A&P I Final

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frinicker
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A&P I Final
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2015-05-06 22:15:16
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lecture final review for A&P I
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  1. Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of humans?
    A. Nutrients are absorbed directly from the environment.
    B. Respiration is more complicated than it is in very small organisms.
    C. Excretion is a simpler process than it is in smaller organisms.
    D. Excretion involves movement across exposed surfaces.
    B. Respiration is more complicated than it is in very small organisms.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The study of function is to _____ as the study of form is to anatomy.
    A. physiology
    B. histology
    C. microscopic anatomy
    D. systemic anatomy
    A. Physiology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which division of anatomy focuses on the form and structure of the heart, blood, and blood vessels?
    A. histology
    B. cytology
    C. systemic anatomy
    D. surface anatomy
    C. systemic anatomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following is an accurate description of the cellular level of organization?
    A. Cells consist of two or more different tissues working together to preform specific functions.
    B. Cells are considered to be the largest living units in the body.
    C. Cells are comprised of different molecules that interact to form larger structures, each type of which has a specific function.
    D. Cells combine to form molecules with complex shapes, which determine their functions.
    C. Cells are comprised of different molecules that interact to form larger structures, each type of which has a specific function
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The fact that a single defective protein causes cystic fibrosis, a multisystemic illness, proves that
    A. chemical molecules make up cells
    B. all organisms are composed of cells
    C. all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent
    all cells are independent of each other
    C. all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Lungs are to the respiratory system as the spleen is to the
    A. cardiovascular system
    B. digestive system
    C. urinary system
    D. lymphatic system
    D. lymphatic system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A structure that senses change is called a(n) ____.
    A. effector
    B. integration center
    C. receptor
    D. stimulus
    C. receptor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions with respect to the external environment is called ____.
    A. integration
    B. internal regulation
    C. responsiveness
    D. homeostasis
    D. homeostasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The prevention of change, by ignoring minor variations and maintaining a normal range rather than a fixed value, is characteristic of
    A. positive feedback
    B. stimulus reinforcement
    C. effector control
    D. negative feedback
    D. negative feedback
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. the increasingly forceful labor contractions that lead to childbirth are an example of which type of mechanism?
    A. negative feedback
    B. receptor activation
    C. effector shutdown
    D. positive feedback
    D. positive feedback
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?
    A. An increase in normal body temperature triggers heat loss through enhanced blood flow to the skin and increased sweating.
    B. An increase in ambient room temperature triggers the thermostat to turn on the heater.
    C. Increased blood sugar stimulates the release of a hormone from the pancreas that stimulates the liver to release blood sugar.
    D. A severe cut triggers accelerated blood clotting until the bleeding stops.
    A. An increase in normal body temperature triggers heat loss through enhanced blood flow to the skin and increased sweating.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A person who is lying on his or her stomach is said to be in the
    A. frontal position
    B. transverse position
    C. supine position
    D. prone position
    D. prone position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which directional term indicates the back of the body?
    A. ventral
    B. dorsal
    C. proximal
    D. lateral
    B. dorsal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following anatomical landmarks corresponds to the groin?
    A. inguinal
    B. gluteus
    C. lumbus
    D. cephalon
    A. inguinal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A person lying face up in the anatomical position is said to be in the ________ position.
    A. prone
    B. supine
    C. coronal
    D. sagittal
    B. supine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which term refers to the posterior of the knee?
    A. inguinal
    B. popliteus
    C. patella
    D. antecubitis
    B. popliteus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Using anatomical terms of direction, supply the word that would make the sentence correct. The stomach is ______ to the lungs.
    A. dorsal
    B. ventral
    C. inferior
    D. superior
    C. inferior
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following is medial to the breast?
    A. sternum
    B. elbow
    C. shoulder
    D. digits
    A. sternum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The wrist is _____ to the elbow.
    A. medial
    B. proximal
    C. lateral
    D. distal
    D. distal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The navel is _____ to the chin.
    A. superior
    B. inferior
    C. posterior
    D. anterior
    B. inferior
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Anterior is to ______ as posterior is to dorsal.
    A. caudal
    B. inferior
    C. cranial
    D. ventral
    D. ventral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Choose the directional term to make the following sentence correct. The knee is ______ to the foot.
    A. medial
    B. proximal
    C. distal
    D. lateral
    B. proximal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The heart, lungs, and small intestine would collectively be found in the
    A. dorsal body cavity
    B. pleural cavity
    C. ventral body cavity
    D. peritoneal cavity
    C. ventral body cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The diaphragm separates the _______ cavity from the _____ cavity.
    A. abdominal; pelvic
    B. thoracic; abdominopelvic
    C. pericardial; pleural
    D. pleural; mediastinum
    B. thoracic; abdominopelvic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The mediastinum separates _________ from the __________.
    A. one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity
    B. the abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
    C. the pleural cavity; coelom
    D. the thoracic cavity; peritoneal cavity
    A. one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Atoms of the same element have the same number of ______ but may have a different number of ________.
    A. electrons; protons
    B. neutrons; electrons
    C. protons; neutrons
    D. electrons; neutrons
    C. protons; neutrons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 14, then an electrically neutral atom of this element contains.
    A. 6 neutrons
    B. 14 protons
    C. 6 protons
    D. 6 electrons
    A. 6 neurtrons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. When an anion and a cation are electrically attracted to each other, ______ is formed.
    A. a hydrogen bond
    B. a molecule
    C. an ionic bond
    D. an ion
    C. an ionic bond
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which of the following is a characteristic of hydrogen bonds?
    A. Hydrogen bonds occur only in water
    B. Hydrogen bonds are part of fatty-acid structure.
    C. Hydrogen bonds can form between adjacent molecules
    D. Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms.
    C. hydrogen bonds can form between adjacent molecules
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following is an example of anions?
    A. magnesium
    B. potassium
    C. chloride
    D. calcium
    C. choloride
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Matter containing two atoms of the same element that are bonded together by shared electrons are called
    A. compounds
    B. cells
    C. elements
    D. molecules
    D. molecules
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. In a molecule of hydrogen, a pair of electrons is shared equally. Such a bond is called a(n)
    A. polar covalent bond
    B. nonpolar covalent bond
    C. ionic bond
    D. oxygen covalent bond
    B. nonpolar covalent bond
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. If two pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms, what type of bond occurs?
    A. polar covalent bond
    B. single covalent bond
    C. double covalent bond
    D. triple covalent bond
    C. double covalent bond
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Chlorine atoms have seven electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, one would expect chlorine to form ions with a charge of
    A. +2
    B. -1
    C. 0
    D. -2
    B. -1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which statement about the reaction H2 + C2 → 2HCl is correct?
    A. HCl is the product
    B. H2 and Cl2 are the products
    C. One molecule of chlorine contains one atom
    D. One molecule of hydrogen contains one atom
    A. HCl is the product
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis,
    A. a polysaccharide is formed
    B. a condensation reaction occurs
    C. a new monosaccharide is formed
    D. a starch is formed
    B. a condensation reaction occurs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Hydrolysis is an example of which type of reaction?
    A. decomposition reaction
    B. anabolism
    C. synthesis reaction
    D. exchange
    A. decomposition reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Choose the most accurate definition of chemical reaction.
    A. it is movement or a change in the physical structure of matter.
    B. it is a process in which bonds between atoms are formed or broken.
    C. it is an increase in random molecular motion
    D. it is the energy of motion.
    B. it is a process in which bonds between atoms are formed or broken
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 would be an example of a(n)
    A. enzyme reaction
    B. exchange reaction
    C. synthesis reaction
    D. decomposition reaction
    C. synthesis reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B ↔ AB is to
    A. replacment
    B. reversible
    C. combustion
    D. exchange
    B. reversible
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Chemical reactions that occur in the human body are catalyzed by special protein molecules called ____.
    A. electrolytes
    B. metabolites
    C. steroids
    D. enzymes
    D. enzymes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. In an endergonic reaction,
    A. large molecules are broken down into smaller ones
    B. molecules are rearranged to from new molecules
    C. molecules move from reactants to products and back
    D. energy is consumed during the reaction
    D. energy is consumed during the reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which is the mechanism of enzyme functioning?
    A. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction
    B. Enzymes remove hydrogen ions
    C. Enzymes raise the activation energy of a reaction.
    D. Enzymes replace hydrogen ions
    A. Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The best definition of organic material is anything that contains
    A. carbon and oxygen covalently bonded.
    B. carbon and hydrogen covalently bonded
    C. carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen covalently bonded.
    D. hydrogen covalently bonded
    B. carbon and hydrogen covalently bonded
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A mixture of water and salt would result in breaking down the salt into a mixture of cations and anions. This process is called ____.
    A. condensation reaction
    B. dehydration synthesis
    C. hydrolysis
    D. dissociation
    D. dissociation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following substances would be nearest the pH of human blood?
    A. pure water, pH 7
    B. milk, pH 6.5
    C. wine, pH 3
    D. tomato juice, pH 4
    A. pure water, pH 7
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Why is it important to precisely regulate the pH of blood or other body fluid?
    A. hydrogen ions are extremely reactive
    B. blood and other body fluids have a very high heat capacity
    C. dehydration synthesis of large molecules occurs
    D. blood functions as an excellent solvent
    A. hydrogen ions are extremely reactive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. When placed in solution, an inorganic substance dissociated completely, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This substance would be a
    A. weak base
    B. strong acid
    C. weak acid
    D. strong base
    B. strong acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Functionally, carbohydrates are most important as ________ .
    A. sources of energy
    B. a part of nucleic acid structure
    C. storage of glucose molecules
    D. receptors of the cell surface
    A. sources of energy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
    A. starch
    B. protein
    C. vitamin B-12
    D. glucose
    D. glucose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. A class of lipids used as chemical messengers, to signal cells to undergo changes, is called
    A. polysaccharides
    B. triglycerides
    C. steroids
    D. phospholipids
    C. steroids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Lipids are used for which of the following?
    A. to provide roughly 10 times as much energy as carbohydrates
    B. to form essential structural component of cells
    C. to help protect the skeleton
    D. to help reduce body temperature
    B. to form essential structural components of cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Molecules that perform almost all cell function are called
    A. proteins
    B. nucleic acids
    C. carbohydrates
    D. steroids
    A. proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A DNA nucleotide specifically consists of
    A. a five-carbon sugar and a phosphate group
    B. a five-carbon sugar and a nitrogen base
    C. a ribose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group
    D. a deoxyribose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group
    D. a deoxyribose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. According to the rules of complementary base pairing, a nucleotide containing the base cytosine would only pair with a nucleotide containing the base
    A. adenine
    B. guanine
    C. uracil
    D. thymine
    B. guanine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The hydrolysis of ATP yields the molecule ____. a. adenine
    b. phospholipid
    c. adenosine diphosphate
    d. thymine
    c. adenosine diphosphate
  57. Choose the correct pairing of macromolecule type to its function.
    A. lipid- manufactures proteins
    B. protein- comprises majority of membrane structure
    C. carbohydrate- major source of energy
    D. DNA- controls reaction rates
    C. carbohydrate- major source of energy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory?
    A. Tissues are the site of control
    B. Cells are produced by meiosis
    C. Organelles are the basic functional unit of life
    D. Cells are the basic structural unit of life
    D. Cells are the basic structural unit of life
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The plasma membrane
    A. is the central government of the cell
    B. is a watery gel in which structures are suspended.
    C. contains the powerhouse of the cell
    D. regulates the exchange of substances with the environment
    D. regulates the exchange of substances with the environment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Structurally, the plasma membrane
    A. is composed of a bilayer of lipids
    B. contains carbohydrate molecules only
    C. contains no imbedded proteins
    D. is nonporous
    A. is composed of a bilayer of lipids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Plasma membranes allow certain molecules to pass, while blocking others. This is called
    A. impermeability
    B. selective permeability
    C. free permeability
    D. active permeability
    B. selective permeability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?
    A. sensitivity to changes in the extracellular fluid
    B. continuation of the cytoplasm with the extracellular fluid
    C. a free passageway for materials to the environment
    D. enzyme production
    A. sensitivity to changes in the extracellular fluid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. The movement of water across a membrane from an area of higher water (low solute) concentration to an area of lower water (higher solute) concentration is known as
    A. filtration
    B. diffusion
    C. active transport
    D. osmosis
    D. osmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. The process by which molecules such as oxygen are moved into cells along their concentration gradient directly through the cell membrane is called
    A. active transport
    B. osmosis
    C. osmosis
    D. diffusion
    D. diffusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. The process that occurs when hydrostatic pressure pushes materials through a membrane is called
    A. osmosis
    B. diffusion
    C. filtration
    D. facilitated diffusion
    C. filtration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Immersion of red blood cells into a(n) _____ solution results in lysis of the cell.
    A. hypotonic
    B. monotonic
    C. isotonic
    D. hypertonic
    A. hypotonic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Crenation occurs when a blood cell is place in a(n)
    A. pinocytotic solution
    B. isotonic solution
    C. hypertonic solution
    D. monotonic solution
    C. hypertonic solution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane with the same properties as a cell membrane. Solution A is 5 percent glucose and solution B is 10 percent glucose. Under these circumstances,
    A. glucose will move from solution A to solution B
    B. glucose will move from solution B to solution A
    C. water will move from solution A to solution B
    D. water will move from solution B to solution A
    C. water will move from solution A to solution B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. A process that requires ATP energy to move a substance independently of its concentration gradient is called
    A. facilitated transport
    B. active transport
    C. passive transport
    D. osmosis
    B. active transport
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. How does facilitated diffusion differ from simple diffusion?
    A. Facilitated diffusion expends no ATP
    B. Facilitated diffusion moves molecules form an area of higher concentration to lower concentration
    C. The concentration gradient is never eliminated in facilitated diffusion
    D. The rate of transport cannot increase indefinitely in facilitated diffusion
    D. The rate of transport cannot increase indefinitely in facilitated diffusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. The peroxisome
    A. functions in macromolecular biosynthesis
    B. breaks down fatty acids and other organic compounds
    C. is responsible for the formation of microtubules
    D. produces proteins
    B. breaks down fatty acids and other organic compounds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. The structure that allows locomotion in some cells is the
    A. cilium
    B. microfilament
    C. flagellum
    D. histone
    C. flagellum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Synthesis of phospholipids is a function of the
    A. lyosomes
    B. mitochondria
    C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D. Golgi apparatus
    C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Membrane renewal vesicles are formed by
    A. the Golgi apparatus
    B. the endoplasmic reticulum
    C. lysosomes
    D. mitochondria
    A. the Golgi apparatus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Synthesis of most ATP takes place in the
    A. rough ER
    B. ribosomes
    C. mitochondria
    D. smooth ER
    C. mitochondria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. When activated, lysosomes may function in
    A. the formation of new cell membranes
    B. autolysis
    C. the synthesis of lipids
    D. the synthesis of proteins
    B. autolysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Cilia are found
    A. in cells that are required to move fluids or secretions along the cell surface
    B. in large numbers on cells that secrete hormones
    C. mostly in muscle cells
    D. on the inside of cell membranes
    A. in cells that are required to move fluids or secretions along the cell surface
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which of the following is a function or property of the mitochondria?
    A. ATP production
    B. physical isolation
    C. sensitivity
    D. regulation of exchange with the environment
    A. ATP production
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. If a cell lacked centrioles, it probably would not be able to
    A. move
    B. produce DNA
    C. synthesize proteins
    D. divide
    D. divide
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. When a protein is synthesized on fixed ribosomes, it is threaded into the lumen of which structure(s)?
    A. nucleoli
    B. endoplasmic reticulum
    C. the Golgi apparatus
    D. transport vesicles
    B. endoplasmic reticulum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Examination of a sample cells reveals large numbers of mitochondria compared to most other cells. Which of the following is a likely reason for this?
    A. the cells synthesize transport proteins
    B. the cells have very high energy requirements
    C. the cells produce steroid hormones
    D. the cells produce digestive enzymes
    B. the cells have very high energy requirements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. The control center for cellular operations is the
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B. nucleolus
    C. nucleus
    D. ribosome
    C. nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Transcription occurs in the
    A. Golgi body
    B. cytoplasm
    C. nucleus
    D. vesicles
    C. nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence UAG on a tRNA is
    A. AUC
    B. ATC
    C. TUC
    D. UAG
    A. AUC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Translation takes place on the ____.
    A. histone
    B. ribosome
    C. DNA
    D. nucleolus
    B. ribosome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Which of the following sequences is correct?
    A. triplet - anticodon- codon-protein
    B. triplet-anticodon-ribosome-protein
    C. triplet-ribosome-codon-protein
    D. triplet-codon-anticodon-protein
    D. triplet-codon-anticodon-protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Identify the phase of mitosis, which ends when daughter chromosomes move to the centrioles at opposite poles of the cell.
    A. metaphase
    B. telophase
    C. anaphase
    D. prophase
    C. anaphase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Before a cell can divide by mitosis, which of the following must occur?
    A. protein synthesis
    B. division of cytoplasm
    C. synthesis of a new cell membrane
    D. replication of the DNA
    D. replication of the DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. When genes are switched off to allow a cell to restrict or specialize its functions, the process is called
    A. differentiation
    B. destabilization
    C. structural integration
    D. adaptation
    A. differentiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissues?
    A. differentiation
    B. destabilization
    C. control permeability
    D. structural integration
    A. differentiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which of the following is a correct statement about stratified epithelia?
    A. they are characteristic of regions where secretion or absorption occurs
    B. they cover surfaces that are subjected to mechanical or chemical stress
    C. they afford little mechanical protection
    D. they line only internal compartment and passageways
    B. they cover surfaces that are subjected to mechanical or chemical stress
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Skeletal muscle is to muscle tissue as bone is to
    A. muscle tissue
    B. nervous tissue
    C. epithelial tissue
    D. connective tissue
    D. connective tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Functions of connective tissue include
    A. the conduction of electrical impulses
    B. specialization for contraction
    C. glandular secretion production
    D. storage of energy reserves
    D. storage of energy reserves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Why does damaged cartilage heal slowly?
    A. cartilage is avascular, so nutrients and other molecules must diffuse to the site of injury
    B. chondrocytes cannot be replaced if killed, and other cell types must take their place.
    C. damaged cartilage becomes calcified, thus blocking the movement of materials required for healing
    D. chondrocytes divide more slowly than other cell types, delaying the healing process
    A. cartilage is avascular, so nutrients and other molecules must diffuse to the site of injury
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. What is the primary function of any serous membrane?
    A. it covers the outer surface of the body
    B. it attaches muscles to the skeleton
    C. it minimizes friction between the opposing surfaces when an organ moves or changes shape
    D. it lines joint cavities and produces fluid within a joint
    C. it minimizes friction between the opposing surfaces when an organ moves or changes shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Tissue that is specialized for contraction is _______ tissue.
    A. connective
    B. muscle
    C. nervous
    D. epithelial
    B. muscle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. During regeneration, fibroblasts produce a dense network of collagen fibers known as _____ tissue.
    A. callous
    B. infected
    C. scar
    D. reticular
    C. scar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Restoring homeostasis after tissue injury involves which of the following?
    A. inflammation and regeneration
    B. regeneration and differentiation
    C. infection and inflammation
    D. fibrosis and inflammation
    A. inflammation and regeneration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the cutaneous membrane?
    A. epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
    B. hypodermis, dermis, epidermis
    C. epidermis, hypodermis, dermis
    D. dermis, epidermis, hypodermis
    A. epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Functions of the skin include
    A. synthesizing antibodies
    B. regulating body temperature
    C. producing adipose tissue
    D. synthesizing digestive enzymes
    B. regulating body temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Which of the following is the function of the combination of epidermal ridges and dermal papillae?
    A. increase the surface are for diffusion between the dermis and epidermis
    B. increase secretion of milk in specialized integumentary glands
    C. increase sensory reception
    D. increase storage of nutrients in the digestive tract
    A. increase surface are for diffusion between the dermis and epidermis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. The protein that contributes to many of the skin's protective qualities is called ____.
    A. carotene
    B. dermicidin
    C. keratin
    D. melanin
    C. keratin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Choose the correct order of the cell layers, or strata, in a section of thick skin, from the basement membrane toward the free surface (deep to superficial).
    1. stratum lucidum
    2. stratum basale
    3. stratum corneum
    4. stratum granulosum
    5. stratum spinosum

    A. 2, 3, 4, 1, 3
    B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
    C. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
    D. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
    A. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. The observed differences in skin color reflect the levels of ______ production.
    A. carotene
    B. keratinocyte
    C. keratin
    D. melanin
    D. melanin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light
    A. can cause destruction of vitamin D3
    B. can result in decreased melanin production by melanocytes
    C. can result in increased numbers of melanocytes forming in the skin
    D. can slowly increase melanocyte activity
    D. can slowly increase melanocyte activity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. When the body is overheated, the skin responds by
    A. constricting blood vessels
    B. dilating blood vessels
    C. losing oxygen to surrounding tissues
    D. decreasing melanin production
    B. dilating blood vessels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. When a person becomes "pale." what is the physiologic basis?
    A. melanocytes increase production of red pigments
    B. the number of red melanocytes in the skin increases
    C. the blood supply  to the skin decreases
    D. the blood supply to the skin increases
    C. the blood supply to the skin decreases
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. The dermis is composed largely of _____.
    A. fluid connective
    B. dense irregular connective
    C. adipose
    D. muscle
    B. dense irregular connective
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. The hypodermis
    A. is composed of strata with various functions
    B. is highly vascular
    C. provides mechanical strength to the skin
    D. is quite elastic
    D. is quite elastic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. When the arrector pili muscles contract,
    A. sweat is released from sweat glands
    B. "goose bumps" are formed
    C. hairs are shed
    D. shivering occurs
    B. "goose bumps" are formed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Merocrine sweat glands
    A. are most common in the axillary and inguinal regions of the body
    B. respond only in times of stress
    C. are active only in areas of dense hair
    D. respond primarily to elevated body temperature
    D. respond primarily to elevated body temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Perspiration that is produced by apocrine sweat glands
    A. helps to cool the surface of the skin when it evaporates
    B. is more than 99 percent water.
    C. contains electrolytes and waste products
    D. is limited to the hair follicles of the axilla, nipples, and groin
    D. is limited to the hair follicles of the axilla, nipples, and groin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Regulatory functions of the skeletal system include
    A. cushioning abdominal organs such as the kidneys
    B. maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids
    C. facilitating transmissions of nerve impulses
    D. absorbing the shock of unexpected rapid body movements
    B. maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Bone cells capable of dissolving the bony matrix are termed
    A. osteons
    B. chondrocytes
    C. osteocytes
    D. osteoclasts
    D. osteoclasts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Immature, active bone cells that produce new bone matrix are termed
    A. osteoblasts
    B. osteoclasts
    C. stem cells
    D. osteocytes
    A. osteoblasts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates
    A. growth in bone diameter is just beginning
    B. epiphyseal growth has ended
    C. the bone is fractured at that location
    D. epiphyseal growth is just beginning
    B. epiphyseal growth has ended
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. During the process of ____, an existing tissue is replaced with bone.
    A. ossification
    B. blood cell production
    C. calcification
    D. resorption
    A. ossification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. One role of the fontanels is to
    A. serve as the final bony plates of the skull
    B. lighten the weight of the skull bones
    C. serve as ossification centers for the facial bones
    D. allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth
    D. allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification:
    1. Bone forms at the diaphysis surface'
    2. Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses.
    3. Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify.
    4. Osteoclasts create a marrow cavity.
    5. Blood vessels invade the inner cartilage and new osteoblasts form spongy bone at a primary ossification center.
    The correct order for these events are
    A. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
    B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
    C. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
    D. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
    B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. The paranasal sinuses function in
    A. contributing to the floor of the cranium
    B. lightening the skull and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium
    C. supporting and stabilizing the position of the larynx.
    D. forming the floor and medial portion of the rim of the orbit.
    B. lightening the skull and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. Which of the following statements describes how muscles help maintain homeostasis?
    A. skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature
    B. the contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move elements of the skeleton
    C. skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs
    D. skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart
    A. skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Skeletal muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that these muscle fibers
    A. lack a plasma membrane
    B. have many nuclei
    C. lack mitochondria
    D. are very small
    B. have many nuclei
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. The skeletal muscle structures that actively shorten and are responsible for muscle fiber contraction are called
    A. myotubules
    B. sarcolemma
    C. myofibrils
    D. sarcomeres
    C. myofibrils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Rigor mortis occurs as death due to a lack of
    A. RNA
    B. DNA
    C. ATP
    D. cAMP
    C. ATP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Which of the following is one of the steps that ends a contraction?
    A. acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase
    B. sarcoplasmic reticulum absorbs sodium ions
    C. acetylcholine binds to receptors on the sarcolemma
    D. calcium ions bind to troponin
    A. acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
    A. calcium ions
    B. acetylcholine
    C. potassium ions
    D. sodium ions
    A. calcium ions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. As a skeletal muscle contraction is initiated, acetylcholine binding alters the motor end plate membrane's permeability to
    A. acetylcholinesterase
    B. sodium ions
    C. chloride ions
    D. calcium ions
    B. sodium ions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. Botulism
    A. is the result of an attack on acetylcholine receptors by the immune system
    B. results from the loss of acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate
    C. is usually tied to a genetic predisposition
    D. results from a bacterial toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at the axon terminals
    D. results from a bacterial toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at the axon terminals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. Which of the following occurs as a result of motor units in particular muscle being always active, even though their contractions do not produce enough movement to cause contraction?
    A. treppe
    B. muscle tone
    C. fatigue
    D. tetany
    B. muscle tone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. Which statement regarding the relaxation phase of a muscle twitch is true?
    A. the phase begins at stimulation and typically lasts about two milliseconds
    B. muscle tension falls to resting levels
    C. the action potential sweeps across the sarcomere during this period
    D. tension rises to a peak
    B. muscle tension falls to resting levels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. Choose the correct statement regarding motor units.
    A. a motor neuron may control two or three muscle fibers of the eye
    B. muscle fibers of each motor unit are not mingled with those of other motor units
    C. when muscles contract for sustained periods, maximal tension is maintained
    D. during a sustained contraction, all motor units are activated simultaneously
    A. a motor neuron may control two or three muscle fibers of the eye
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Creatine phosphate serves to
    A. supply energy to synthesize ATP
    B. decompose ADP
    C. cause the decomposition of ATP
    D. synthesize ADP
    A. supply energy to synthesize ATP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Exhaustion of energy reserves or decline in pH due to production and dissociation of lactic acid causes
    A. muscle fatigue
    B. muscle contraction
    C. the conduction of neural information to the muscle fiber
    D. muscle relaxation
    A. muscle fatigue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. During moderate activity, which of the following is true regarding muscle metabolism?
    A. mitochondrial activity provides about one-third of the ATP consumed
    B. the ATP produced is used to build energy reserves of ATP an glycogen
    C. glucose and fatty acids are catabolized
    D. most ATP is produced through glycolysis, with lactate and hydrogen ions as byproducts
    C. glucose and fatty acids are catabolized
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. Which of the following occurs when glycolysis produces pyruvate faster than it can be used by the mitochondria?
    A. lactic acid is produced
    B. pyruvate is converted to sucrose
    C. lactic acid dissociates into a water molecule and hydrogen
    D. Pyruvate levels drop in the cytoplasm
    A. lactic acid is produced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. A person whose genetic makeup makes him or her a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more _____ in his or her leg muscles.
    A. dark fibers
    B. slow fibers
    C. intermediate fibers
    D. fast fibers
    B. slow fibers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Which of the following is characteristic of cardiac muscle?
    A. cardiac muscle cells achieve tetany with every contraction
    B. cardiac muscle fibers are multinucleated
    C. cardiac muscle fibers are faster than skeletal muscles
    D. cardiac muscle cells are striated
    D. cardiac muscle cells are striated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. The myelin sheaths that surround the axons of the neurons in the CNS are formed by
    A. oligodendrocytes
    B. microglia
    C. Schwann cells
    D. astrocytes
    A. oligodendrocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. Small phagocytic glial cells, which are derived form white blood cells, are called
    A. astrocytes
    B. oligodendrocytes
    C. microglia
    D. Schwann cells
    C. microglia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is the outer layer of
    A. Schwann cells
    B. microglia
    C. astrocytes
    D. oligodendrocytes
    A. Schwann cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Interneurons
    A. carry only motor impulses
    B. carry only sensory impulses
    C. only connect motor neurons to other motor neurons
    D. are found only in the central nervous system
    D. are found only in the central nervous system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. Most neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains
    A. why neurons grow such long axons
    B. why such neurons cannot divide through mitosis
    C. the ability of neurons to communicate with each other
    D. the conducting ability of neurons
    B. why such neurons cannot divide through mitosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. The all-or-none principle states that
    A. only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials
    B. all stimuli will produce identical action potentials
    C. the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action potential
    D. all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials
    D. all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. Changes in the membrane potential that cannot spread far from the site of stimulation are called _______.
    A. refractories
    B. threshold
    C. hyperpolarizations
    D. graded potentials
    D. graded potentials
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. Saltatory conduction
    A. occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous
    B. is slower than conduction on an unmyelinated axon
    C. is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated axon
    D. occurs only if node of Ranvier are lacking
    C. is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated axon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane of a neuron results in
    A. increased negative charge inside the membrane
    B. hyperpolarization
    C. depolarization
    D. repolarization
    C. depolarization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. During continuous conduction,
    A. local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue to form along the membrane
    B. action potentials move in all directions along an axon
    C. action potentials occur at successive nodes along the length of the stimulated axon
    D. action potentials produce a local current that is strong enough to spread along the length of the axon
    A. local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue to form along the membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. Identify the correct sequence of steps in the generation of an action potential.
    1. Activation of sodium channels and rapid depolarization
    2. Inactivation of sodium channels and activation of potassium channels
    3. Depolarization to threshold
    4. Closing of potassium channels
    A. 1, 3, 2, 4
    B. 4, 3, 2, 1
    C. 1, 3, 4, 2
    D. 3, 1, 2, 4
    D. 3, 1, 2, 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed,
    A. motor control of visceral organs would be impaired
    B. incoming sensory information would be disrupted
    C. motor control of skeletal muscle would be impaired
    D. the spinal cord would not be able to process information at that level
    B. incoming sensory information would be disrupted
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. The primary connection between cerebral hemispheres is the
    A. postcentral gyrus
    B. corpus callosum
    C. midbrain
    D. cerebellum
    B. corpus callosum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. The ____ acts as a switching and relay center for integration of conscious and unconscious sensory information and motor commands
    A. pons
    B. cerebellum
    C. midbrain
    D. diencephalon
    D. diencephalon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. The visual cortex of the cerebrum is located in the ____.
    A. parietal lobe
    B. occipital lobe
    C. postcentral gyrus
    D. hippocampus
    B. occipital lobe
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. The primary motor cortex of the cerebrum is located in the _____.
    A. precentral gyrus
    B. pons
    C. cerebellum
    D. lateral sulcus
    A. precentral gyrus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. The part of the CNS that adjusts voluntary and involuntary motor activities on the basis of sensory information and stored memory of previous movements is the
    A. medulla oblongata
    B. cerebellum
    C. diencephalon
    D. midbrain
    B. cerebellum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. Major centers concerned with autonomic function, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration is the
    A. pons
    B. midbrain
    C. diencephalon
    D. medulla oblongata
    D. medulla oblongata
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. Regions of the brain that are involved in interpreting data or coordinating motor responses are
    A. commissural areas
    B. sensory areas
    C. motor areas
    D. association areas
    D. association areas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. The region of the brain that is involved in conscious thought and intellectual functions as well as processing somatic sensory and motor information is the
    A. medulla
    B. cerebrum
    C. midbrain
    D. cerebellum
    B. cerebrum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. The automatic processing center responsible for programming and fine-tuning movements controlled at the conscious and subconscious levels is the
    A. cerebellum
    B. pons
    C. midbrain
    D. cerebrum
    A. cerebellum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. Which of the following performs such abstract intellectual function as predicting the future consequences of events or actions?
    A. hippocampus
    B. basal ganglia
    C. thalamus
    D. prefrontal cortex
    D. prefrontal cortex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. If Broca's area is damaged, what might result?
    A. loss of memory
    B. loss of upper limb control
    C. loss of the ability to speak
    D. loss of sensation
    C. loss of the ability to speak
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. Stimulation of the reticular formation results in
    A. sleep
    B. coma
    C. increased attention
    D. decreased cerebral function
    C. increased attention
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. Monosynaptic reflexes
    A. usually control slow motor responses
    B. involve two or more sequential synapses
    C. are exemplified by the stretch reflex
    D. are among the most complex reflex areas
    C. are exemplified by the stretch reflex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. Pulling away from a painful stimulus is an example of a(n) ____ reflex.
    A. knee-jerk
    B. cross-extensor
    C. withdrawal
    D. pupillary
    C. withdrawal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. The flexor reflex
    A. make adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus
    B. prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension
    C. is a withdrawal reflex
    D. prevents a muscle from overstretching
    C. is a withdrawal reflex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct order?
    A. receptor,effector, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron
    B. receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
    C. receptor, sensory neuron, effector, interneuron, motor neuron
    D. effector, receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron
    B. receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. Which pathway provides subconscious, involuntary control of muscle tone and movements of the neck, trunk, and limbs?
    A. spinocerebellar
    B. medial pathway
    C. spinothalmic
    D. homunclular
    B. medial pathway
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. The spinal pathway(s) that carries/carry highly localized sensory information concerning fine touch and pressure is/are the
    A. medial and lateral pathways
    B. spinocerebellar pathway
    C. corticospinal pathway
    D. posterior column
    D. posterior column
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. The spinal pathway(s) that carries/carry information regulating skeletal muscle tone is/are the
    A. medial and lateral pathways
    B. spinothalamic pathway
    C. corticospinal pathway
    D. posterior column
    A. medial and lateral pathways
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving
    A. both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
    B. both autonomic and somatic motor nerves
    C. nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord
    D. two nerves from the spinal cord
    A. both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. The conscious awareness of a sensation is called
    A. proprioception
    B. adaptation
    C. reception
    D. perception
    D. perception
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. The fading of a dominant odor some time after one enters a room is an example of experiencing
    A. a change in concentration of the odor
    B. damage to receptors
    C. sensory adaptation
    D. sensory deprivation
    C. sensory adaptation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Which statement regarding sensory reception is correct?
    A. the larger the receptive field, the better is one's ability to localize a stimulus
    B. the CNS can tell the difference between a "true" sensation and a "false" one
    C. output from higher centers can dampen receptor sensitivity
    D. the CNS interprets the nature of sensory information entirely on the basis of the area of the brain stimulated
    D. the CNS interprets the nature of sensory information entirely on the basis of the area of the brain stimulated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. Proprioceptors
    A. are free nerve endings that branch within the walls of a distensible organ
    B. for the most part, produce information that is processed consciously
    C. do not adapt to constant stimulation
    D. do not send information continuously to the CNS
    C. do not adapt to constant stimulation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. The mechanism of gustatory reception seems to parallel that of
    A. olfactory receptors
    B. light receptors
    C. nociceptors
    D. mechanoreceptors
    A. olfactory receptors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Humans are most sensitive to which taste?
    A. salty
    B. sweet
    C. sour
    D. bitter
    D. bitter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. The lacrimal glands
    A. produce only about 20% of the volume of tears
    B. are located in pockets in the lacrimal bones
    C. have a dozen or more ducts
    D. produce a slightly acidic secretion that contains lysozyme
    C. have a dozen or more ducts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. The fibrous layer of the eye
    A. contains the intrinsic eye muscles
    B. consists of the iris, ciliary body, and choroid
    C. consists of the sclera and the cornea
    D. regulates the amount of light entering the eye
    C. consists of the sclera and the cornea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. The vitreous body
    A. contains blood vessels that nourish the retina
    B. is located between the lens and the iris
    C. helps to stabilize the eye shape
    D. contains the lens
    C. helps to stabilize the eye shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. The lens focuses the visual image on the photoreceptors by
    A. opening and closing
    B. moving up and down
    C. moving in and out
    D. changing shape
    D. changing shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. The ciliary muscle helps to
    A. pull the lens into a more rounded shape
    B. control the amount of light reaching the retina
    C. move the eyeball
    D. control the production of aqueous humor
    A. pull the lens into a more rounded shape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. The highest concentration of cones is in the _____.
    A. choroid
    B. fovea centralis
    C. fibrous layer
    D. optic disc
    B. fovea centralis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. A person suffering from ____ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close.
    A. myopia
    B. glaucoma
    C. hyperopia
    D. emmetropia
    C. hyperopia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. Night blindness can be treated by administering
    A. vitamin K
    B. vitamin A
    C. vitamin D
    D. vitamin E
    B. vitamin A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. In the visual pathway, each cerebral hemisphere receives visual information from
    A. the medial half of the retina from the same and from the opposite side
    B. the lateral half on the retina from the same and the opposite side
    C. the lateral half of the retina on the same side, and from the medial half of the retina on the opposite side
    D. the medial half of the retina on the same side, and from the lateral half of the retina on the opposite side
    C. the lateral half of the retina on the same side, and from the medial half of the retina on the opposite side
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. Movement of the sensory receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals
    A. allows up to hear sounds
    B. stimulates the receptor cells to change in body position with respect to gravity
    C. produces sound
    D. stimulates the receptor cells, alerting us to rotational movement
    D. stimulates the receptor cells, alerting us to rotational movement
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. Sound energy is converted into mechanical movements by the
    A. round window
    B. cochlea
    C. tympanic membrane
    D. oval window
    C. tympanic membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. The sense of hearing is provided by receptors of the
    A. pinna
    B. middle ear
    C. internal ear
    D. outer ear
    C. internal ear
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. The frequency of a sound is indicated to the nervous system by the
    A. region of the basilar membrane of the spiral organ that is stimulated
    B. number of rows of hair cells that are stimulated in the spiral organ
    C. movement of the perilymph in the cochlear duct
    D. frequency of hair cell vibration in the spiral organ
    A. region of the basilar membrane of the spiral organ that is stimulated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. _________ deafness results from conduction in the middle ear that block the normal transfer of vibrations from tympanic membrane to the oval window
    A. Tunnel
    B. Nerve
    C. Corti
    D. Conduction
    D. Conduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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