are exhibiting which of the following basic processes of life?
  38. The glycocalyx of microbial cells has all of the following functions EXCEPT __________.
    to enhance destruction of the microbe by immune cells
  39. T/F: The capsule found in some bacterial cells is a loose, water-soluble structure.
  40. A cell in a hypertonic solution will __________.
    lose water
  41. T/F: All types of cells can have a glycocalyx.
  42. Which of the following is NOT a component of peptidoglycan?
    lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
  43. Which of the following organelles is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
  44. Which of the following organelles is involved in the degradation of toxic molecules?
  45. Which of the following organelles is involved in producing and transporting proteins throughout the cell?
    rough ER
  46. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of fimbriae?
    a) adherence to surfaces  
    b) movement toward chemicals or light  
    c) enhancing a microbe's ability to cause disease  
    d) creation of biofilms
    movement toward chemicals or light
  47. T/F: Eukaryotic flagella, unlike the flagella of prokaryotes, are enclosed within the cytoplasmic membrane.
  48. Why is ATP required for glycolysis?
    a) ATP is used to reduce NAD+ to NADH.
    b) ATP is used to convert DHAP into G3P.
    c) ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules.
    d) ATP is used to convert PEP into pyruvic acid.
  49. Glycolysis literally means
    a)sugar producing.
    b)energy producing.
    c)sugar splitting.
  50. The ________ growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.
  51. The term barophile refers to which of the following growth requirements?
    a)nitrogen source
    c)hydrostatic pressure
    e)osmotic pressure
  52. A clinical sample labeled as "sputum" was collected from
  53. The metabolic processes called fermentation
    a)use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor.
    b)are alternatives for the pentose phosphate pathway.
    c)occur only when oxygen is readily available.
    d)produce substrates for the Krebs cycle.
    e)produce substrates for glycolysis.
  54. In which of the following stages of glycolysis is ATP made?
    a)lysis stage
    b)energy-investment stage
    c)energy-conserving stage
  55. The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its
  56. Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as
    competitive inhibition.
  57. Oxidoreductases participate in __________ reactions.
    a) anabolic
    b) neither anabolic nor catabolic
    c) energy neutral
    d) catabolic
    e) both anabolic and catabolic
  58. Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE?
    a) It both requires the input of ATP and produces ATP.
    b) It produces ATP by oxidative phosphorylation.
    c) It occurs in the cell membranes of bacteria.
  59. How many net ATP does fermentation yield?
  60. How many ATP does glycolysis yield?
  61. How many ATP does aerobic respiration yield?
    • Eukaryotes = 36
    • Prokaryotes = 38
  62. Fermentation differs from cellular respiration by __________.
    organic molecule is the final e- acceptor
  63. What are coenzymes?
    organic cofactors
  64. A candle jar would be most useful in isolating which of the following?
  65. A cell which uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a __________.
  66. A cell which uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a __________.
    a) missense mutation.
    b) frameshift mutation.
    c) nonsense mutation.
    d) silent mutation.
  67. A base insertion or deletion in the translated region of the gene may lead to
    a) nonsense mutation.
    b) missense mutation.
    c) silent mutation.
    d) frameshift mutation.
  68. A base substitution that changes a codon coding for an amino acid to a stop codon is called a
    a) frameshift mutation.
    b) nonsense mutation.
    c) missense mutation.
    d) silent mutation.
  69. Ribosomes contain which of the following?
    a) rRNA
    b) mRNA
    c) tRNA
  70. Which of the following is involved in bringing amino acids to the ribosomes?
    a) tRNA
    b) mRNA
  71. What is the function of the parental DNA in replication?
    a) It allows for the DNA to be circular.
    b) It serves as the template for DNA replication.
    c) It is passed into the offspring of the parent.
    d) It gives the cell two complete copies of the DNA.
  72. What results from the process of translation?
    a) mRNAA
    b) polypeptide
    c) Ribosomes
    d) tRNA
  73. All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT
    b) ribose.
    c) ionic bonds.
    d) phosphate.
    e) hydrogen bonds.
  74. T/F: The most common type of mutation is a point mutation.
  75. If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a
    a) frameshift mutation.
    b) nonsense mutation.gross mutation.
    c) missense mutation.
    d) silent mutation.
  76. The AUG codon functions in coding for the amino acid methionine and as a
    a) termination signal.
    b) recognition site for RNA polymerase.
    c) marker for introns.
    d) start signal.
  77. The process of copying DNA genetic information into the form of RNA is called __________.
    a) transduction
    b) transcription
    c) translation
    d) transformation
  78. Which of the following types of mutations creates a stop codon where one did not exist before?
    a) missense mutation
    b) frameshift mutation
    c) nonsense mutation
    d) silent mutation
  79. Insertions and deletions usually lead to which of the following types of mutations?
    a) pyrimidine dimers
    b) base-substitution mutations
    c) frameshift mutations
    d) silent mutations
  80. A haploid cell has __________.
    a) two copies of each chromosome
    b) a single copy of each of its chromosomes
    c) more than one chromosome
    d) only one chromosome
  81. Okazaki fragments are formed because DNA replication __________.
    a) is discontinuous on the lagging strand
    b) involves proofreading
    c) is performed by different versions of DNA polymerase in different cells
    d) is semiconservative
  82. Which of the following is the midpoint of a lytic replication cycle?
    a) attachment
    b) synthesis
    c) entry
    d) release
  83. Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____ and the infectious RNA strands called _____. 
    A) Prions, capsomeres
    B) Virions, prions
    C) Viroids, phages
    D) Prions, phages
    E) Prions, viroids
  84. Double stranded RNA genomes can be found:
    a) only in cells
    b) in both cells and viruses
    c) only in viruses
    d) in prions
    e) in both prions and viruses
  85. During ______, viruses remain dormant in a cell.
    a) budding
    b) latency
    c) lytic replication
    d) persistent infection
    e) oncogenesis
  86. The family name of flu (influenza) and Ebola viruses are ______ and ______ respectively.
    a) Filoviridae and Piconarviridae
    b) Orthomyxoviridae and Rhabdoviridae
    c) Filoviridae and Orthomyxoviridae
    d) Orthomyxoviridae and Filoviridae
  87. The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?
    +ss RNA viruses
  88. The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which  of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle?
    a) entry
    b) assembly
    c) entry and release
    d) synthesis
    e) attachement
  89. An antimicrobial chemical used on the skin is usually called a(n) ____________.
    a) aseptic
    b) antiseptic
    c) sterilant
    d) disinfectant
  90. Hydrogen peroxide does not make a good antiseptic for open wounds because ____________.
    a) catalase in human tissues neutralizes it
    b) it is too expensive for this type of use
    c) it is too toxic for human cells
    d) it evaporates too quickly
  91. An antimicrobial drug that blocks the transport of NAG and NAM from the cytoplasm is targeting which of the following cellular processes?
    a) cell wall synthesis
    b) cytoplasmic membrane synthesis
    c) protein synthesis
    d) nucleic acid synthesis
  92. Alcohols are used for
    a) disinfection.
    b) antisepsis.
    c) sterilization.
    d) both sterilization and disinfection.
    e) both antisepsis and disinfection.
  93. Compared to moist heat methods, dry heat needs which of the following in order to sterilize effectively?
    a) lower temperature and increased time
    b) lower temperature and shorter time
    c) increased time and higher temperature
    d) higher temperature and shorter time
  94. Which of the following is a target of pasteurization?
    Brucella melitensis
  95. Aseptic means
    a) sanitized.
    b) sterile.
    c) free of pathogens.
    d) clean.
    e) free of all microbes.
  96. The characteristic of adaptive immunity by which the adaptive immune response acts against one molecular shape and no others is called _____.
    a) clonality
    b) inducibility
    c) specificity
    d) memory
Card Set:
Microbiology Final Exam
2015-05-05 13:52:04

final exam questions
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