Parasitology: Terms

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Parasitology: Terms
2015-06-14 21:39:25

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  1. Generally a smaller organism that lives, on or inside, at the expense of a larger animal/host
    ex: flea and dog
  2. A biological association in which one animal is transported by another animal.
    ex: cow and cattle egret
  3. Two organisms which live together, neither bearing a parasitic relation to the other, but one or both members deriving benefit.
  4. Two organisms living together with a mutual advantageous association of tow or more organisms.
    What is another term for this?
    • Mutualism
    • Symbiotic relationship
  5. A condition in which parasites of different species parasitize a single host.
    Multiple parasitism
  6. Excessive parasitization by the same species
  7. A term for a disease that can be transferred from one species to another.
    ex: Human to animal/vice versa
    Zoonosis a.k.a. - Public health
  8. Condition of roundworms
  9. Condition of hookworms
  10. Condition of whipworms
  11. Hookworm infection under the skin. This can be animal or human.
    Cutaneous larval migrans
  12. Ascarids in humans
    Visceral larval migrans
  13. Passage of parasite via placenta
    • Intrauterine
    • Transovarian
    • Inutero
  14. Passage of parasite via milk.
    • Transmammary
    • Glycogenic
  15. A stage in development of egg post cell. Starts to develop 'cleavage'
  16. This is the stage right before the egg hatches. Stage is right after the morula stage
    Vermiform embryo
  17. A reduction in RBC's and/or hemoglobin
  18. This is caused by the removal of RBC's being so fast that the animal cannot replace it fast enough. Usually caused by parasites
    Clinical anemia
  19. This is caused by the removal of RBC's being so fast the animal cannot replace it but is does NOT involve parasites
    Aplastic anemia
  20. Normal sized RBC
  21. Smaller then normal RBC
  22. Larger then normal RBC
  23. Normal colored RBC
  24. Lighter colored RBC
  25. Darker colored RBC
  26. Requires an intermediate host generally an arthropod
    Indirect Life Cycle
  27. No intermediate host is need for this life cycle
    Direct life cycle
  28. The brand or trade name for a drug
    Proprietary name
  29. The generic name for a drug
    Non-proprietary name
  30. The organic formula for the drug with carbon, hydroxide, oxygen, and covalent bonds attached
    Chemical name
  31. Gives live birth
  32. Produces eggs
  33. Name for a disease that an animal can acquire and transmit to humans. What is it also known as?
    • Zoonotic disease
    • Public health
  34. Name for a disease that is transmissible to man and can cause death. It can also effect the economy.
    Reportable disease
  35. What is the large body cavity called in Nematodes
  36. Male nematodes caudal end are often equipped with a cuticular expansion, used for gripping the female, called a
    Copulatory bursa
  37. Hookworm penetration at the feet is called
    hookworm dermatitis
  38. Describe these fecal scores
    Score 1
    Score 2
    score 3
    Score 4
    Score 5
    Score 6
    Score 7
    • Feces are hard and dry, Maybe expelled in individual pellets
    • Firm, not hard. Segmented appearance but pliable.
    • Log like. Little to no segmentation
    • Very moist but has log shape. Leaves residue when picked up.
    • very moist has distinct shape but is present in piles rather then logs.
    • Has texture but no distinct shape. Occurs in piles or spots.
    • Watery, no texture at all. Flat and occurs in puddles.
  39. What are two parasites that can be seen with the naked eye?
    • Ascarids
    • Cestodes
  40. These tapeworms are flat and look like fettichini
  41. What are the three trestrial tape worms
    • Mesocestoides
    • Diplydium caninum
    • Tenia
  42. What area  of the US is the most prevalent with intestinal parasites and heartworms?
    Southeast texas
  43. What is this group of health care professionals established to create guidelines for the optimal control of internal and external parasites that threaten the halt of pets and people.
    Companion Animal Parasite Council
  44. This group of people work closely with CAPC
    National Center for Veterinarian Parasitology
  45. What are the 6 CAPC recommendations
    • bring animals in for annual physical examinations
    • Place dogs/cats on flea and tick preventative asap
    • treat d/c year-round with broad-specturm hw anthelmintics
    • provide pets with cooked/packaged food and water
    • retest heartworm status of dogs annually
    • Conduct fecal examinations once or twice a year.
  46. Where did heartworms first appear? and what year?
    Hennepin Country, Minnesota in 1937
  47. What are considered the best test from highest to lowest sensitivity
    • Necropsy
    • Polymerase chain reactions (PCR)
    • Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
    • Immunofluoscence
    • Centrifuge flations
    • Simple flotation
    • Direct smear
  48. What is the percent of routine diagnostic testing for tapeworms?
    1 - 2 %
  49. What is the test specifically designed for tapeworms? and how effective is this test?
    • Sandwich ELISA test - it detects proteins
    • 70%
  50. Using the occult test what is the prevalence of tapeworms in (%)
    Shelter dogs
    Domestic dogs
    • 58.5%
    • 45.5%
  51. What are the three test used for fecals
    • Centrifuge
    • Flotation
    • Direct smear
  52. What is the minimum specific gravity need to float these eggs?
    • 1.06
    • 1.15
    • 1.23
    • 1.24
  53. What are three fecal solutions used for fecals flotations?
    • Zinc sulfate - most common
    • sodium nitrate
    • shethers solution
  54. What age can puppies infected with T. canis and A. caninum start to shed eggs?
    2 - 3 weeks
  55. Raccoon roundworm that can infect dogs and humans
    Bayliascaris procyonis
  56. Hookworms in humans causes these two things
    • Chronic enterocolitis
    • Eosinophilic enteritis
  57. Who are 9 people susceptible to zoonosis
    • Young children
    • Households with young animals
    • People who are careless about sanitation of personal hygiene
    • Persons who work in close contact with animals, including wild life
    • people who work in contaminated enviornments
    • People with compromised immune systems
    • Pet owners who do not routinely deworm their animals
    • Elderly people
    • Veterinary professionals
  58. This is the hookworm of humans
    Ancylostoma brazillensis
  59. What is the family for Ancylostomiasis
  60. two hookworms found in dogs
    • Ancylostoma caninum
    • Uncinaria stenocephalia
  61. Two hookworms found in cats
    • Ancylostoma tuberformae
    • Uncinaria stenocephalia
  62. What stage is considered the infective stage for Ancylostoma
    stage 3
  63. What are the 5 avenues of infection for Ancylostoma
    • skin penetration
    • oral infection
    • transmammary
    • inutero
    • parentinic host
  64. What is the prepatent period for Ancylostoma
    14 days
  65. hookworms don't suck blood they
    eat the mucosal - glycoproteins - lining of the small intestine
  66. Host expense to parasites depend on these three things
    • Number of parasites
    • kind and degree of injury that they inflict
    • vigor and nourishment of the host
  67. What are two major signs associated with hookworm infections
    • blood loss - primary concern
    • gastrointestinal irritation
  68. Anemia created by blood loss becomes more ___ and ____ with the development of iron deficiency
    • Hypochromic
    • Microcytic
  69. The hookworm life cycle is cosidered
  70. What is the primary method of transmission for Ancylostoma
    • Transmammary transmission
    • - Uncinaria stenocephala larvae can also penetrate this way
  71. What is the primary method of transmission for Toxocara
    Transplacental transmission
  72. What are the two most common blood types for dogs
    • DEA 4
    • DEA 6
  73. How many ml's of blood can be take from an animal for blood transfusion
    10 ml per pound (give or take blood)
  74. Where is the target location for Ancylostoma
    small intestine
  75. What are the two Ascarids for dogs
    • Toxocara canis
    • Toxocara leonina
  76. What are the two Ascarids for cats
    • Toxocara cati
    • Toxascaris leonina
  77. what is the order and family for Ascaridae
    • Ascaridae
    • Ascaridoidae
  78. This ascarid is a mucosal migrator and only needs to be dewormed once
    Toxascaris leonine
  79. term for the state of arrested development
  80. what is the term for a parasite in spore form and for when its active
    • dormant
    • vegetative
  81. what are two things that can cause encysted parasites to emerge
    • stress
    • pregnancy (hormones)
  82. term for telescoping in the intestines
  83. term for painful evacuation
  84. what is the active ingredient in "Happy Jack"
  85. Happy jack often resulted in
    Piperazine toxicosis syndrome
  86. term that means kills intestinal parasites
  87. what are the 8 Benzimidazoles
    • Parbendazole
    • Canbendazole
    • Mebendazole
    • Fenbendazole
    • Oxifendazole
    • Oxibendazole
    • Albendazole
    • Thiabendazole
  88. What is the nickname for T. cati
    Toxocara mystax
  89. what is the prepatent period for T. leonina
    10 weeks
  90. What are the two ways for infection T. leonina
    • ingestion of eggs
    • Ingestion of the paratenic host
  91. What are places where racoons defecate called
    Raccoon latrines
  92. What are the whipworm genus and species for:
    cat (there are two of these)
    man, pig and monkey (they share the same one)
    • Trichuris vulpis
    • Trichuris campanula, Trichuris serrate
    • Trichuris trichura
  93. Where is Trichuris's target location
    Cecum - located on the left side of the body
  94. Animals have a cecum, what do humans have instead
    Appendix - located on the right side of the body
  95. What parasites cause dark tarry stool
    • Ancylostoma
    • Physaloptera
  96. What parasites cause bright red blood in stool
    • Trichuris
    • Strongyloides - Rhabditoides of dogs/cats
    • Micronema sp. - Rhabditoides horses
  97. What parasites are double opercle
    • Trichuris
    • Eucoleus aerophila - dog lungworm
    • Aerostrongylus abstrusus - cat lungworm
  98. What parasites are single opercle
    Alaria canis
  99. Why do some parasites produced bright red blood in the feces instead of dark tarry stool
    Because the blood is moving out so fast it doesn't have time to mix with the feces.
  100. What is the irritation caused by whipworms called
    Flank sucking
  101. what is the prepatent period for whipworms
    3 months
  102. How are whipworms transmitted
    direct consumption of eggs
  103. What are 6 symptoms caused by whipworms
    • weight loss
    • bright red blood in feces
    • Anemia
    • abdominal pain
    • flatulence
    • Flank sucking
  104. What is considered the drug of choice to treat whipworms
    • Fenbendazole - Panacur
    • Febantel - drontal plus
  105. What is the Phylum, Order, and Family for Strongyloides/Micronema
    • Nematoda
    • Rhabditida
    • Rhabdiasoidea
  106. How are Rhabditoides transmitted
    • Penetration of skin
    • oral consumption
  107. Where is the target area for Rhabditoids
    Small intestine
  108. Term for asexual reproduction in which the egg of the pathogenic female develops without being fertilized by a spermatozoan
  109. What are the three forms for Strongyloides
    • Sexual male
    • Sexual female
    • Asexual/Pathogenic female
  110. What are is the nick name for Strongyloides
    Intestinal threadworm
  111. What is teh Strongyloides species for:
    • Strongyloides stercoralis
    • Strongyloides tumefaciens
    • Micronema species.
  112. What is the test used for diagnosing Strongyloides? What is its nickname
    • Baermann technique
    • Wisconsin lungworm test
  113. What parasites will be seen in the larval form in fresh feces
    Strongyloides stercoralis
  114. What is the lungworm for dogs and foxes and what is its nickname
    • Eucoleus aerophila
    • "the fox lungworm'
  115. what is the lung worm of cats
    Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
  116. What was the first drug to mix a bendimendazole with another drug?
  117. With Strongyloides, its said that the parthenogenic female occurs ___% of the time in he canine species
  118. For lungworms what is the
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Trichinellida
    • Family Trichinellodiea
  119. Eucoleus aerophila can use this life cycle
    Both direct and indirect
  120. What is the intermediate host for Eucoleus aerophila
  121. The crop worm of poultry
    Eucoleus annulata
  122. inflammation of mucosa in ducks
    Eucoleus contorta
  123. Aleurostrongylus abstrususis uses the this life cycle.
  124. What is the intermediate host for Aleurostrongylus abstruusis
  125. Paragonimus kellicotti is not a Nematode but actually a
  126. What is the definitive host for Paragonimus kellicotti
  127. Strongyloides are found where in the host
    Anterior half of the small intestine
  128. What is the intermediate host for Paragonimus kellicotti
    • crayfish
    • snail
  129. Spirocerca lupi is said to produce
    malignant esophageal sarcomas
  130. What is the paratinic host for S. lupi
  131. What is the prepatent period for S. lupi
    6 months
  132. What is a bone condition that is often seen with S. lupi
    Secondary pulmonary osteoarthropathy
  133. Stomach worms for
    • Physaloptera rara
    • Pysaloptera preputialis
  134. The life cycle of Physoloptera is considered
  135. What is the intermediate host for Physaloptera
    beetle - biological vector, believed that molting does occur in it
  136. What is the eye worm of dogs and cats called
    Thelazia californiensis
  137. what are the two mechanical vectors for Thelazia
    • Musca domestic
    • Musca autumnalis
  138. Thelazia has this type of life cycle
    indirect - due to the movement from flies
  139. What is the eye worms for
    cattle and horses - (there's two)
    just cattle -
    Dogs, sheep and wild mammals -
    • Thelazia lacrymalis
    • T. skrjabini
    • T. gulosa
    • T. californiensis
  140. Heartworms
    phylum -
    class - order -
    Super family -
    • Nematoda
    • Nematode
    • Spirurida
    • Filaroidea
    • Dirofilaria
  141. If D. immitis is not in the definative host what are three issues the parasite usually faces
    • wont grow as large
    • usually not able to reproduce
    • low life expectancy
  142. What is the first stage of heartworms called
  143. When was the first case of heartworm disease in a cat found
  144. What two things must an animal have in order to have heartworm disease
    • Has heartworms
    • The animal is suffering from the debilitating symptoms associated with it
  145. What are the three main areas 'cosmopolitan distribution' for heartworm disease, highest to lowest
    • Gulf coast
    • East coast
    • Great lakes
  146. What is the resistant strain of heartworms called and what preventative is said to actually kill it
    • MP3 strain
    • Advantage Multi form Bayer
  147. What is the heartworm of large cats (lions, tigers)
    Dirofilaria ripens
  148. This is a blood filarid that looks like D. immitis but is harmless
    Acanthochelonema reconditum
  149. What state even has dirofilaria been diagnosed but transmission there has not been documented
  150. With heartworms what are the names for these different stages in its development.
    stage 1
    stage 2
    stage 3
    stage 4
    stage 5a
    stage 5
    • Microfilaria
    • no name stage - molting in the mosquito
    • Infective stage
    • Pre-adult stage
    • Immature stage
    • Mature adult stage
  151. What is the most common mosquito in the homes of people
    Culex mosquito
  152. What are two reasons why dogs can be positive for heartworms but have no microfilaria
    • Same sex adult heartworms
    • WBC attack the microfilaria
  153. What transmits A. reconditum
    fleas - Ctenocephalis felis
  154. What is the nick name for Cetnocephalis felis
    the cat flea
  155. What are the two ways to deferenciate between D. immitis and A. reconditum
    shape: D. immitis - straight, tapered head A. reconditum - button hooked tail, blunt head

    Movement: D. immitsi - ungulating  A. reconditum - moves forward
  156. Heartworms found migrating in the subcutaneous tissue is called
    heartworm dermatitis
  157. What are four symptoms for heartworms
    • coughing
    • loss of stamina
    • ascites
    • bowed out front legs
  158. What are 5 blood test used to test for heartworm disease
    • direct smear
    • modified knots test *not used any more*
    • Difil test
    • Hematocrit tube
    • occult test
  159. What blood test are considered the best for testing for micrfilaria? for adult heartworms?
    • Difil Test
    • Occult test
  160. what is the testing percentage for microfilaria with these test
    Difil test
    Modified knots method
    Direct smear
    microchematocrit tube
    • 80 - 84%
    • 84%
    • 64%
    • lowest percent - don't have the percentage for this one :/
  161. What are two types of occult test
    • Antigen - used for cats
    • Antibody  - used for dogs
  162. What are the two type of antibody occult test
    • MAT - microfliariae antibody test
    • DAT - dirofilariae antibody test - used in cats
  163. What are two antigen test used for detecting circulating heartworm antigens
    • ELISA (Enzyme lined immunosorbent assay)
    • Immunochromatographic test
  164. Term for a group of ELISA test
    Batch testing
  165. What are four things that can result in a false negative test
    • Blood sample not warmed up/room temp
    • light infection
    • immature female worms
    • only males are present
  166. What are the two largest vet labs in the US
    • IDEXX
    • ANTECH
  167. What are three reasons that dogs aren't protected from heartworms year round
    • 24% of owners don't got to the vet
    • clients don't understand heartworms
    • cost of prevention/treatment
  168. What two things are critical in persuading clients to further helth care for their pets
    • Communication
    • consistency
  169. What are three reasons that cats are not sensitive to ELISA/antigen test
    • low heartworm burden
    • immature female heartworms
    • male heartworm infection
  170. What are the three most useful test to confirm heartworm infection in cats
    • Serology - antibody levels/antibody test *the best*
    • Thoracic radiographs
    • Echocardiography
  171. What are two changes typically seen in canine rthoracic radiographs
    • Enlargement of the pulmonary artery at 1 o'clock
    • Enlargement of the right side of the heart "Inverted D"
  172. What are two views that are used when taking radiographs
    • Lateral view
    • ventral dorsal view
  173. What are the 4 macrocyclic lactones
    • Ivermectin
    • Milbemycin oxime
    • Selamectin
    • Moxidectin
  174. What stages do macrocyclic lactones
    stage 3, 4 and sometimes S5a
  175. What are five drugs used for heartworm prevention
    • Diethylcarbamazine citrate
    • Ivermectin
    • Milbemycin oxime
    • Selemectin
    • Moxidectin
  176. What are three products that will react with microfilaria and cause anaphylactic shock and vomiting
    • Diethylcarbamazine citrate (Filaribits)
    • Diclovos (Task)
    • Milbemycin oxime (Sentinal)
  177. Who originally made Filaribits
  178. What is the new name for Cavel Syndrome
    Dirofilaral Hemoglobinuria
  179. What type of a heartworm infection leads to Cavel Syndrome
    Longs standing Class 3 or beyond
  180. What is the Rickettsial that is said to have a endosymbiony relationship with heartworms
  181. What is the drug of choice for treating Wolbachia
    Doxycycline (Clindamycin)
  182. What is Wolbachia said to contribute to
    Pulmonary and renal inflammation
  183. What is the Wolbachia surface protein called that produces endotoxins
    Wolbachia Specific Protein
  184. Term for coexisting infections with another Nematode or parasite
  185. What are two reasons that killing the Wolbachia in a heartworm positive animal is beneficial
    • Decreases the worm biomass
    • Reduces the inflammatory response to the death of the worms
  186. What are three reasons that Doxycycline is beneficial to heartworm dogs
    • Circulating microfilaria are non-infective
    • Makes adult heartworms easier to kill.
    • Reduces post-treatment side effects.
  187. What is the calculation for converting C to F
    1.8 x C + 32 = F
  188. What is the C and F that S1 - S3 will die, while still in the mosquito
    • 12 C
    • 54 F (below 55 F)
  189. Why do less heartworms survive in a dog that gets re-infected
    Immune Recognition - the animal will develop antibodies to the heartworm antigen.
  190. What are three reasons that we treat for microfilaria
    • Positive dog is a threat to other animals (dogs, ferrets, cats)
    • Pathological changes assoiated with high numbers of L1 can cause complications - brain infarcts, heart infarcts, renal problems. 
    • If said dog is given DEC, Task or Milbemycin oxime it an result in anaphylactic shock and death
  191. What are 4 methods for testing for microfilaria
    • Direct blood smear
    • Millipore filtration
    • Modified Knott's test
    • Buffy coat smear from buffy coat
  192. Why is the Modified Knotts test not used any more
    Because it used formaldehyde and was considered carcinogenic
  193. what is the difference for D. immitis and A. reconditum
    • Movement: D.I. - undulates in one spot / A.R. - moves quickly across the field
    • Size: D.I. - slightly larger then A.R.
    • Head Shape: D. I. - tapered head / A.R. - blunt head
  194. What are the symptoms for an anaphylacic reaction
    • dilated pupils
    • diarrhea
    • vomiting (most common sign of toxicity)
  195. What are the most common clinical signs for anaphylactic reaction
    • WBC goes down in 1 hour
    • Alkaline phosphatase will increase rapidly
    • Platelets will decrease instantly by as much as 10,000
  196. What is the final symptom of shock
    Dilated pupils
  197. What are the three stages of shock
    • Compensatory
    • Progressive
    • Irreversible stages of shock
  198. What is the reaction time frame for shock to occur
    20 minutes
  199. What is the most common symptom of toxicity
  200. What are three treatment plans for dogs that are heartworm positive
    • Adulticide only
    • Adulticide and Microfilaricide
    • Microfilaricide only
  201. Term for blood backing up into the liver
  202. Term for fluid that accumulates in the abdomen
  203. Term for blood pooling in the lungs
    Pulmonary edema
  204. Where is Auburn University located
  205. What is the recommended restricted activity length after a dog has under gone heartworm treatment, how long will phagocytosis continue?
    • 6 weeks
    • 6 - 9 months
  206. why are animals placed on strict rest after receiving heartworm treatment
    Decreases thromboembolisms in the lungs as the adult heartworms start dying form the adulticide.
  207. When adult heartworms enter the lungs what two WBC's start breaking them down
    • neutrophils
    • macrophages
  208. What is the oldest NSAID
  209. What are the benefits for using Aspirin with heartworm treatment.
    • Less initial proliferation plus less flow obstruction
    • Protective effect on vascular endothelium
    • Said to have anti-platelet  and anti-inflamatory effects.
  210. What is the dosage for Baby aspirin
    81 mg
  211. What are two other names for caval syndrome
    • Vena Cava Syndrome
    • Dirofilarial Hemoglobinuria
  212. What are some clinical symptoms for Caval Syndrome
    • weakness
    • hemoglobinuria
    • Tricuspid valvular insufficiency
    • Jugular palpitation
  213. What is the percentage of dogs and cats that are registered
    • dogs - 53%
    •  cats  - 6%
  214. When surgically removing heartworms from a Caval Syndrome dog what veins will the alligator forceps go through
    • Right external jugular vein
    • Right brachiocephalic vein
    • Cranial vena cava
    • Right atrium
  215. Why is heartworm diagnosis harder in cats
    • low heartworm burden
    • Thoracic radiographs and echocardiographs don't show heartworms very well in cats
  216. After Katrina what was the increase in these infections within the year
    • Dogs - 48.8%
    • cats - 4.2 %
    • FeLV - 2.6%
    • FIV - 3.6%
  217. Signs of heartworm disease in cats usually develop during what two stages
    • arrival to immatue S5 in pulmonary artery
    • death of adult heartworms
  218. Cats showing heartworm symptoms are usually diagnosed as what two things
    • asthma
    • allergic bronchitis
  219. What is the feline lung disease associated with heartworms caleed
    Heartworm-associated respiratory disease (HARD)
  220. Symptomatology of cats infected with heartworms
    • Eosinophilius
    • Lymphpenia
    • elevated pulse rate
    • thrombocytopenia
  221. Term for a clot that moves
    Pulmonary thromboembolism
  222. What is the primary means of transmission for Toxocara cati/mystax
  223. What are the earliest detection times for these test in cats
    • 2 months
    • 4 - 6 months
    • 6 months
    • 6 months ( If enough females are present)