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Generally a smaller organism that lives, on or inside, at the expense of a larger animal/host
ex: flea and dog
Parasite
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A biological association in which one animal is transported by another animal.
ex: cow and cattle egret
Phoresis
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Two organisms which live together, neither bearing a parasitic relation to the other, but one or both members deriving benefit.
Communalism
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Two organisms living together with a mutual advantageous association of tow or more organisms.
What is another term for this?
- Mutualism
- Symbiotic relationship
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A condition in which parasites of different species parasitize a single host.
Multiple parasitism
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Excessive parasitization by the same species
Superparasitism
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A term for a disease that can be transferred from one species to another.
ex: Human to animal/vice versa
Zoonosis a.k.a. - Public health
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Condition of roundworms
Ascariasis
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Condition of hookworms
Ancylostomiasis
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Condition of whipworms
Trichuriasis
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Hookworm infection under the skin. This can be animal or human.
Cutaneous larval migrans
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Ascarids in humans
Visceral larval migrans
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Passage of parasite via placenta
- Intrauterine
- Transovarian
- Inutero
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Passage of parasite via milk.
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A stage in development of egg post cell. Starts to develop 'cleavage'
Morula
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This is the stage right before the egg hatches. Stage is right after the morula stage
Vermiform embryo
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A reduction in RBC's and/or hemoglobin
Anemia
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This is caused by the removal of RBC's being so fast that the animal cannot replace it fast enough. Usually caused by parasites
Clinical anemia
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This is caused by the removal of RBC's being so fast the animal cannot replace it but is does NOT involve parasites
Aplastic anemia
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Normal sized RBC
Normocytic
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Smaller then normal RBC
microcytic
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Larger then normal RBC
Macrocytic
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Normal colored RBC
Normochromic
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Lighter colored RBC
microchromic
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Darker colored RBC
Macrochromic
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Requires an intermediate host generally an arthropod
Indirect Life Cycle
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No intermediate host is need for this life cycle
Direct life cycle
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The brand or trade name for a drug
Proprietary name
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The generic name for a drug
Non-proprietary name
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The organic formula for the drug with carbon, hydroxide, oxygen, and covalent bonds attached
Chemical name
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Gives live birth
Viviparous
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Name for a disease that an animal can acquire and transmit to humans. What is it also known as?
- Zoonotic disease
- Public health
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Name for a disease that is transmissible to man and can cause death. It can also effect the economy.
Reportable disease
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What is the large body cavity called in Nematodes
pseudo-coelom
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Male nematodes caudal end are often equipped with a cuticular expansion, used for gripping the female, called a
Copulatory bursa
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Hookworm penetration at the feet is called
hookworm dermatitis
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Describe these fecal scores
Score 1
Score 2
score 3
Score 4
Score 5
Score 6
Score 7
- Feces are hard and dry, Maybe expelled in individual pellets
- Firm, not hard. Segmented appearance but pliable.
- Log like. Little to no segmentation
- Very moist but has log shape. Leaves residue when picked up.
- very moist has distinct shape but is present in piles rather then logs.
- Has texture but no distinct shape. Occurs in piles or spots.
- Watery, no texture at all. Flat and occurs in puddles.
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What are two parasites that can be seen with the naked eye?
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These tapeworms are flat and look like fettichini
Diphyllobothrium
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What are the three trestrial tape worms
- Mesocestoides
- Diplydium caninum
- Tenia
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What area of the US is the most prevalent with intestinal parasites and heartworms?
Southeast texas
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What is this group of health care professionals established to create guidelines for the optimal control of internal and external parasites that threaten the halt of pets and people.
Companion Animal Parasite Council
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This group of people work closely with CAPC
National Center for Veterinarian Parasitology
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What are the 6 CAPC recommendations
- bring animals in for annual physical examinations
- Place dogs/cats on flea and tick preventative asap
- treat d/c year-round with broad-specturm hw anthelmintics
- provide pets with cooked/packaged food and water
- retest heartworm status of dogs annually
- Conduct fecal examinations once or twice a year.
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Where did heartworms first appear? and what year?
Hennepin Country, Minnesota in 1937
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What are considered the best test from highest to lowest sensitivity
- Necropsy
- Polymerase chain reactions (PCR)
- Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
- Immunofluoscence
- Centrifuge flations
- Simple flotation
- Direct smear
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What is the percent of routine diagnostic testing for tapeworms?
1 - 2 %
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What is the test specifically designed for tapeworms? and how effective is this test?
- Sandwich ELISA test - it detects proteins
- 70%
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Using the occult test what is the prevalence of tapeworms in (%)
Shelter dogs
Domestic dogs
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What are the three test used for fecals
- Centrifuge
- Flotation
- Direct smear
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What is the minimum specific gravity need to float these eggs?
Ascarids/Ancylostoma
Trichuris
Taenia
Physaloptera
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What are three fecal solutions used for fecals flotations?
- Zinc sulfate - most common
- sodium nitrate
- shethers solution
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What age can puppies infected with T. canis and A. caninum start to shed eggs?
2 - 3 weeks
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Raccoon roundworm that can infect dogs and humans
Bayliascaris procyonis
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Hookworms in humans causes these two things
- Chronic enterocolitis
- Eosinophilic enteritis
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Who are 9 people susceptible to zoonosis
- Young children
- Households with young animals
- People who are careless about sanitation of personal hygiene
- Persons who work in close contact with animals, including wild life
- people who work in contaminated enviornments
- People with compromised immune systems
- Pet owners who do not routinely deworm their animals
- Elderly people
- Veterinary professionals
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This is the hookworm of humans
Ancylostoma brazillensis
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What is the family for Ancylostomiasis
Ancylostomatidae
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two hookworms found in dogs
- Ancylostoma caninum
- Uncinaria stenocephalia
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Two hookworms found in cats
- Ancylostoma tuberformae
- Uncinaria stenocephalia
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What stage is considered the infective stage for Ancylostoma
stage 3
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What are the 5 avenues of infection for Ancylostoma
- skin penetration
- oral infection
- transmammary
- inutero
- parentinic host
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What is the prepatent period for Ancylostoma
14 days
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hookworms don't suck blood they
eat the mucosal - glycoproteins - lining of the small intestine
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Host expense to parasites depend on these three things
- Number of parasites
- kind and degree of injury that they inflict
- vigor and nourishment of the host
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What are two major signs associated with hookworm infections
- blood loss - primary concern
- gastrointestinal irritation
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Anemia created by blood loss becomes more ___ and ____ with the development of iron deficiency
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The hookworm life cycle is cosidered
direct
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What is the primary method of transmission for Ancylostoma
- Transmammary transmission
- - Uncinaria stenocephala larvae can also penetrate this way
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What is the primary method of transmission for Toxocara
Transplacental transmission
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What are the two most common blood types for dogs
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How many ml's of blood can be take from an animal for blood transfusion
10 ml per pound (give or take blood)
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Where is the target location for Ancylostoma
small intestine
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What are the two Ascarids for dogs
- Toxocara canis
- Toxocara leonina
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What are the two Ascarids for cats
- Toxocara cati
- Toxascaris leonina
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what is the order and family for Ascaridae
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This ascarid is a mucosal migrator and only needs to be dewormed once
Toxascaris leonine
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term for the state of arrested development
Hypobiosis
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what is the term for a parasite in spore form and for when its active
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what are two things that can cause encysted parasites to emerge
- stress
- pregnancy (hormones)
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term for telescoping in the intestines
intussusception
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term for painful evacuation
Dyschezia
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what is the active ingredient in "Happy Jack"
Piperazine
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Happy jack often resulted in
Piperazine toxicosis syndrome
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term that means kills intestinal parasites
anthelmintics
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what are the 8 Benzimidazoles
- Parbendazole
- Canbendazole
- Mebendazole
- Fenbendazole
- Oxifendazole
- Oxibendazole
- Albendazole
- Thiabendazole
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What is the nickname for T. cati
Toxocara mystax
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what is the prepatent period for T. leonina
10 weeks
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What are the two ways for infection T. leonina
- ingestion of eggs
- Ingestion of the paratenic host
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What are places where racoons defecate called
Raccoon latrines
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What are the whipworm genus and species for:
dog
cat (there are two of these)
man, pig and monkey (they share the same one)
- Trichuris vulpis
- Trichuris campanula, Trichuris serrate
- Trichuris trichura
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Where is Trichuris's target location
Cecum - located on the left side of the body
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Animals have a cecum, what do humans have instead
Appendix - located on the right side of the body
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What parasites cause dark tarry stool
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What parasites cause bright red blood in stool
- Trichuris
- Strongyloides - Rhabditoides of dogs/cats
- Micronema sp. - Rhabditoides horses
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What parasites are double opercle
- Trichuris
- Eucoleus aerophila - dog lungworm
- Aerostrongylus abstrusus - cat lungworm
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What parasites are single opercle
Alaria canis
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Why do some parasites produced bright red blood in the feces instead of dark tarry stool
Because the blood is moving out so fast it doesn't have time to mix with the feces.
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What is the irritation caused by whipworms called
Flank sucking
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what is the prepatent period for whipworms
3 months
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How are whipworms transmitted
direct consumption of eggs
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What are 6 symptoms caused by whipworms
- weight loss
- bright red blood in feces
- Anemia
- abdominal pain
- flatulence
- Flank sucking
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What is considered the drug of choice to treat whipworms
- Fenbendazole - Panacur
- Febantel - drontal plus
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What is the Phylum, Order, and Family for Strongyloides/Micronema
- Nematoda
- Rhabditida
- Rhabdiasoidea
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How are Rhabditoides transmitted
- Penetration of skin
- oral consumption
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Where is the target area for Rhabditoids
Small intestine
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Term for asexual reproduction in which the egg of the pathogenic female develops without being fertilized by a spermatozoan
Parthenogentically
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What are the three forms for Strongyloides
- Sexual male
- Sexual female
- Asexual/Pathogenic female
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What are is the nick name for Strongyloides
Intestinal threadworm
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What is teh Strongyloides species for:
Dogs
Cats
Horses
- Strongyloides stercoralis
- Strongyloides tumefaciens
- Micronema species.
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What is the test used for diagnosing Strongyloides? What is its nickname
- Baermann technique
- Wisconsin lungworm test
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What parasites will be seen in the larval form in fresh feces
Strongyloides stercoralis
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What is the lungworm for dogs and foxes and what is its nickname
- Eucoleus aerophila
- "the fox lungworm'
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what is the lung worm of cats
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
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What was the first drug to mix a bendimendazole with another drug?
Filaribits
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With Strongyloides, its said that the parthenogenic female occurs ___% of the time in he canine species
99%
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For lungworms what is the
Phylum
Order
Family
- Phylum: Nematoda
- Order: Trichinellida
- Family Trichinellodiea
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Eucoleus aerophila can use this life cycle
Both direct and indirect
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What is the intermediate host for Eucoleus aerophila
Earthworms
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The crop worm of poultry
Eucoleus annulata
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inflammation of mucosa in ducks
Eucoleus contorta
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Aleurostrongylus abstrususis uses the this life cycle.
Indirect
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What is the intermediate host for Aleurostrongylus abstruusis
Molluscs
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Paragonimus kellicotti is not a Nematode but actually a
Trematode
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What is the definitive host for Paragonimus kellicotti
Mink
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Strongyloides are found where in the host
Anterior half of the small intestine
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What is the intermediate host for Paragonimus kellicotti
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Spirocerca lupi is said to produce
malignant esophageal sarcomas
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What is the paratinic host for S. lupi
beetle
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What is the prepatent period for S. lupi
6 months
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What is a bone condition that is often seen with S. lupi
Secondary pulmonary osteoarthropathy
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Stomach worms for
Dogs
Cats
- Physaloptera rara
- Pysaloptera preputialis
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The life cycle of Physoloptera is considered
indirect
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What is the intermediate host for Physaloptera
beetle - biological vector, believed that molting does occur in it
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What is the eye worm of dogs and cats called
Thelazia californiensis
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what are the two mechanical vectors for Thelazia
- Musca domestic
- Musca autumnalis
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Thelazia has this type of life cycle
indirect - due to the movement from flies
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What is the eye worms for
cattle and horses - (there's two)
just cattle -
Dogs, sheep and wild mammals -
- Thelazia lacrymalis
- T. skrjabini
- T. gulosa
- T. californiensis
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Heartworms
phylum -
class - order -
Super family -
genus
- Nematoda
- Nematode
- Spirurida
- Filaroidea
- Dirofilaria
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If D. immitis is not in the definative host what are three issues the parasite usually faces
- wont grow as large
- usually not able to reproduce
- low life expectancy
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What is the first stage of heartworms called
Microfilaria
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When was the first case of heartworm disease in a cat found
1920's
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What two things must an animal have in order to have heartworm disease
- Has heartworms
- The animal is suffering from the debilitating symptoms associated with it
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What are the three main areas 'cosmopolitan distribution' for heartworm disease, highest to lowest
- Gulf coast
- East coast
- Great lakes
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What is the resistant strain of heartworms called and what preventative is said to actually kill it
- MP3 strain
- Advantage Multi form Bayer
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What is the heartworm of large cats (lions, tigers)
Dirofilaria ripens
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This is a blood filarid that looks like D. immitis but is harmless
Acanthochelonema reconditum
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What state even has dirofilaria been diagnosed but transmission there has not been documented
Alaska
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With heartworms what are the names for these different stages in its development.
stage 1
stage 2
stage 3
stage 4
stage 5a
stage 5
- Microfilaria
- no name stage - molting in the mosquito
- Infective stage
- Pre-adult stage
- Immature stage
- Mature adult stage
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What is the most common mosquito in the homes of people
Culex mosquito
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What are two reasons why dogs can be positive for heartworms but have no microfilaria
- Same sex adult heartworms
- WBC attack the microfilaria
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What transmits A. reconditum
fleas - Ctenocephalis felis
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What is the nick name for Cetnocephalis felis
the cat flea
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What are the two ways to deferenciate between D. immitis and A. reconditum
shape: D. immitis - straight, tapered head A. reconditum - button hooked tail, blunt head
Movement: D. immitsi - ungulating A. reconditum - moves forward
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Heartworms found migrating in the subcutaneous tissue is called
heartworm dermatitis
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What are four symptoms for heartworms
- coughing
- loss of stamina
- ascites
- bowed out front legs
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What are 5 blood test used to test for heartworm disease
- direct smear
- modified knots test *not used any more*
- Difil test
- Hematocrit tube
- occult test
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What blood test are considered the best for testing for micrfilaria? for adult heartworms?
-
what is the testing percentage for microfilaria with these test
Difil test
Modified knots method
Direct smear
microchematocrit tube
- 80 - 84%
- 84%
- 64%
- lowest percent - don't have the percentage for this one :/
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What are two types of occult test
- Antigen - used for cats
- Antibody - used for dogs
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What are the two type of antibody occult test
- MAT - microfliariae antibody test
- DAT - dirofilariae antibody test - used in cats
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What are two antigen test used for detecting circulating heartworm antigens
- ELISA (Enzyme lined immunosorbent assay)
- Immunochromatographic test
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Term for a group of ELISA test
Batch testing
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What are four things that can result in a false negative test
- Blood sample not warmed up/room temp
- light infection
- immature female worms
- only males are present
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What are the two largest vet labs in the US
-
What are three reasons that dogs aren't protected from heartworms year round
- 24% of owners don't got to the vet
- clients don't understand heartworms
- cost of prevention/treatment
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What two things are critical in persuading clients to further helth care for their pets
- Communication
- consistency
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What are three reasons that cats are not sensitive to ELISA/antigen test
- low heartworm burden
- immature female heartworms
- male heartworm infection
-
What are the three most useful test to confirm heartworm infection in cats
- Serology - antibody levels/antibody test *the best*
- Thoracic radiographs
- Echocardiography
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What are two changes typically seen in canine rthoracic radiographs
- Enlargement of the pulmonary artery at 1 o'clock
- Enlargement of the right side of the heart "Inverted D"
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What are two views that are used when taking radiographs
- Lateral view
- ventral dorsal view
-
What are the 4 macrocyclic lactones
- Ivermectin
- Milbemycin oxime
- Selamectin
- Moxidectin
-
What stages do macrocyclic lactones
stage 3, 4 and sometimes S5a
-
What are five drugs used for heartworm prevention
- Diethylcarbamazine citrate
- Ivermectin
- Milbemycin oxime
- Selemectin
- Moxidectin
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What are three products that will react with microfilaria and cause anaphylactic shock and vomiting
- Diethylcarbamazine citrate (Filaribits)
- Diclovos (Task)
- Milbemycin oxime (Sentinal)
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Who originally made Filaribits
Beecham
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What is the new name for Cavel Syndrome
Dirofilaral Hemoglobinuria
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What type of a heartworm infection leads to Cavel Syndrome
Longs standing Class 3 or beyond
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What is the Rickettsial that is said to have a endosymbiony relationship with heartworms
Wolbachia
-
What is the drug of choice for treating Wolbachia
Doxycycline (Clindamycin)
-
What is Wolbachia said to contribute to
Pulmonary and renal inflammation
-
What is the Wolbachia surface protein called that produces endotoxins
Wolbachia Specific Protein
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Term for coexisting infections with another Nematode or parasite
endosymbiony
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What are two reasons that killing the Wolbachia in a heartworm positive animal is beneficial
- Decreases the worm biomass
- Reduces the inflammatory response to the death of the worms
-
What are three reasons that Doxycycline is beneficial to heartworm dogs
- Circulating microfilaria are non-infective
- Makes adult heartworms easier to kill.
- Reduces post-treatment side effects.
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What is the calculation for converting C to F
1.8 x C + 32 = F
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What is the C and F that S1 - S3 will die, while still in the mosquito
-
Why do less heartworms survive in a dog that gets re-infected
Immune Recognition - the animal will develop antibodies to the heartworm antigen.
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What are three reasons that we treat for microfilaria
- Positive dog is a threat to other animals (dogs, ferrets, cats)
- Pathological changes assoiated with high numbers of L1 can cause complications - brain infarcts, heart infarcts, renal problems.
- If said dog is given DEC, Task or Milbemycin oxime it an result in anaphylactic shock and death
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What are 4 methods for testing for microfilaria
- Direct blood smear
- Millipore filtration
- Modified Knott's test
- Buffy coat smear from buffy coat
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Why is the Modified Knotts test not used any more
Because it used formaldehyde and was considered carcinogenic
-
what is the difference for D. immitis and A. reconditum
- Movement: D.I. - undulates in one spot / A.R. - moves quickly across the field
- Size: D.I. - slightly larger then A.R.
- Head Shape: D. I. - tapered head / A.R. - blunt head
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What are the symptoms for an anaphylacic reaction
- dilated pupils
- diarrhea
- vomiting (most common sign of toxicity)
-
What are the most common clinical signs for anaphylactic reaction
- WBC goes down in 1 hour
- Alkaline phosphatase will increase rapidly
- Platelets will decrease instantly by as much as 10,000
-
What is the final symptom of shock
Dilated pupils
-
What are the three stages of shock
- Compensatory
- Progressive
- Irreversible stages of shock
-
What is the reaction time frame for shock to occur
20 minutes
-
What is the most common symptom of toxicity
vomiting
-
What are three treatment plans for dogs that are heartworm positive
- Adulticide only
- Adulticide and Microfilaricide
- Microfilaricide only
-
Term for blood backing up into the liver
Hyperemia
-
Term for fluid that accumulates in the abdomen
Ascites
-
Term for blood pooling in the lungs
Pulmonary edema
-
Where is Auburn University located
Alabama
-
What is the recommended restricted activity length after a dog has under gone heartworm treatment, how long will phagocytosis continue?
-
why are animals placed on strict rest after receiving heartworm treatment
Decreases thromboembolisms in the lungs as the adult heartworms start dying form the adulticide.
-
When adult heartworms enter the lungs what two WBC's start breaking them down
-
What is the oldest NSAID
Aspirin
-
What are the benefits for using Aspirin with heartworm treatment.
- Less initial proliferation plus less flow obstruction
- Protective effect on vascular endothelium
- Said to have anti-platelet and anti-inflamatory effects.
-
What is the dosage for Baby aspirin
81 mg
-
What are two other names for caval syndrome
- Vena Cava Syndrome
- Dirofilarial Hemoglobinuria
-
What are some clinical symptoms for Caval Syndrome
- weakness
- hemoglobinuria
- Tricuspid valvular insufficiency
- Jugular palpitation
-
What is the percentage of dogs and cats that are registered
-
When surgically removing heartworms from a Caval Syndrome dog what veins will the alligator forceps go through
- Right external jugular vein
- Right brachiocephalic vein
- Cranial vena cava
- Right atrium
-
Why is heartworm diagnosis harder in cats
- low heartworm burden
- Thoracic radiographs and echocardiographs don't show heartworms very well in cats
-
After Katrina what was the increase in these infections within the year
Heartworms:
dogs
cats
FeLV
FIV
- Dogs - 48.8%
- cats - 4.2 %
- FeLV - 2.6%
- FIV - 3.6%
-
Signs of heartworm disease in cats usually develop during what two stages
- arrival to immatue S5 in pulmonary artery
- death of adult heartworms
-
Cats showing heartworm symptoms are usually diagnosed as what two things
- asthma
- allergic bronchitis
-
What is the feline lung disease associated with heartworms caleed
Heartworm-associated respiratory disease (HARD)
-
Symptomatology of cats infected with heartworms
- Eosinophilius
- Lymphpenia
- elevated pulse rate
- thrombocytopenia
-
Term for a clot that moves
Pulmonary thromboembolism
-
What is the primary means of transmission for Toxocara cati/mystax
Transmammary
-
What are the earliest detection times for these test in cats
Antibody
Radiography
echocardiography
Antigen
- 2 months
- 4 - 6 months
- 6 months
- 6 months ( If enough females are present)
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