what is change in morphology and functuion due to conversion of one type of adult cell to another type?
what is increase in cell numbers by altered cell morphology and loss of histological function?
what is coordinated reaction of biochemical and cellular processes initiated by the body with cellular injury?
chronic over use/repeated trauma, autoimmune diseases and viruses can cause what type of inflammation?
what is the breakdown in the ability of the body to recognize self from non-self?
what are the three phases of tissue repair?
how long does the inflammatory phase of tissue healing last?
how long does the proliferative phase of tissue repair last?
day 3-3 weeks
what are the cardinal s/s of inflammation?
decreased function/loss of motion
increased muscle tone or spasm
how would you describe acute inflammation?
short in duration, self limiting
how would you describe chronic inflammation?
long in duration, may last for weeks, months or even years and is self perpetuating
what are the 4 responses during acute inflammation?
what is the purpose of the vascular response?
mobilize and transport the bodys defenses
what is the purpose of the vascular response?
vasoconstruction: decrease blood loss; stops transmission; allows for margination
vasodilation: blood vessels open back up
edema: build up of fluid
what happens during the hemostatic response of acute inflammation?
small vessels retract and seal
what is the main purpose of the cellular response during acute inflammation?
draws leukocytes to the area to initate phagocytosis (eating the bad stuff)
What 2 types of "-cytes" are involved with the cellular response?
what happens during the immune response during acute inflammation?
the lympatics drain the fluid from the area and allows presentation of any foreign sustances to the lymphatics
what are the two types of lymphocytes involved with the immune response?
T-cells and B-cells ( lymphocytes)
what is the time frame for the remodeling/maturation phase of tissue repair?
day 9 to 3-18 months; depends on the target tissue
what are some of the factors that affect inflammation and repair?
what is defined as symptoms associated with a multitude of different systmic conditions; are NOT definitive diagnostic indicators in and of themselves, but function as signlas to dig deepers and possible reasons to refer...
what is defined as protection from; specifically against infetious organisms. based upon ability to distinguish self from non-self.
what is defined as the study of the physiologic mechanisms by which the body recognizes foreign and the mechanisms to neurtalize/elimaiate foreign>
what is defined as the study of how unregulated immuno responses cause disease?
what is defined as the network of specialized organs both peripherally and cnetrally that provides quick waring and action against threats
what is defined as any substance in the body that does not have the characteristic cell surgace makrers of the individual is recognized as foreign
what is defined as the serum proteins produced by b-lymphocytes'; bind to and destrol specific antigens
what is defined as organism capable of producing disease?
what are the two types of immunity?
what is the first line of innate immunity?
mechanical and chemical barriers
what is the second line of innate immunity?
inflammatory response and phagocytosis
what is defined as the system for recognizing and destroying oreign substances. has a memory and produces specific immune reactions against infectious agent to eradicate them or eliminate prolieration of mutant cells
what are the three important aspects of immunity?
specific recognition of self and non-self
memory for non-self
self-regulation of responses
what is defined as cells drived from undifferentiated stem cells in the bone marrow, differentiate in the thymus
central lymphoid organs
what are the peripheral lymphoid organs?
what are the polymorphonuclear leukocytes?
baso, eosino, neutro
what are the tattle tale pac men?
what are the 3 different types of T-cells?
cytotoxic T-cells/natural killers
what do neurotphils do?
kill invaders or attempt to kill
what do eosinophils do?
allergic disorders; parasitic infection (large bacteria); picks up neutro's slack
what do basophils do?
release histamine; increase blood flow and phagocytosis
What do T-cells do? Where are they produced and where do they mature?
turn on or off the immune response. produced in the red marrow and mature in the thymus
Where are B-cells produced and what do they do?
produced in the bone marrow and produce antibodies/immunoglobulins
what are self-regulating proteins released by macrophages?
what do cytokines do?
cell to cell communication
triggering the immune response
transition from the acute to chronic stage of infection
what are the specific cytokines?
colony stimulating factor: influence function of mature lymphocytes
intereron: inhibit tumor growth
interleukins: prompts T-cells to recognize pathogens
tumor necrosis factor: eliminate blood supply to tumors
what is defined as injection of a small amount of a disabled antigen to allow the lymphocytes to create specific antibodies for a disease as well as memory for it?
what are the 4 classifications for immune disorders?
what does AIDS stand for?
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
what is considered congenitial; failure of organ development necessary for lymphocyte maturation or born without vertain antibody types?
primary immunodeficiency diseases
what type of immunodeficiency is from malnutrition, stress, CA Tx, leukemia, and chronic diseases?
what type of hypersensitivity is anaphlacitc; typical allergies?
what type of hypersensitivity is cytotoxic reactions; rejection of blood transfusions or autoimmune hemolytic anemia
what type of hypersensitivity is immune complex mediated?
what type of hypersensitivity has no reaction until second exposure
HA, chest pain, back/flank pain, tachycardia and hypotension, hematuria, nausea & vomiting, and urticaria are clinical s/s for what type of hypersensitvity?
Fever, arthralgias, synovitis, lymphadenopathy, urticaria, and visceral inflammtion are clinical s/s of what type of hypersensitivity?
Itching, erythema, and vesicular lesions on the skin are clinical s/s for what type of hypersensitivity?
what is defined by inability to distinguish self from non-self causing the immune response to attack the bodys own tissues?
Gradual onset, flushed face, thirst, fruity odor to breath, HA, hyperventilation, lethargy/confusion/coma, abdominal pain & distention, and a blood glucose level >250 mg/dl are s/s for which blood glucose extreme?
rapid onset, pallor & perspiration, blurred vision, numbness of lips & tongue, HA, increased sympathetic activity- nervousness, irritability, & increased heart rate, difficulty speaking or concentrating and poor coordination are s/s which blood glucose extreme?
hypoglycemia/ insulin shock
what is defined as chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology typiacly involving synovial joints, but can also affect other organs
a pt. must have ___ out of ___ to meet the criteria to be Dx with RA
what is defined as chronic, systemic inflammatory rheumatic connective tissue disease; characterized by multiple autoantibodies
systemic lupus erythematosus
What are the three top systemic symptoms of infection?
s/s of infection of the skin would present how?
rash, purulent drainage from a wound, red streaks
s/s of infection of the cardiovascular system would present how?
petechial lesions, tachycardia, hypotension, change in pulse rate
Which is life threatening; viral or bacterial menegitis?
what is defined as single celled orgainisms that do not require another living organism for growth and reproduction?
what is defined as staph aureus one of the most common bacterial pathogens residing on the skin
In lay terms, what is streptococcal-group A?
bacterial sore throat
What can follow untreated strep throat?
what is defined as acute inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue with resultant lymphangitis and systemic s/s of fatigue, malaise, and HA?
what is descibed as something that can cause pneumonia and menigitis in adults and sepsis. Causes 70% of community acquired pneumonia
what is defined as a form of bronchopneumonia caused by legionella pneumonhila; freq. found in warm standing water
what are the hormones resposnible for metabolism?
What are some common disorders of the thyroid?
goiter, graves, hypothryroidism
what is defined as thyroid enlargment due to iodine deficienc in diet; inhibts normal thyroid production causing hypersecretion of TSH from pituitary.
Tachycardia with increased cardiac output; (-) nitrogen balance and lipid depletion; nervousness due to stimulation of sympathetic nervous sytem; mild thyroid enlargement; heat intolerance; increased appeitite; sweating and diarrhea; tremor and heart palpations; exophthalmos
These are descriptions for what disease?
what is the most common disorder of the thyroid?
T/F: some very common s/s for GI issues are also constitutional s/s?
a burning sensation in the esophagus usually felt in midline below the sternum in the region of the heart
What may be caused by mechanical, inflammatory, ischemic or referred and is related to the GI
what is often not detectable by the pt. and can be caused by gastritis, peptic ulcers or lesions of the intestines and often produce occult blood in the stool
What is defined as difficulty swallowing; causes include neurological dysfunction, local trauma or mechanical obstruction
what is described as the lower esophageal sphincter becomes enlarged allwoing stomach to pass through the diaphragm into the the thoracic cavity
lifting, straining, bending over, chronic or forceful cough, obesity, preggo, CHF, low fiber diet, constipation, delayed bowel movements can all cause what?
increased intra-abdominal pressure
scleroderma, smoking, caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, CNS depressants, fatty foods, cardiac meds that act as smooth muscles relaxers, and hiatal hernias are among the many causes for what?
Heartburn, reflux, dysphagia, painful swallowing, pain described as "burning" that moves up and down and can also radiate to the jaw, neck, and back and can typically occur 30-60 minutes after eating describes what?
what is described as inflammation of the lining of the stomach that represents a group of the most common stomach disorders. usually self-limiting and heals within several days
what is described as loss of tissue lining the lower esophagus, stomach (GU) and most commonly the duodenum?
_________ and other _________ can cause ulerations, hemorrhage, perforation, stricture formation, exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease.
what the most common gastric cancer?
what is defined as gluten sensitive enteropathy; genetically predisposed immune mediated disorder
what is defined as inflammation of the vermiform appendix?
what is defined as severe, life threatening disorder that occurs when activated enzymes escape into the pancreas and surrounding tissue
what is defined as progressive desruction of the pancreas mostly due to alcoholism?
what are the two types of inflammatory bowel diseases?
what is defined as inflammation and ulceration of the inner lining of the large intestine and rectum?
what is described by saying it attacks the terminal end of small intestine and colon but can occur anywhere from the mouth to anus and usually in young adults and adolescents
what is referred to as the "common cold of the stomach"
irritable bowel syndrome
where can the liver refer pain to?
Where can the gall bladder refer pain to?
R interscap area
R subscap area
What is defined as yellowness of skin, sclerae, mucous membranes, and excretions (dark urine, light stools) due to bilirubin staining
How intense should the exercise be for a pt. with jaundice or any other liver disease?
What are white bands across the nail plate called?
what are spoon nails called?
What are opaque nail beds called?
nails of terry
what are also known as schamroths window nails?
What are permanently enlarged & dilated capillaries due to impairment of estrogen detoxification by he liver?
what is defined as acute or chronic inflammation of liver due to viral, chemical, drug reaction, or alcohol abuse? And, how many forms does it have?
which form of hep is desribed below:
oral-fecal contamination; often acquired in childhood and mimics the flu. vaccine now available
which form of hep is described below:
blood borne; health care workers at risk; s/s jaundice, arthralgias, rash, very serious, high mortality rate-vaccination available
which form of hep is described below:
exposure to blood or blood products; transfusions, needlesticks, IV drugs, no vaccine available; can progress to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis
What is described as inflammation of liver for 6 months or more after unresolved viral hepatitis or unknown etiology; steroids may be used to treat
What represents the end stage of chronic liver disease?
What defines a male alcoholic?
14 drinks/week or >4 drinks/occasion
what defines a female alcoholic?
7 drinks/week or 3/occasion
what is "a drink"?
what are 5 health risks of chronic alcoholism?
T/F: with Liver CA, primary tumors are rare, usualy due to metastasis from colorectal, breast, lung, or urogenital.
Why is this true/false?
True; everything goes through the liver
in lay terms what is cholelithiasis?
in lay terms what is cholecystitis?
inflammlation of the gall bladder due to gall stones
in lay terms what is pyelonephritis?
what is defined as infectious inflammatory disease or renal parenchyma (cells of kidney) to bacteria entering via urethra?
Who is more at risk for kindey/UT infections? why?
Elderly; most commonly use cath's on a regular basis and their ability to clean the area appropriately has declined. Also, may be in depends underwear and dont get change PRN.
what is defined as inflammation of glomeruli of both kidneys; acute or chronic?
what is the technical anme for kidney stones?
T/F: you will probably never see patients directly for renal failure, but will treat them for musculoskeletal problems and other complications.
T/F: lupus can also cause chronic renal failure
what is the technical name for bladder infection?
what is the technical name for inflammation of urethra?
what is a bladder infection typically caused from?
ascending UTI, acute or chronic, bacterial.
what is urethritis typically caused from?
several organisms, some STD's and kidney stones
if you have a pt. come in and they c/o these s/s: lower abdomen and upper thigh pain that comes in waves and is excruciating and severely intense. what would you suspect they have?
bacterial commonly associated with bladder infections typically comes from where?
there are three types of incontinence, what are they?
is any form of incontinence normal?
what is incontinence?
impairment of voluntary bladder control.
when someone has urine leakage while laughing, jumping or coughing/sneezing, what type of incontinence do they have?
When someone has a real strong desire to urinate and eventually that desire takes over and they have an "accident" what type of incontinence is this?
There are 3 types of involvement with neurogenic incontinence, what are they?
Flaccid: LMN dysfunction
Spastic: UMN dysfunction
Uninhibited: neither flaccid or spastic
what type of incontinence is described by lack of control or sensation of bladder activity resulting in incontinence; due to CVA or head injury
New lesions, unexplained lesions, the physician is unaware and the lesion is changing are ___________ for skin rash physician referral.
Rapidly spreading rash that is accompainied by systemic c/o fever, fatigue, and/or malise and joint pain are ______________ for physician referral.
Anemia, lead poisoning, vasospasm, syncope, stress, internal bleeding, CA, GI disease and TB are causes for what skin color?
Central color change due to inadequate pulmonary gas exchange or peripheral slowing of cutaneous blood flow are causes for what skin color change?
Excessive levels of bilirubin cause what color skin change?
disturbance of the adrenocortical hormone cause what skin color change?
A hyperpigmentation or disturbance of adrenocortical hormone cause what change in skin color?
What is described as common, chronic, relapsing, pruritic type of eczemaous disorder that has no known cause?
Where is atopic dermatitis typically found in adults?
folds of extremities on flexor surfaces (elbow, knee)
what type of skin disorder is described as acute or chronic skin inflammation caused by exposure to chemical, mechanical, physical or biologic agent and what type of hypersensitivity is is?
contact dermatitis; type IV
what skin disorder is described as superficial inflammation of skin due to irritant exposure, allergic sensitization or genetics?
what are two examples of bacterial skin infections?
what are 3 types of viral skin infections?
herpes 1 & 2
what are 2 types of fungal skin infections
tinea corpora (ring worm)
tinea pedia (athletes foot)
which skin infection is most common in infants and elderly and is contagious and spreads easliy and what is it caused by?
impetigo; staph or strep
What skin infection in suppurative inflammation of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues and is caused by staph or strept pyogens?
what is described as common, benign, viral infections of skin caused by human papilloma viruses (HPVS)
T/F: tinea pedis (athletes foot) can lead to cellulitis
Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma, and karposis sarcoma are cancers of what?
What cancer is described as slow growing surface epithelial skin tumor originating from undifferentiated basal cells in epidermis
basal cell carcinoma
What is the second most common skin cancer in whites and usually occurs on rim of ear, face, lips, mouth, dorsum of hands where exposed to skin
squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most serious form of skin cancer that arises from pigmented cells in skin called melanocytes that synthesize melanin pigment
Those with a family Hx of it, have blonde or red hair and have marked freckling on the upper back are at risk for what type of skin cancer?
What is the ABCD method for early detection of melanoma?
What type of skin cancer presents as a skin disorder that used to occur in jewish and italian men and now is more common in patients with AIDS, more specifically homosexual males
What is chronic, inherited, recurrent, inflammatory dermatosis characterized by well defined erthematous plaques covered with silvery scales
what type of arthritis can patients develop if they have psoriasis?
What is the term that refers to a large group of diseases characterized by uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells
What is descibed as abnormal growth of new tissues that serves no useful purpose, does not respond to normal body controls and may harm the host organism by competing for blood and nutrients
what is either an "overgrowth" or neoplasm; benign or malignant
what is the process of describing the extent of disease (cancer) at the time of diagnosis
what is the purpose in staging cancer?
what are the most important predictors for recurrent CA?
stage at initial Dx
Carcinoma in situ is what stage of cancer?
early stage of local CA is what stage of CA?
increased risk of spread due to tumor size is what stage of CA?
local cancer that has spread but may not be spread to distant sites is what stage of cancer?
metastasis; has spread and disseminated to distant sites is what stage of CA>
What is the TMN staging system of CA?
T: primary tumor
N: regional lymph nodes
M: distant metastasis
What type of cells differ from normal cells in structure, size, function, rate of growth and occurs due to a basic disturbance in cellular DNA?
what are discrete stages that suggest a single alteration can only partially push a cell to carcingenesis?
stages of tumor development
what are 5 potential carcinogens?
exessive alcohol consumption
what are the 5 most common sites of mets?
what are the two ways the mechanism of metastasis can occur?
break away from the primary tumor and:
travel through the blood and lymph to lodge
penetrate into adjacent structures
what is the cancer gene that can contribute to development of cancer after pathologic activation (often activated by a virus) that can transform normal cells into malignant cells
Cancer has been found not to have just 1 causative factor, but has a ________________.
interplay of causative agents
What is the single most significant risk factor for cancer?
age; doubles at 25 and increase every 5 years
T/F: diet and lifestyle plays a small role in the development of CA?
what are the 4 most common forms of CA that show a familial pattern?
What are the top 3 modifiable risk factors for CA development?
T/F: pain is an early symptom for CA.
What do curative treatment options for CA consist of?
biotherapy/biological response modifiers (BRM)
in lay terms what is palliative Tx?
when there is no cure, it is used to make the pt. more comfortable for the remainder of their life, to control to s/s.
What is the caution Acronym?
C: changes in bowel and bladder
A: a sore that does not heal in 6 weeks
U: unusual bleeding/discharge
T: thickening or lumps
I: indigestion/difficulty swallowing
O: obvious changes in wart/mole
N: nagging dry cough or hoarseness
what are the two most common local and systemic s/s of CA?
low grade fever at night; 99-100 degrees and cyclic
unchanging, unreproducable, deep, boaring pain
After how long of no recurrence of CA after initial Dx is a pt. considered "cured"?
You would not exercise a CA pt.if their platelet count was ______, their hemoglobin was ________ and if the WBC was ___________
WBC: <3,000/ml OR >10,000 with fever
Which is the most preventable form of all CA's?
small cell or oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell, odenocarcinoma, and large cell carcinomas are what type of cancer?
what type of medication is most effective in treating moderate to severe pain that is fairly constant (typically after MVA, MI, surgery) and is also used in treating chronic pain associated with CA.
morphine, codeine, oxycodone, hydocodone, and demerol are what type of medication?
what type of medication has sedative properties and induce some degree of mental slowness and drowsiness. Can cause constipation, induce euphoria and may produce addiction.
What does NSAID stand for?
NSAIDS are used to do what?
reduce pain, inflammation, fever, and excessive blood clotting
Cox inhibitors, acetopmenophen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are what type of medication?
what type of medication has a limited delay of soft tissue healing, impairment of bone and cartilage healing, is a renal vasoconstrictors, and may not be effective in mod-severe pain
what hormone is naturally produced by the adrenal cortex and is involved with cortisol/hydrocortisone?
What are the "other" attribute for glucocorticoids?
suppress the immune system
medrol, topicort, dexamethasone,lidex, predinsone are what type of medication?
Which chambers of the heart receive the blood?
which chambers of the heart send the blood?
where do the right side of the heart send/receive blood?
where does the left side of the heart send/receive blood?
what is the heart enclosed by?
what is the muscle of the heart?
what is the inner layer of the heart?
what are the blood vessels on the surface of the heart that supply the heart muscle with blood?
where do the coronary arteries arise from?
which coronary artery supplies the inferior heart and a ___________ MI can happen here.
which coronary artery supplies the anterior heart and a _________ MI can happen here
what do valves of the heart maintain?
unidirectional blood flow through the heart
what valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle and what type of valve is it?
what valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle and what type of valve is it?
bicuspid (mitral); atrioventricular
what is the valve between the left ventricle and aorta and what type of valve is it?
what is the valve between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery and what type of valve is it?
arteries are _____________ due to ___________.
X-sectionally thick; musculature
what are smaller arteries that control the amount of blood flowing into specific areas?
what are very small vessels in networks that are the site for nutrient exchange between blood and tissues?
what are capacitance vessels that are poorly organized and have less smooth muscle?
what helps veins propel blood?
what is the pacemaker of the heart?
SA (sinoatrial) node
what receives its impulses for the SA node?
atrioventricular (AV) node
what is fused with the AV node near the top of ventricles?
bundle of his
what is located in the left and right septum between the ventricles?
what are some common conditions of the cardiovascular system impact?
heart nervous system
what do you call it when an artery hardens?
what do you call it with an artery becomes congested with plaque?
Which are good and which are bad LDL or HDL when it comes to coronary artery disease (CAD)
what are the modifiable risk factors for CAD?
exercise, smoking, cholesterol, HBP
what are the non-modifiable risk factors for CAD?
age, male, family history, race
what is chest pain due to a deficit of oxygen for the heart muscle?
what are the four types of angina?
nocturnal: wake up from sleep
prinzmetals: occurs at rest
Stable: know what triggers it
unstable: whenever, where ever
what is caused by obstruction of coronary artery, leading to prolonged ischemia, cell death/necrosis
what are the main s/s of MI?
light headedness, dizziness
what is an alteration in cardiac rate or rhythm, manifested on ECG?
what is a physiologic state in which the heart is unable to pump enought blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body at rest or during exercise?
congestive heart failure (CHF)
when the ______________ fails to propel blood forward normally, congestion occurs in the pulmonary circulation
left side of heart
when the _____________ fails, it results in peripheral edema and organ enlargement
right side of heart
what is the "hallmark" of right sided heart failure?
what are the three most common forms of congenital heart defects?
ventricular septal defect
tetralogy of fallot
what do pericarditis, endocarditis, and rheumatic disease all have in common?
causes of valvular issues
what is inflammation of the parietal and viseral pericardium?
what is the result when micro-organisms attach to the endocardium and invade the heart valves?
what is persistant elevation of systolic blood pressure called?
how many stages are there for HTN?
3; pre, 1 & 2
how many stages are there for HTN and what are they called?
what is a heteroenous group of diseases of the myocardium associated with mechanical and/or electrical dysfunction that usually exhibit inappropriate ventricular hypertrophy or dilation and are due to a variety of causes
what are the three types of cardiomyopathy?
dilated, hypertrophic, restricitve
what is described as relatively uncommon acute or chronic inflammaton of the heart muscle?
what is defined as any abnormality in the arteries or veins excluding the heart?
peripheral vascular disease
what is the leading cause of amputation?
peripheral artery disease
on the wells DVT <2 equals what?
on the wells DVT 2-6 points equals what?
on the wells DVT >6 points equals what?
what is common lab value for HGB for males?
what is the common lab value for HGB for females?
what is the common lab value for HCT for females?
what is the common lab value for HCT for males?
what is the common lab value for glucose?
what is the common lab value for INR?
hemiglobin is the _______ number and hematacrit is the _______ number.
what are the three most common s/s with PE?
pleuritic chest pain with cough
what is the most common s/s with a pulmonary disorder?
a dry cough can suggest?
a productive cough with purulent sputum suggests?
a productive cough with non-purulent sputum suggests?
a productive cough with rust colored sputum suggests?
a productive cough with blood in it may suggest?
tumor, infection, inflammation, infarction, or abscess
repeated cycles of deep breathing, followed by shallow and/or cessation
abnormally long and deep inspiration
a decrease of air entering alveoli
chest wall falls in during inspiration
shrill, harsh sound during inspiration
high pitched whistling sound with expiration
discontinuous low-pitched sounds predominatly during inspiration
what are some common causes of nail clubbing related to pulmonary issues?
CF, COPD, lung CA, bronchiectasis
What are the two most common obstructive dieseases (COPD)
chronic bronchitis, emphysema
what are 2 common restrictive pulmonary diseases?
what is cor pulmonale?
right sided heart failure
How does COPD typically present?
chronic productive cough with excessive mucous
What is the main goal when treating pt.'s with COPD?
better uptake of oxygen into the tissues and maximizing status
What are the basics for COPD rehab?
pulmonary rehab: breathing exercises and techniques
exercise: whole body; 45 min/daily- intense
education: immunity, energy conservation, hydration
what is defined as a chronic productive cough >3 months per year for 2 consecutive years?
what is defined as pathological retention of air in tissues, particularly in the lungs?
with emphysema, destruction of the __________ leads to permanent, irreversible damage of the __________.
what is defined as reversible obstructive lung disease characterized by inflammation and smooth muscle contraction that has a hereditary component?
what is described as a progressive form-characterized by irreversible destruction and dilation of airways generally associated with chronic bacterial infections
what is described as inflammatory pulmonary response to the offending organism or agent?
what does pneumonia often follow?
what are the 4 types of pneumonia?
what is defined as acute respiratory failure secondary to a systemic or pulmonary insult; often a fatal complication of serious illness, trauma, or major surgery
ARDS: acute resp. distress syndrome
what is defined as an autosomal recessive inherited disorfer of ion transport in the exocrine glands?
increased viscosity of secretions in multiple organ systems and patchy atelectasis with hyperinflation of the lungs is associated with what?
cystic fibrosis can affect what organ systems of the body?
T/F: pt's with CF are always susceptible to infection and airway clearance several times a day or as often as possible is indicated
what are the categories for CNS involvement?
spinal cord injury
meningitis, encephalitis, brain abscesses are what type of brain diesase?
altered level of consciousness, confusion, convulsions, HA's photophobia, memory loss, stiff neck, myalgia are s/s of what?
what is defined as the meninges becomes inflamed due to infectious agent crossing the blood brain barrier and entering the CSF
which is more deadly, viral or bacterial meningitis?
what is described as acute inflammatory disease of the parenchyma of the brain caused by direct viral invasion or hpersensitivity cause by a virus
what are the three categories of neoplasms?
what are the 3 types of primary tumors?
what are 5 degenerative diseases of the CNS?
what type of disease is ALS?
motor neuron disease; devastatingly fatal for the LMN and UMN
degeneration of the motor neurons involved with ALS happens where?
corticospinal tracts, motor cortex, and brainstem
ALS presenting with muscle weakness, hyporeflexia, hypotonicity, atrophy, muscle cramps and fasiculations are dysfunctions with which motor neurons?
ALS presenting with spsticity, pathologic reflexes, hyper-reflexia, and muscle weakness is a dysfunction with which motor neuron?
what is the great crippler of younger adults and is a chronic demyelinating disease of the CNS?
what triggers production of T-cells and macrophages that produces a cytotoxic effects in the CNS resulting in the destruction of myelin leading to MS?
What are the direct impairments of MS?
sensory, visual, motor, cognitive & behavioral, bowel and bladder