Extra Bio

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Extra Bio
2015-05-13 00:14:48
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  1. peroxisome
    breakdown of very long chain fatty acids via beta oxidation
  2. In most organs, what do epithelial cels constitute?
    parenchyma; or the functional parts of the organ
  3. Connective tissues are the main contributors to the _.
    stroma or support structure
  4. Archaea
    single celled organisms that are similar to bacteria but have genes and metabolic pathways more similar to euk
  5. Explain the two cell wall types in bacteria.
    gram positive: have peptidoglycan; provides protection from host's immune system; lipoteichoic acid

    gram negative: very thin; contain peptidoglycan in smaller amounts; have outer membranes with phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides, which trigger larger response in humans than lipoteichoic acid
  6. virulence factors
    traits that increase how pathogenic a bacterium is
  7. transformation
    integration of foreign genetic material into the host genome
  8. conjugation
    bacterial form of mating; involves conjugation bridge; donor male and recipient female; sex pili
  9. transduction
    requires a vector to carry genetic material from one bacterium to another
  10. What surrounds a virus?
    • a capsid, whcih is a protein coat
    • an envelope which surrounds the capsid
  11. virions
    viral progeny
  12. positive sense viruses
    genome directly translated to functional proteins
  13. negative sense virus
    require synthesis of RNA complementary to negative sennse then protein synthesis
  14. DNA viruses
    must go to the nucleus in order to be transcribed to mRNA, which tehn goes to the cytoplasm, where it is translated to protiens
  15. viroids
    small plant pathogens consisting of a very short circular single stranded RNA
  16. G1/S checkpoint
    the cell determines if the DNA is in good enough condition for synthesis; restriction point
  17. CDK
    require the presence of the right cyclins, which increase and decrease during specific stages; they bind to CDKs, creating complexes that can phosphorylate transcription factors
  18. meiosis I
    homologous chromosomes are separated; reductional division
  19. meiosis II
    separation of sister chromatids; equational division
  20. WHat does a cell in meiosis I look like?
    96 sister chromatids and 46 chromosomes, which are organized into homologous pairs
  21. What does a cell in meiosis II look like?
    46 chromatids in 23 chromosomes
  22. linkage
    refers to the tendency for genes to be inherited together; genes that are located further from each other are less likely to be inherited together and more likely to undergo crossing over relative to each other
  23. disjunction
    each chromosome of paternal origin separates from its homologue of maternal origin and either chromosome can end up in either daughter cell
  24. interkinesis
    short rest period during which chromosomes partially recoil between meiosis I and II
  25. What are the two functional components of the testes?
    seminiferous tubules: produces sperm (sertoli cells nourish them)

    interstitial cells of Leydig: secrete testosterone nad otehr male sex hormones
  26. epididymis
    flagella gain motility
  27. Explain passage of sperm.
    vas deferens-> ejaculatory duct--> urethra
  28. seminal vesicles
    contribute fructrose to nourish sperm
  29. prostate gland
    along with seminal vesicles, they give fluid alkalinity to allow it to survive int he acidic female tract
  30. bulbourethral glands
    produce clear viscous fluid that cleans any remnants of urine and lubricates urethra during arousal
  31. Explain spermatogenesis
    diploid stem cells (spermatogonia)--> primary spermatocytes--> secondary spermatogcytes--> spermatids--(maturation)--> spermatozoa
  32. acrosome
    each sperm head is coverted by an acrosome derived from the Golgi and necessary to penetrate the ovum
  33. follicles
    multilayered sacs taht contain, nourish, and protect immature ova (eggs)
  34. Explain egg migration.
    ovulated through peritoneal sac

    drawn into fallopian tube

    if fertilized, the fetus is developed in the uterus
  35. oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis how?
    1) no undending supply of stem cells; all are formed during fetal development
  36. Explain oogenis.
    all oogonia exist as primary oocytes by irth; after mearching menarche, one will complete meiosis I, producing a secondary oocyte and a polar body; the secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase II and will not move forward unless fertilziation occurs
  37. oocytes are surrounded by two layers:
    zona pellucida: surrounds oocyte and is acellular mix of glycoproteins that proteect oocyte and contain things for sperm to bind

    corona radiata: lies outside and adhered to oocyte during ovulation
  38. When does meiosis II occur in an oocyte?
    when sperm penetrate the laers
  39. Hypothalamic hormones
    gonadotropin-releasing hormone: triggers anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH
  40. FSH does what in males?
    stimulates SErtoli cells and triggers sperm maturation
  41. LH does what in males?
    causes interstitial cells to produce testosterone
  42. FSH does what in fems?
    estrogen is secreted in response to it
  43. estrogen does what
    aside from developing female reproductive sysem adn sexual characteristics, it thickens lining of uterus
  44. Proggesterone does what?
    secreted by corpus luteum in response to LH; maintains the endometrial lining
  45. Follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.
    sheding of uterine lining

    GnRH increases--> FSH and LH secretion

    follicles are developing, secreting estrogen, which turns off GnRH and, as a result, LH and FSH
  46. Ovulation phase
    when estrogen cycles reach threeshold; it results in positive feedback and FnRH, FSH, and LH levels spike
  47. Luteal phase
    LH causes formation of corpus luteum from ruptured follicle, which secretes progesterone; estrogen levels still high
  48. Menstruation
    implantation doesn't occur; corpus luteum loses stimulation
  49. pregnancy
    zygote develops into bastocyyst that implants in uterine lining and secretes human chorionic gonadotropin; critical during first trimester
  50. What happens when the sperm comes into contact with the secondary oocyte's cell membrane?
    it forms a tubelike structure called the acrosomal apparatus, which extends to and penetrates the cell membrane
  51. After penetration of the sperm, what happens?
    the cortical reaction, a release of calcium ions to depolarize the membrane of the ovum to prenet fertilization by multiple sperm and to increase the metabolic rate of the newly formed diploid zygote
  52. What are the steps after zygote?
    cleavage: zygote undergoes rapid mitotic cell divisions, forming a morula

    blastulation: formation of blastula (hollow ball of cells with luid filled inner cavity called the blastocoel), also known as blastocyst, which has a trophoblast adn an inner cell mass

    burrows into endometrium

    gastrulation: generation off the three distinct layers
  53. indeterminate cleavage
    cells that can still develop into complete organisms
  54. determinate cleavage
    cells with fates that are already determined
  55. trophoblast
    surround blastocoel and give rise to chorion and later placenta
  56. inner cell mass
    protrudes into blastocoel and gives rise to organism itself
  57. chorion
    extraembryonic membrane that develops into the placenta
  58. Explain gastrulation
    begins with small invagination in blastula (archenteron); cells move towrad invagination, eliminating blastocoel

    this forms the gastrula

    opening of archenteron is blastopore
  59. ectoderm
    give rise to integumentm; lens of the eye; nervous system, ear
  60. msoderm
    musculoskeletal, circulatory, excretory, and sex organs, as well as conective tissue layers of digestinve, respiratory systems and adrenal cortex
  61. endoderm
    epithelial lining of digestive adn respiratory tracts, pancreas, thyroid, bladder and distal urinary tracts
  62. induction
    ability of one group of cells to influence the fate of other nearby cells
  63. Neurulation
    development of nervous system:

    1) rod of mesodermal cels called notochord form axis, influencing cells to form neural folds, which surroudn a neural groove

    the neural folds fuse into neural tube, with neural crest cells at tip
  64. morphogens
    may cause nearby cells to follow a particular developmental pathway
  65. When do totipotent cells lose their ability to differentiate into anything?
    after the sixteen cell stage and after a few more cycles of cell division when they differentiate into three gern cell layers
  66. autocrine
    signals that act on teh same cell that secreted the signal in teh first cell
  67. paracrine
    signals act on cells in the local area
  68. juxtacrine signals
    cell stimulates receptors of adjacent cell
  69. endocrine cells
    invovle secrted hormones that travel through the bloodstream
  70. Umbilical arteries carry __ and umbilical veins carry __
    blood away from the heart (deoxygenated)

    blood toward the heart (oxygenated)
  71. What are the three shunts a fetus goes through to direct blood away from the lungs and liver?
    1) foramen ovale: one-way valve that connects the right atrium to teh left atrium, allwoing blood entering the right atrium to flow into the left atrium instead of the right ventricle so as to carry out systemic circulation

    2) ductus arteriosus: shunts leftover blood from teh pulmonary artery to teh aorta

    3) ductus venosus: shunts blood returning from placenta via the umbilical vein directly to the inferior vena cava to bypass the liver
  72. What happens in the first trimester?
    major organs begin to develop; endochondral formation

    embryo becomes known as fetus
  73. What happens in the second trimester?
    fetus undergoes trememdous growth; takes on human appearance
  74. What happens in the third trimester?
    rapid growth and further brain development; antibodies transported by active transport from mom to fetus
  75. Birth
    accomplished by utermine smoth muscle, coordinated by prostaglandins and peptide hormone oxytocin

    1) cevix thins out and sac ruptures

    2) strong uterine contractions

    3) placenta and umbilical cord expelled (afterbirth)
  76. tracts (NS)
    axons bundled together that carry only one type of info
  77. astrocytes
    nourish neurons and form the blood brain barrier
  78. ependymal cell
    line ventricles of brain and produce CSF
  79. microglia
    phagocytic cells that ingest and break down wast and pathogens in the CNS
  80. Concentration of Na and K inside and outside neuron
    Na is higher outside; K is low outside

    vice versa
  81. hyperpolarization
    caused by inhibitory input; it is lowering the membrane potential from its resting potential; makes neuron less likely to fire
  82. summation
    additive effects of multiple signals
  83. temporal summation
    multiple signals are integrated during a relatively short period of time
  84. spatial summation
    the additive effects are based on the number and location of the incoming signals
  85. what are the two types of refractory periods?
    absolute refractory period: no amount of stimulation can cause another action potential to occur

    relative refractory period: there must be greater than normal stimulation to cause an action potential because the membrane is starting from a potential that is more negative than its resting value
  86. Greater cross sectional areas allow for what?
    faster propagation due to decreased resistence
  87. How is neurotransmitter removed from the cleft?
    1) breakdown of NT; ex: acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine

    2) reuptake

    3) simple diffusion
  88. cell bodies of sensory neurons are __.
    dorsal root ganglia
  89. difference between somatic and autonomic nervous system
    Somatic goes directly from spinal cord to muscle

    autonomic requires two neurons, the preganglionic and the postganglionic neuron
  90. Epinephrine causes what for blood vessels.
    constriction of blood vessels in all but active muscle
  91. peptide hormones
    bind to extracellular receptors

    response is rapid but short lived 

    travel in bloodstream; don't need carriers
  92. steroid hormones
    produced primarily by gonads and adrenal cortex

    easily cross cell membrane and bind to recepotors intracellularly or intranuclearly

    receptors then bind to DNA

    not water soluble and must be carried to travel
  93. amino-acid derivative hormones
    less common but include epinephrine, norepinephrine, etc

    catecholamines bind to G protien-coupled receptors, while thyroid hormones bind intracellularly
  94. suprachiasmatic nucleus
    part of the hypothalamus that receives some of the light input from retinas and helps to control sleep-wake cycles
  95. The hypothalamus secretes compounds into the __, which is a blood vessel system that directly connects the hypothalamus with the anterior pituitary
    hypophyseal portal system
  96. What are the tropic hormones released by the hypothalamus?
    GnRH--> causes release of FSH and LH released from anterior pituitary

    GHRH (Growth hormone-releasing Hormone)--> Growth Hormone (from ant. pit.)

    Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)--> TSH (ant. pit., which acts on thyroid to release T3 and T4)

    Corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF)--> adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (which causes cortisol to be released from adrenal cortex)

    Prolactin-inhibiting factor: causes decrease in prolactin secretion
  97. Relationship between posterior pituitary and hypothalamus
    hypothalamus directly sends signals to release oytocin and antidiuretic hormone
  98. oxytocin
    • involved in bonding behavior
    • uterine contraction
    • milk letdown during lactation
  99. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
    increases reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts of the kidneys secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity (increased concentration of solutes)

    increases permeability of the duct to water
  100. What are the products of the anterior pituitary?
    • FSH
    • LH
    • ACTH
    • TSH

    • Prolactin: stimulates milk production (dopamine secretion decreases it)
    • Endorphins
    • Growth hormone
  101. Thyroid hormones
    • capable of resetting the basal metabolic rate of the body by making energy production more or less efficient, as well as altering the utilization of glucose and fatty acids
    • lead to increased cellular respiration
  102. Cacitonin
    produced by C-cells of the thyroid tissue;

    acts to decrease plasma calcium levels in three ways: 

    • 1) increase calcium excretion from the kidneys
    • 2) decreased calcium absorption from the gut
    • 3) increased storage of calcium in the bone
  103. Parathyroid glands
    release PTH

    • decreases excretion of calcium by kidneys
    • increases absorption of calcium in the gut
    • increases bone resorption, thereby freeing up calcium

    antagonistic hormone to calcitonin

    activates vitamin D
  104. Adrenal glands contain what?
    cortex and medulla

    cortex releases corticosteroids--glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and cortical sex hormones
  105. Glucocorticoids
    steroid hormones that regulate glucose levels; affect protein metabolism

    cortisol and cortisone: both raise blood glucose by increasing gluconeogenesis and decreasing protien synthesis; decrease inflammation and immunologic responses

    cortisol released in times of physical or emotional stress
  106. Mineralocorticoids
    aldosterone: increases sodium reabsorption int he distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron; water follows, increasing blood volume and pressure

    plasma osmolarity does not change; maintains salt and water homeostasis
  107. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
    decreased blood pressure causes the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney to secrete renin, which cleaves angiotensinogen to its active form, angiotensin I, which is converted to angiotensin II by antiotensin-convverting enzyme--> stimulates release of aldosterone
  108. Adrenal medulla
    epineprhine and norepinephrine
  109. pancreas
    alpha cells: glucagon

    beta cells: insulin

    delta cells: somatostatin: inhibits both insulin and glucagon secretion; decreases GH
  110. The heart releases __ to help regulate salt and water balance
    atrial natriuretic peptide
  111. Thymus
    releases thymosin, which is important for proper T cell development and differentiation
  112. Inhalation is __. We use our __, as well as the __ (one of the layers of muscles between the ribs) to expand the thoracic cavity.


    external intercostal muscles
  113. When we have a low pressure in the intrapleural space due to an increase in volume, what happens?
    the gas pressure in the lungs is higher than the pressure in the intrapleural space, causing the lungs to expand into the intrapleural space, adn the presure in the lungs to drop; 

    air from the outside world will move in (negative pressure breathing)
  114. What does the diaphragm do during inhalation?
    contracts; chest wall and rib cage expand
  115. What does the diaphragm do during exhalation?
    relaxes; chest wall and rib cage contract
  116. How can we make exhalation active?
    intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles can oppose the external intercostals and pull the rib cage down
  117. total lung capacity
    max volume of air when one inhales completely
  118. residual volume
    the minimum volume of air in teh lungs when one exhales completely
  119. vital capacity
    the difference between the min amd max volume of air in lungs (TLC-RV)
  120. tidal volume
    volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath
  121. expiratory reserve volume
    volume of additional air that can be forcibly exhaled
  122. inspiratory reserve volume
    volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after normal inhalation
  123. What controls ventilation?
    ventilation center in the medulla oblongata
  124. As carbon dioxide in the blood rises, what happens to the respiratory rate?
    increase so more can be exhaled and levels fall
  125. How do blood vessels regulate heat?
    dilation allows large amount of thermal energy to be dissipated

    contraction of capillaries conserves thermal energy
  126. What do lungs have that help immune responses?

    mast cells: have antibodies on their surfaces; when the right substance attaches, the mast cell releases inflammatory chemicals intot he surrounding area to promote an immune response
  127. What happens when the pH of the blod is low?
    signals to increase the respiratory rate are sent to the brain
  128. Increasing hydrogen ion concentration will do what?
    generate additional carbon dioxide
  129. If the blood is too basic, what happens?
    the body will slow the respiratory rate down to produce more hydrogen ions
  130. If we want to increase or decrease the acidity of the blood, regarding the bicarbonate buffer, what do we look at?
    H+ because H+ is a stronger acid than HCO3- is a base
  131. valve between right atrium and right ventricle
    tricuspid (three leaflets)
  132. valve between left atrium and left ventrical
    mitral; bicuspid valve (two leaflets)
  133. electric conduction of the heart
    • Impulse initiation occurs at the SA node-->
    • signal reaches AV node, which sits at junction of atria and ventricle.

    Signal delayed there untle ventricles fill completely

    signal travels to bundle of His, embeldded int he interventricular septum, adn to Purkinje fibers, which distribte the electrical signal through the ventricular muscle
  134. atrial systole
    results in increase of atrial pressure that forces blood into the ventricles; extra volume of blood is called the atrial kick
  135. Parasympathetic signals for the heart are provided by _
    the vagus nerve
  136. Systole
    ventricular contraction and closure of the AV valves; blood pmped out of ventricles
  137. diastole
    heart is relaxed, semilunar valves close, and blood from atria fill the ventricles
  138. cardiac output
    total blood vollume pumped by a ventricle in a minute

    CO= HR X SV, where HR is the heart rate in beats per minute and the SV is the stroke volume (volume of blood pumped per beat)
  139. Characteristics of arteries
    highly muscular and elastic--> resistance

    left heart must generate much higher pressure to overcome resistance caused by systemic arteries
  140. Characteristics of veins
    thin walled and inelastic

    less recoil

    carry blood against gravity and so require skeletal muscle to help move blood
  141. portal systems
    blood passes through two capillary beds in series before returning to heart
  142. hepatic portal system
    blood leaving the capillary beds int eh walls of the gut pass through the hepatic portal vein before recching the capillary beds in the liver
  143. hypophyseal portal system
    blood leaving capillary beds in hypothalamus pass through capillary be in anterior pituitary to allow paracrine secretion
  144. renal portal system
    blood leaving glomerulus travels through efferent arteriole before surrounding nephron in a capillary network called the vasa recta
  145. hematocrit
    measuremet of how much of the blood sample consists of RBCs
  146. granulocytes v. agranulocytes
    g: neutro, eosino, basophils; granules are visible

    a: lympho; mono
  147. Lymphocyte maturation may take place in one of three locations
    - mature in spleen or lymph nodes: called B cells

    thymus: T cells
  148. B cells
    responsible for antibody generation
  149. T cells
    kill virally infected cells and activate other immune cells
  150. Blood Type A produces __ antigens and __ antibodies.
    A antigens

    anti-B antibodies
  151. Rh factor
    surface protein expressed on RBCs
  152. How is BP expressed.
    as a ratio of systollic and diastolic pressures
  153. How does pressure drop in blood vessels?
    pressure drops from arterial to venous circulation with the largest drop occurring across arterioles
  154. How can Ohm's law be related to blood vessles/
    V=IR can be translated to dP=CO x TPR, where dP is the pressure differential, CO is the cardiac output, and TPR is the total periopheral (vascular) resistance
  155. Compare blood vessels to circuits.
    arterioles and capillaries act like resistors in a circuit

    • resistance is based on resistivity, length, and cross sectional area
    • the longer a blood vessel is, the more resistance it offers
    • the larger the cross sectional area, the less resistence

    with the exception of the three portal systems, all systemic capillary beds are in parallel with each other. Therefore, opening capilalry beds will decrease vascular resistance and increase cardiac output
  156. baroreceptors
    specialized neurons that detect changes in the mechanical forces on the walls of the vessel
  157. ANP
    atrial natriuretic peptide; if blood pressure is too high, it causes loss of salt
  158. How does most CO2 exit the body?
    exists in blood as bicarbonate
  159. How does increased [H+] affect hemoglobin?
    it binds, decreasing the affinity of oxygen. This is the Bohr effect; this decreased affinity allows more oxygen to be unloaded at teh tissues
  160. What causes a higher O2 affinity of hemoglobin?
    decreased permeability of Co2, decreased concentration of H+ increased pH, decreased temp, and decreased 2,3 BPG
  161. hydrostatic pressure
    • force per unit area that the blood exerts against the vessel walls
    • generated by contraction of the heart and elasticity of the arteries
  162. osmotic pressure
    sucking pressure generated by solutes as they attempt to draw water into teh blood sttream
  163. Explain hydrostatic and osmotic pressure as it relates to BVs.
    at the arteriole end, hydrostatic pressure > oncotic pressure; net efflux of water

    venule end: hydrostatic pressure < oncotic; net influx of water
  164. The balance of hydrostatic and oncotic pressures is __.
    Startling forces
  165. innate immunity
    defenses that are always active against infection; cant target specific invaders
  166. adaptive/ specific immunity
    defenses that target a specific pathogen
  167. spleen
    location of blood storage and activation of B cells, which turn into plasma cells to produce antibodies as part of adaptive immunity, more specifically humoral immubity
  168. T cells
    involved in cell-mediated immunity
  169. lymph nodes
    proved a place for immune cells to comunicate and mount an attack; B cells can be activated here as well
  170. first line of defense; contains ?

  171. GI tract form of dfense
  172. complement system
    form of noncellular, nonspecific defense

    classical pathway: binding of antibody to pathogen

    alternative pathway: does not reqire antibodies

    this system punches holes into the cell walls of bacteria
  173. interferons
    proteins that prevent viral replication and dipsersons by causing nearby cells to decrease production of both viral and cellular proteins

    upregulate MHC class I and class II molecules
  174. functions of macrophages
    • phagocytizes
    • digests
    • presents little piences of invaders to other cells using a major histocompatibility complex

    also releases cytokines, chemical substances that stimulate inflammation and recruit additional immune cells to the area
  175. MHC
    binds to pathogenic peptide and carries it to cell surface
  176. MHC I
    any protein in a cell can be loaded onto this and presented, allowing montioring of helath of cells; infected cells have an unfamiliar cell

    endogenous pathway: binds antigens from inside the ell
  177. MHC class II
    displayed by professional antigen-presenting cells like macrophages

    these cells pick up pathogens, process them, and present them on MHC II

    exogenous pathway: because antigens originated from outside
  178. professional antigen-presenting cells include __
    • macrophages
    • dendritic cells in the skin
    • some B-cells
    • certain activated epithelial cells
  179. natural killer cells
    can detect downregulation of MHC and induce apoptosis in virally infected cells

  180. neutrophils

    phagocytic; follow bacteria by using cheotaxis and can detect bacteria after they have been opsonized
  181. eosinophils

    release histamine, an inflammatory mediator, allowing immune cells to move to area
  182. basophils

    release large amounts of histamine in response to allergins
  183. What are the innate (nonspecific) cells?
    • macrophage
    • mast cell
    • granulocytes
    • dendritic cells
    • natural killer cells
  184. what are the adaptive cells
    • b cell: govern the humoral response
    • t cell: mount the cell mediated response
  185. humoral immunity
    production of antibodies
  186. clonal selection
    phenomenon in which only B or T cells that are specific to a certain pathogen are activated
  187. B cells produce two types of daughter cells
    Plasma cells: produce large amounts of antibodies

    memory B cells: stay in lymph node, awaiting reexposure to same antigen
  188. Positive v. Negative selection in terms of T cells
    positive: refers to maturing only cells that can respond to presentation of antigen on MHC

    negative:causing apoptosis in cells that are self reactive
  189. Three types of T cells
    helper T cells (CD4+ T cells): coordinate immune resposne by secreting chemicals called lymphokines, whcih can recruit other immune cells 

    cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ cells): capable of directly killing virally infected cells by injecting toxic chemicals that promote apoptosis intot eh infected cells

    Suppressor (regulatory) T cells: also express CD4; help to tone down immune response once infection has been contained; turn off self-reactive lymphocytes to prevent autoimmune diseases called self-tolerance
  190. active immunity
    immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific pathogen; can be natural or artificia exposure
  191. passive immunity
    transfer of antibodies
  192. Functions of lymphatic systems
    • 1) equalization of fluid distribution
    • 2) transportation of biomolecules via lacteals (for fats) 
    • 3) immunity (b cells proliferate and mature in lymph nodes in collections called germinal centers
  193. In terms of the digestive system, what do ADH and aldosterone trigger?
    the sensationof thirst
  194. In terms of the digestive system, what do glucaogon and ghrelin trigger?
    feelings of hunger
  195. In terms of the digestive system, what do leptin and CCK trigger?
    feelings of satiety
  196. What digestion first begins in the mouth?
    carb and lipid digestion by salivary amylase and salivary lipase, respectively
  197. What are the anatomical divisions of the stomach?
    fundus and body, which contains gastric glands, and the antrum and pylorus, whcih contain mostly pyloric glands
  198. What do the gastric glands respond to?
    signals from teh vagus nerve
  199. vagus nerve
    tenth cranial nerve or CN X, and interfaces with parasympathetic control of the heart and digestive tract.
  200. What three cells do gastric glands have?
    mucous cells: produce mucus to protect wall of stomach

    chief cells: secrete pepsinogen

    parietal cells: secretes HCl; cleaves pepsinogen to pepsin