Viural Diseases 6.4

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corbin19
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30206
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Viural Diseases 6.4
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2010-08-19 17:47:19
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Serology viral diseases NSHS MLT
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Serology 6.4 Viral Diseases
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  1. viruses are obligate intracellular parasites which contain either ____ or ____.
    • DNA
    • RNA
  2. viruses are dependent on _____ cellular bochemical system for replication.
    host
  3. RNA viruses cause many ______.
    colds
  4. viruses may be as small as ________ nm.
    20-30nm
  5. true or false
    viruses possess both DNA and RNA together.
    false
  6. what is encased in the capsid?
    nucleic acid
  7. what are the two shapes of the capsid?
    • helical-rodlike
    • icosahedral-spherical
  8. this protects viral nucleic acid from degradative host cellular enzyme.
    Capsid
  9. Capsids are assembled from _________ protein subunits
    identical
  10. this may surround the capsid?
    envelope
  11. the envelope is polypeptide backbone together with lipids and carbohydrates acquired from what?
    host cells
  12. true or flase
    the presence of envelope is used to characterize viruses
    true
  13. to lack the componets necessary for independent life and replication.
    inert
  14. this is the complete virus particle
    virion
  15. this is a generic term referring to inflammation of liver.
    hepatitis
  16. true or false
    hepatitis is caused by viruses, bacteria, drugs, toxins, excessive alcohol.
    true
  17. these types of hepatitis mainly attacks the liver with little direct effect on other organ systems.
    primary hepatitis viruses
  18. EBV and CMV may cause what types of hepatitis?
    secondary hepatitis viruses
  19. these types of hepatitis involve the liver secondarily in the course of systemic infection of another body system.
    secodnary hepatitis viruses
  20. what are the four phases of acute hepatitis?
    • incubation
    • preicteric
    • icteric
    • convalecent
  21. this is the phase of acute hepatitis when a patient develops infection but no clinical symptoms have manifested.
    incubation
  22. this is the phase of acute hepatitis when patient exhibits clinical symptoms of infection but no jaundice is present.
    preicteric
  23. this is the phase of acute hepatitis when jaundice becomes present.
    icteric
  24. This is the phase of acute hepatitis when recovery takes place.
    convalecent
  25. this is the typical form of hepatitis, jaudice is present.
    acute
  26. this is a rare form of hepatitis where full hepatic failure takes place.
    fulminant
  27. this is an early mild form of hepatitis.
    subclinical
  28. this form of heaptitis occurs in 10% of acute cases and lasts longer than six months.
    chronic
  29. this type of jaundic is formerly called infectious hepatitis or short incubation, contains a single strand of RNA.
    hepatitis A virus (HAV)
  30. what is the route of transmission for HAV?
    fecal oral route
  31. HAV is rarely ___________ acquired.
    transfusion
  32. true or false
    hepatitis A virus rarely causes fulminant acute hepatitis
    true
  33. in what type of hepatitis does a chronic carrier state and chronic hepatitis NOT occur.
    HAV
  34. what is the average incubation period for HAV?
    28 days
  35. what is the incubation range for HAV?
    15-50 days
  36. what is the only place that the heatitis A virus can be found?
    stool only
  37. what is the testing method for hepatitis A virus?
    EIA
  38. what is the testing method for hepatitis A IgM and total antibodies?
    • RIA
    • EIA
  39. if a patient is positive for Heatitis A IgM and positive for Total antibody what is the condition?
    acute
  40. if a patient is negative for Hepatitis A IgM but positive for total antibody what is the condition?
    recovered
  41. this type of hepatitis is formerly called serum hepatitis or long incubation hepatitis
    hepatitis B virus
  42. what is the name of the double shelled particle associated with the Hepatitis B Virus?
    the Dane particle
  43. this type of hepatitis is a partially double stranded DNA?
    hepatitis B virus
  44. what is the route of transmission for HBV?
    • parenteral route
    • sexual contact
  45. what are the high-risk donor goups that have been eliminated to reduce the risk of transfusion acquired HBV?
    • paid donors
    • prison inamtes
    • military recruits
    • male homosexuals
  46. true or false
    Hepatitis B Virus patients can have a chronic infection or be asymptomatic
    true
  47. in this type of HBV there is no immunity which leads to liver cell cancer
    chronic infection
  48. what is the incubation period for HBV?
    45-160 days
  49. this was formerly known as australia antigen
    hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
  50. what is the first detectable HBV marker in serum during incubation period, found on the outer coat.
    hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
  51. when is HBsAg detectable after exposure? when does it peak?
    • 1-5 months
    • 3 months
  52. what is the HBV antigen that is not detected in serum?
    Hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)
  53. this antigen is found in some HBsAg positive people but rarely found in HBsAg negative people?
    hepatitis Be antigen (HBeAg)
  54. relationship between HBeAg and the structure of HBV is _______.
    unclear
  55. this is a reliable marker for presence of high levels of HBV and degree of infectivity.
    Hepatitis Be antigen (HBeAg)
  56. this is detectable at two moths after exposer and indicates recent infection of HBV?
    hepatitis B core antibody (HBcAb)
  57. this is developed during convalescence and recovery of hepatitis B. it is a serological marker for recovery and immunity.
    hepatitis B surface antibody (HBsAb)(Anti-HBs)
  58. this is seen in acute hepatitis and indicates infection is being resloved.
    Hepatitis Be antibodies (HBeAb)(Anti-HBe)
  59. in early HBV what are the reactions for the following:
    HBsAg:
    HBeAg:
    Anti-HBc IgM:
    Anti-HBc total:
    Anti-HBe:
    Anti-HBs:
    • HBsAg: +
    • HBeAg: +/=
    • Anti-HBc IgM: +/=
    • Anti-HBc total: +/=
    • Anti-HBe: =
    • Anti-HBs: =
  60. for acute hepatitis B what are the reactions in:
    HBsAg:
    HBeAg:
    Anti-HBc IgM:
    Anti-HBc total:
    Anti-HBe:
    Anti-HBs:
    • HBsAg: +
    • HBeAg: +/=
    • Anti-HBc IgM: +/=
    • Anti-HBc total: +
    • Anti-HBe: =
    • Anti-HBs: =
  61. For chronic hepatitis B what is the reaction for:
    HBsAg:
    HBeAg:
    Anti-HBc IgM:
    Anti-HBc total:
    Anti-HBe:
    Anti-HBs:
    • HBsAg: +
    • HBeAg: +/=
    • Anti-HBc IgM: =
    • Anti-HBc total: +
    • Anti-HBe: +/=
    • Anti-HBs: =
  62. for recovered hepatitis B what are the reactions for:
    HBsAg:
    HBeAg:
    Anti-HBc IgM:
    Anti-HBc total:
    Anti-HBe:
    Anti-HBs:
    • HBsAg: =
    • HBeAg: =
    • Anti-HBc IgM: =
    • Anti-HBc total: +
    • Anti-HBe: +
    • Anti-HBs: +
  63. for immunied patients what will the HBV results be for:
    HBsAg:
    HBeAg:
    Anti-HBc IgM:
    Anti-HBc total:
    Anti-HBe:
    Anti-HBs:
    • HBsAg: =
    • HBeAg: =
    • Anti-HBc IgM: =
    • Anti-HBc total: =
    • Anti-HBe: =
    • Anti-HBs: +
  64. What is the most popular method for detecting Hepatitis B antigens and antibodies?
    Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
  65. what type of hepatitis is clinically and epidemiologically similar to hepatitis B?
    Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
  66. what is the primary route of transmission for HCV?
    percutaneous contact with infected blood or blood products
  67. what is the maor source of Hepatitis C in dialysis patients?
    post-transfusion
  68. what percent of acute hepatitis C infections will evolve into chronic hepatitis?
    50-70%
  69. what percent of hepatitis C will progress to serosis which will increase the risk of liver cancer.
    20%
  70. what are the seven tests used to detect HCV?
    • ELISA
    • Western blot
    • PCR amplification
    • HCV RNA titers
    • Anti-HCV
    • ALT/SGPT
    • Anti-HBc
  71. what is the confirmatory test for HCV?
    Western blot
  72. what is the test used to detect low levels of HCV?
    PCR amplification
  73. this hepatitis was first described as a pathogen which superinfects some patients who are already infected with HBV.
    Delta Hepatitis (HDV)
  74. in HDV what is required as a helper because delta is a defective virus?
    HBV
  75. true or false
    people who are HBsAg positive can be infected with HDV.
    True
  76. what are the two places where HDV is common?
    • italy
    • middle east
  77. where are Delta antigens detected?
    Liver
  78. how is HDV antigen tested?
    double immunodiffusion
  79. what are the two method to detect for HDV antibody?
    • RIA
    • EIA
  80. what are the three test used for delta hepatitis?
    • RIA
    • EIA
    • RT-PCR
    • Double Immunodiffusion
  81. this hepatitis, which is similar to HAV, is transmitted through fecal-oral route, and found in devloping countries.
    Hepatitis E Virus (HEV)
  82. No form of chronic ______ disease has been attributed to HEV.
    liver
  83. in what hepatitis are most infections self limited and mild?
    HEV
  84. in what hepatitis does infection result in fulminant hepatitis in 10-20% pregnant women?
    HEV
  85. True or false
    Serological test for IgM and IgG anti-HEV are now available.
    true
  86. what is the goal in HEV testing?
    rule out other types of hepatitis
  87. where are molecular techniques used for HEV?
    research labs
  88. This is a blood-bourne RNA virus, that frequently occurs as a co-infection with HCV.
    Hepatitis G (HGV)
  89. who is at risk for HGV?
    • transfusion recipients
    • IV drug abusers
  90. what test is used in the diagnostic evaluation of HGV?
    PCR
  91. all hepatitis specimens require a minimum of ___ mL of serum using aseptic technique.
    3 mL
  92. what is the tubes used for Hepatitis testing?
    • red top
    • SST
  93. This is an immune disordser which affects T-lymphs
    AIDS
  94. what is the causative agent of AIDS?
    human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
  95. what are the three modes of transmission of HIV?
    • exchange of body fluid
    • intimate contact with blood from an infected person
    • transplacentally
  96. what are the nine sites that the AIDS virus can be isolated from?
    • blood
    • semen
    • vaginal secretions
    • saliva
    • tears
    • breast milk
    • CSF
    • amniotic fluid
    • urine
  97. what are the ony four secretions that have been implicated in transmission?
    • blood
    • semen
    • breast milk
    • vaginal secretions
  98. what is the stage of AIDS that is asymptomatic, or the patient exhibits mild chronic lymphadenopathy, which lasts for many months to many years?
    early stage
  99. this is a severe flu-like symptom that is seen in early stage AIDS
    viremia
  100. this stage of AIDS is seen 2-10 years post initial infection when replication of virus begin again. this stage is called AIDS.
    Late phase
  101. what are the three signs and symptoms associated with late phase AIDS?
    • extreme weight loss
    • Fever
    • multiple secondary infections (pneumocystis, candidiasis, karposi sarcoma)
  102. what is the AIDS virus structure?
    retrovirus
  103. this is an enzyme which converts RNA into DNA
    reverse transcriptase enzyme
  104. how many strands of RNA are present in the AIDS virus structure?
    single
  105. true or false
    AIDS virus contains a reverse transcriptase enzyme.
    true
  106. what are the two components fo the outer envelope of the AIDS virus?
    • phosopholipid bilayer
    • glycoproteins
  107. what are the two glycoproteins found in the aids virus outer envelope?
    • gp 120
    • gp 41
  108. what is the primary composition of the core of the AIDS virus?
    proteins
  109. what two structures in the core of the AIDS virus and what is their composition?
    • Matrix- p17
    • Capsid- p24
  110. virus binds to ___ receptors on target cells.
    CD4
  111. what are the four cells that the AIDS virus binds to?
    • Helper/inducer T-lymphs
    • monocytes/macrophages
    • skin cells
    • 5% of B lympsh
  112. what percent of B lymphs does the AIDS virus bind to?
    5%
  113. this convers RNA into proviral DNA?
    Reverse transcriptase
  114. this is the causative agent of AIDS in the U.S. and europe
    HIV-1
  115. this is associated with immunodeficiency and AIDS in west africa
    HIV-2
  116. period between infection and disease may be longer and milder in which form of AIDS?
    HIV-2
  117. Ab to HIV-1 appear at about __ weeks after infection.
    6
  118. this type of HIV antibody is not routinely tested alone.
    HIV-2 antibody
  119. this is the most widely used screening test for AIDS.
    EIA
  120. true or false
    Reactive AIDS results must be retested and confirmed.
    true
  121. if __ out of __ EIA results for AIDS are reactive, report out "repeatedly reactive."
    2 out of 3
  122. This could cause a false negative on EIA for AIDS.
    not enough antibody to be detected (incubation)
  123. this could cause a false positive on EIA for AIDS.
    autoimmune disease and heat treated specimens
  124. what is the confirmation test for AIDS?
    western blot test
  125. in this test, HIV proteins are separated by electrophoresiss, then transferred to nitrocellulose sheets cut into strips. which are incubaed then substrate is added for color which deveops where Ag-Ab reactions occur.
    Western blot
  126. on the western blot test, where does color develop?
    where Ag-Ab reactions occur
  127. on the western blot test, the presence of what two proteins, in conjunction with a postive EIA, are considered positive?
    • gp41
    • p24
  128. this retrovirus is linked to adult T-cell leukemia and transmitted by transfer of infected cells.
    HTLV-I
  129. this retrovirus is linked to hairy cell leukemia?
    HTLV-II
  130. what are three methods used as initial screening methods for other human retroviruses?
    • EIA
    • immunofluorescence
    • RIA
  131. what is the confirmatory method for other human retroviruses?
    immunoblots (i.e. Western blot)
  132. what is the name of the virus that is a memeber of the herpes family which has caused a worldwide endemic?
    cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  133. what are the five means by which cytomegalovirus may be transmitted?
    • orally
    • respiratory
    • venereal
    • organ transplantation
    • transfusion
  134. what three fluids may the cytomegalovirus be present in?
    • blood
    • urine
    • breast milk
  135. what are the two forms of infection in cytomegalovirus?
    • acquired infeciton
    • congenital infection
  136. by adulthood, most individuals have experience asymptomatic contact of this virus.
    cytomegalovirus
  137. in cytomegalovirus, occcasionally self-limited, heterophile negative symptoms occur that resemble what illness?
    mononucleosis
  138. what are the four signs and symptoms of cytomegalovirus?
    • sore throat
    • fever
    • chills
    • malaise
  139. active CMV infection may be life-threatening for who?
    immunocompromised patients
  140. this is one of the most important cause of congenital viral infections in the U.S.
    cytomegalovirus
  141. Majority of CMV infected newborns are asymptomatic but ___ manifest damage caused by CMV.
    1%
  142. in cytomegalovirus, infected infants can become severely ill and death may occur in __________ infants.
    premature
  143. in cytomegalovirsu reactivation of infection in seropositive patients may have increase in ____ antibodies.
    IgG
  144. what are the three testing methods used to detect cytomegalovirus antibodies?
    • complement fixation
    • latex agglutination
    • EIA
  145. what is the only testing method to detect cytomegalovirus antigens?
    EIA
  146. what are the specimen requirements for cytomegalovirus?
    2ml serum or anticoagulated blood (lavender top)
  147. what are the two most common manifestations of HSV?
    • cold sore
    • fever blister
  148. HSV belongs to the herpes family along with what other three viruses?
    • varicella-zoster
    • epstein barr virus
    • cytomegalovirus
  149. this virus is generally found in and around oral cavity and skin lesions above waist.
    herpes simplex virus type 1
  150. transmission of this herpes virus is usually non-venereal.
    HSV-1
  151. this virus is isolated primarily from genital tract and skin lesion below the waist.
    herpes simplex virus type 2
  152. transmission of this type of herpes is venereal.
    HSV-2
  153. what is the predominant age group for HSV-1
    • young children
    • preadolescents
  154. what is the predominant age group for HSV 2?
    15-30 y/o
  155. what are the three testing methods for HSV antigens?
    • immunoflourescence
    • immunoassays
    • immunoblots
  156. what are the three testing methods for HSV antibodies.
    • immunoflourescence
    • EIA
    • Titer
  157. a ____ fold increase or greater in titer indicates primary infection
    four
  158. this virus is also know as german measles.
    rubella
  159. this is a highly contagious, endemic virus that is transmitted by respiratory secretion.
    rubella
  160. before widespread immunization of rubella, infection occured mostly in ____________.
    childhood
  161. what is the incubation period for rubella?
    10-21 days
  162. how long are infected persons contagious for? before rash?
    • 12-15 days
    • 5-7 days
  163. infecition by this virus usually lasts for 3-5 days and generally requires little treatment.
    rubella
  164. pregnant women infected with rubella in what trimester can have devestating effects on fetus?
    1st trimester
  165. in-utero infection of rubella can result in fetal death or __________ syndrome.
    rubella
  166. what are three signs and syndromes of rubella syndrome?
    • bone defects
    • mental retardation
    • cardiovascular defects
  167. what are the three testing methods for rubella?
    • latex agglutination
    • EIA
    • hemagglutination inhibition
  168. what is the testing method used for rapid and convenient testing of rubella?
    latex agglutination
  169. what is the reference method used in rubella?
    hemagglutination inhibition
  170. what are the specimen requirements for quantitative testing of rubella?
    • two specimens required
    • first within 3 days of rash onset
    • second 7-21 days after onset or rast or 30 days after exposure
  171. when collecting two specimens for rubella, they should be tested ______________.
    simultaneously
  172. how long are EIA rubella specimens good for if refigerated at 2-8oC?
    72hrs
  173. if delays for more than 72 hours are expected in EIA rubella testing they should be stored at what temperature?
    -20oC
  174. TORCH is an acronym for what four infectious diseases?
    • Toxoplasma gondi
    • Rubella
    • CMV
    • herpes viruses
  175. true or flase
    torch disease cannot cause illness in pregnant women or cannnot cause birth defects in the newborn
    false
  176. what is the testing method for TORCH?
    ELISA
  177. TORCH testing screens for the presence of __________ to any of the infections.
    antibodies
  178. the presence of ____ or ____ in TORCH indicates a recent or current infection.
    • IgM
    • IgG

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