Parasitology Lecture - Test I

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Parasitology Lecture - Test I
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Parasitology Lecture - Test I Nematodes
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  1. A _____ is a smaller organism that lives on, or inside at the expense of a larger animal.
    Parasite
  2. Host Expense Is Dependent On:
    • - Number of parasites.
    • - Kind and degree of injury.
    • - Vigor, or nourishment of host.
  3. _____ is a biological association in which one animal is transported by another animal.
    Phoresis
  4. _____ is when two organisms which live together,neither bearing a parasitic relation to the other, but one, or both members benefit.
    Communalism
  5. ______ is when two organisms are living together with a mutual advantageous association of two or more organisms.
    Mutualism
  6. ______ mean infestation with parasites.
    Parsitism
  7. Name Two Types Of Parasitism:
    • a) Multiple Parasitism: a condition in which parasites of different species parasitize a single host.
    • b) Superparasitism: – excessive parasitization by the same species.
  8. __________ means a disease that can be passed from animal to man and from man to animal.
    Zoonosis
  9. Nickname for:
    Ascariasis: 
    Ancylostomiasis: 
    Trichuriasis:
    • - Roundworms
    • - Hookworms
    • - Whipworms
  10. Zoonotic parasites are:
    • - Ascariasis
    • - Ancylostomiasis
    • - Trichuriasis - less common
  11. What do you call a hookworm infection under the skin?
    Cutaneous Larval Migrans
  12. What do you call CLM in humans?
    Creeping Eruption

    *applies only to humans; not animals*
  13. What are Ascarids in humans called?
    Visceral Larval Migrans
  14. ______ refers to worms. Generally refers to ascarids, ancylostoma, trichuris – internal parasites
    Metazoan
  15. What are the two most common zoonotic diseases?
    Visceral Larval Migrans and Cutaneous Larval Migrans


    *Both are Metazoan*
  16. _________ – passage of parasite via milk. 
    AKA _______.
    • - Transmammary
    • - Galactogenic transfer
  17. _____ is passage of parasite via placenta.
    Synonyms are ____ and ____.
    • - Inutero
    • - Intrauterine
    • - Transoverian
  18. ______ - stage in development of egg post cell.
    Morula
  19. ______ - is the stage in development of egg post morula.
    Vermiform embryo
  20. _____ is the reduction in RBC # and/or hemoglobin concentration.
    Anemia
  21. Two types of anemia are _____ and _____.
    • a) Clinical Anemia:
    • - Occurs with parasites.
    • - Parasite is consuming the blood of the dog faster than the dog can replace it.
    • b) Aplastic Anemia: 
    • - Occurs with natural causing ailments, such as cancer.
    • - The body is not replacing the RBCs at the rate they are being destroyed or dying from longevity.
  22. How many days can a RBC last?
    110 days
  23. ______ – normal size of RBC cell
    ______ – variety of shapes of cells
    ______ – normal color of RBC (pink)
    ______ – not enough hemoglobin; white in color
    ______ – is almost red in color
    • - Normocytic
    • - Anisocytosis
    • - Normochromic
    • - Microchromic
    • - Macochromic
  24. In an anemic animal what type of cells would you see? Why?
    • - Microcytic, hypochromic.
    • - Reason that it is smaller is that it is produced so fast that it doesn’t have normal stage of development, its undernourished and it doesn’t have enough hemoglobin (iron & protein in the diet) to fill up the oxygen and carbon dioxide to carry carbons.
  25. __________ – requires intermediate host (vector), generally an arthropod. Name an example as well.
    • - Indirect Life Cycle
    • - Heartworms
  26. _________ – no intermediate host needed. Name an example as well.
    • - Direct Life Cycle
    • - Transmission via urine, vomiting, etc.
  27. Name the 3 Modes of Communication in the Body:
    • 1. Lymphatics
    • 2. Circulation
    • 3. Nervous System
  28. Define Oviparous and Viviparous:
    • - Born in egg (Ascarids).
    • - Born alive (Heartworms).
  29. A _____ is an etiology that produces clinical signs.
  30. Complete the Diagram of the Nematode Life Cycle:
  31. Taxonomy:
    • Kingdom
    •    Phylum
    •        Class
    •           Order
    •              Family
    •                 Genus
    •                     species <---- never capitalize
  32. ___________ – the brand or trade name for a drug.
    _______ – the generic name for a drug. 
    _________ – the organic formula for the drug with carbon, hydroxide, oxygen, and covalent bonds attached.
    • - Proprietary Name (ex: Tylenol)
    • - Non-Proprietary Name (ex: Acetaminophen)
    • - Chemical Name
  33. Fecal Scoring:

    Score 1 = 
    Score 2 = 
    Score 3 =
    Score 4 = 
    Score 5 = 
    Score 6 =
    Score 7 = 
    • Score 1 = Hard & dry; individual pellets. 
    • Score 2 = Firm, not hard; segmented, but pliable.
    • Score 3 = Log like; little to no segmentation.
    • Score 4 = Moist, but distinct shape; Leaves residue when picked up.
    • Score 5 =  Very moist & distinct shape; more in piles.
    • Score 6 = Has texture, but no shape; piles, or spots.
    • Score 7 = Watery; no texture at all; puddles.
  34. Name 2 parasites that are commonly seen in the stool with the unaided eye:
    • 1. Ascarids (Roundworms) - 17 cm; spaghetti
    • 2. Cestodes (Tapeworms) - 2 cm; rice

    *Exceptions are Aquatic Tapeworms, which are ribbon like and usually dead with a yellowish color.*
  35. Name the 3 Most Common Tapeworms in Texas:
    • 1. Diplydium caninum (flea, or lice.)
    • 2. Taenia (intermediate host is the Rabbit)
    • 3. Mesocestoides (North TX)
  36. Heartworms were first discovered where?
    Hennepic County, Minnesota  1937
  37. Prevalence of Intestinal Parasites in SE Texas:
    A. caninum = _____
    T. canis = _____
    T. vulpis = _____
    • A. caninum = 53.7%
    • T. canis = 15.6%
    • T. vulpis = 19.9%
  38. CAPC = ___________
    Companion Animal Parasite Control


    ** An organization designed to foster animal and human health while preserving the human-animal bond through recommendations for the diagnosis, treatment, prevention, and control of parasitic infections.**
  39. 6 Basic CAPC Recommendations:
    • 1. Bring dog and cats in for annual physical.
    • 2. Place dogs and cats on preventive flea and tick products as soon after birth as possible.examinations.
    • 3. Treat dogs and cats year-round with broad-spectrum heartworm anthelmintics that have activity against parasites with zoonotic.
    • 4. Provide pets with cooked food and fresh, portable water.
    • 5. Retest the heartworm status of dogs annually; test cats before placing them on preventatives.
    • 6. Conduct fecal examinations in adult pets once, or twice a year.
  40. List 7 tests for intestinal parasites - which is the best?
    • 1. Necropsy – to test the intestinal tract. Gives the most thorough diagnose of intestinal/circulatory parasites. Best option.
    • 2. Polymerase Chain reaction (PCR) – Used for intestinal & blood parasites. 
    • 3. Enzyme Link Immune Sorbent Assay Test (ELISA) – Use for heartworm test and hookworm test for migrating larvae.
    • 4. Immunofluorescence 
    • 5. Centrifuge flotation (99% effective). Gold standard in private practice.
    • 6. Simple floatation (84%)
    • 7. Direct Smear (17%)
  41. NCVP =
    National Center for Veterinary Parasitology
  42. Most Commonly Used test in clinics for intestinal parasites are (list effectiveness):
    • - Centrifuge floatation (99% effective)
    • - Simple floatation (84% effective)
    • - Direct smear (17% effective)
  43. 4 common parasites found in private practice are:
    • - Ascarids
    • - Ancylostoma
    • - Trichuris
    • - Tapeworms.

    (3 nematodes and 1 cestode)
  44. The test that Auburn created to specifically test for tapeworms is called the _________.
    Sandwich ELISA
  45. Specific gravity – Minimal Effective Concentrations:
    Ascarids (rounds) & Ancylostoma (hooks) = ______
    Trichuris vulpis (whips) = _______ 
    Taenia (tape) = _______
    Physaloptera (stomach whips) = ________
    • - 1.06 
    • - 1.15
    • - 1.23
    • - 1.24
  46. _______ means it is a very concentrated solution.
    Hypertonic
  47. Name two flotation mediums used for the testing of parasites:
    • 1. Zinc sulfate
    • 2. Sodium nitrate
  48. ______ are the most common worms in veterinary medicine.
    ________ is the most common Ascarid most found in man worldwide.
    • - Nematodes
    • - Ascaris lumbricoides
  49. The terms zoonotic and Public Health are used interchangeably for discussing transmissible disease; however to be zoonotic the transmission must be susceptible to both the animal and man. If it doesn’t affect the animal and is transferred to man then it is either a _______________.
    Reservoir, or intermediate host
  50. ______ people in the U.S. are infected with larvae of Toxocara genus from dogs and cats.
    _______children alone are affected annually by ascarids transmitted by dogs and cats. 
    ____of whom lose their vision as a result of ocular larvae migrans. Migrating Toxocara larvae caused ___% cases of retinal disease in children.
    • - 15 million
    • - 10 thousand
    • - 750 
    • - 37%
  51. The overwhelming majority of puppies in the US are infected with _______ and _______, because they are transmitted ______.
    • - Toxocara canis and Ancylostoma caninum
    • - Inutero and transmammary
  52. Baylisascaris procyonis 
    Definitive host ________, but can infect dogs, is a source of illness in people. Picked up ______. Raccoons poop and pee in one area, called a ______.
    • - Raccoons
    • - Orally
    • - Latrine
  53. Ancylostoma caninum can cause _______.
    Chronic enterolitis
  54. Male nematodes are smaller than female of their species. Male nematodes caudal ends are often equipped with a cuticular expansion called a _________ for grasping the female.
    Copulatory bursa
  55. Female nematodes – reproductive system consists of ____________ connected to a _____________. Females are generally bigger and more parasitic (suck more blood).
    • - 2 ovaries, oviducts , and uteri
    • - single vagina and vulva
  56. List 5 Transmission methods for Ancylostoma infection:
    • 1. Skin penetration –infective stage (3rd) PP 14
    • 2. Oral infection –prepatent period 14 days
    • 3. Transmammary –A. caninum only to date.
    • 4. Intrauterine –A. caninum only to date.
    • 5. Mammalian parentenic host. Another way to say is accidental host. No molting takes place in a parentenic host – it just picks it up.
  57. Most common way puppy will get hookworms is ________ and _______.
    • - Transmammary
    • - Intrauterine
  58. The clinical picture in hookworm disease is dependent on the:
    • 1. Virulence of the species – Ancylostoma caninum is most virulent
    • 2. Degree of exposure to infected larvae
    • 3. The degree of resistance of the host.
  59. Symptoms of Ancylostoma:
    • - Weakness
    • - Unfitness
    • - Anemia
    • - Diarrhea
    • - Bloody or tarry stools
    • - Anorexia
    • - Depression 
    • - Death may occur
  60. Hookworm:
    Phylum - 
    Order – 
    Family – 
    Genus –
    • - Nematoda
    • - Strongylida
    • - Ancylostomatidae
    • - Ancylostoma
  61. Hookworms do not suck blood, they suck the _______.
    At any one time it can be attached to the intestines, it can be migrating through the body, not just the liver and lungs, migrating to a muscle or it can be encysted in the tissue. Encysted in the tissue is called ____________.
    • - Mucosa
    • - Larval Leak Syndrome
  62. _______ can evoke an eruption of encysted larvae. Some people feel that the encysted parasites like hookworm larvae can be affected with microfilaria doses of ____________.
    • - Hormones
    • - Ivermectin ¼ mL p/40lbs orally
  63. Life Cycle of Hooks is _______ life cycle
    - Direct
  64. Ascarid and Ancylostoma can be transmitted ________ and ________.
    • - Transmammary
    • - Transoverian
  65. List 8 Treatments of Ancylostoma caninum:
    • - Panacur
    • - Drontal Plus
    • - Intercepter
    • - Sentinel
    • - Heartgard Plus
    • - Iverhart Plus
    • - Proheart 6
    • - Pyrantel Pamoate
  66. How to Control Ancylostoma caninum:
    • - Discretionary deworming
    • - Routine preventives given monthly
    • - Preventing fecal contamination of lawn
  67. Clinical Signs of Ancylostomiasis:
    Inhabit ___________ – ______ feces. 
    Other parasite that give this type stool it is a stomach worm called __________
    Egg to 3rd Stage Larvae in _____ days –optimal time for infection
    • - Small intestines only
    • - Dark tarry
    • - Physaloptera
    • - 5 to 7
  68. Describe the Clinical Picture for Ancylostomiasis:
    • 1.  Far more devastating in the puppy or kitten
    • 2.  Dark tarry stool diarrhea
    • 3.  Pale mucus membranes with anemia. This is really a symptom
    • 4.  Microcytic and Hypochromic
    • 5.  Playing today, motionless tomorrow, dead 3rd day.
    • 6.  Adults NOT seen in feces, too small - Only eggs on microscopic identification. This is the primary means of diagnosing.
  69. Name 3 forms of Diagnosing:
    • Differential: list of things that it could be
    • Tentative: most likely what it is
    • Diagnosis: see the parasite
  70. ____________ is the most common and most virulent of all the hookworms seen in North America.
    Ancylostoma caninum
  71. Name the two most common Protozoans:
    • - Isospora felis
    • - Isospora canis.
  72. Life Cycle of A. caninum:
    • 1. Dog consumes the 3rd stage larvae or the 3rd stage larvae penetrates the skin of animal.
    • 2. Larvae mature in small intestines and feed.
    • 3. Mature worms copulate and start to produce egg.
    •      a) Two weeks after consumption of 
    •          3rd stage they can mature to the
    •          Stage 5 larvae and start to reproduce
    •          OR
    •      b) Four weeks after skin penetration
    •          of 3rd stage can mature and
    •          start to reproduce
    • 4. Eggs are passed in feces & hatch in 2 – 8 days.
    • Life cycle continues repeating 1, 2, 3, and 4 above.
  73. Once the 3rd stage larvae is consumed and passes to the small intestines, one of two avenues may be taken by the A. caninum larvae:
    • 1) Larvae may mature to adult.
    • 2) Larvae may penetrate the intestine wall and migrate through the tissues and encyst within the skeletal muscles, or gut wall becoming dormant.
  74. U. stenocephala can produce severe anemia and death within ______ days after birth.
    12
  75. _________ and ____________ can both penetrate the skin resulting in Cutaneous Larval Migrans.
    The name CLM refers only to the penetration of __________ however.
    • - Ancylostoma caninum and A. braziliense
    • - A. braziliense
  76. If you do an immediate flotation (within hours) and you see larvae, it is probably going to be __________ or __________.
    On feces 4-5 days old, and you see larvae it is probably going to be _________.
    • - Strongyloides (blood in feces) and lungworm (coughing)
    • - Ancylostoma
  77. Chemotherapy Drugs for Ascarids and Ancylostoma:
    • - Pyrantel pamoate (Nemex)
    • - Pyrantel pamoate/praziquantel -Ascarids/Ancylostoma - (Drontal)
    • Febantel/Praziquantel - Cestodes - (Drontal)
    • - Fenbendazole (Panacur)
    • Dichlorvos (Task)
    • - Milbemycin oxime & Lufenuron (Interceptor/Sentinel)
    • - Selamectin (Revolution)
    • - Ivermectin/Pyrantel Pamoate (Heartgard Plus)
    • - Oxibendazole/Diethylcarbamazine (Filaribits Plus)
  78. How to control Hooks – (Nearly the same as Asacrids):
    • 1. Feces should be removed regularly from earth runs and not be left on the ground for more than 24 hours.
    • 2. Soil can be periodically treated with salt 160g/liter boiling water or sodium borate 14 kg/sq meter.
    • 3. Concrete runs should be trialed smoothly and runs should be hosed and washed well.
    • 4. Bitch should be de-wormed prior to breeding.
  79. What is the 2nd most common Nematode Parasite of Dogs and Cats?
    • - Ascariasis(“Roundworms”)
    • - Toxocara canis (dog)
    • - Toxocara cati (cat)
    • - Toxascaris leonina
  80. Roundworms:
    Phylum – 
    Order – 
    Family – 
    Genus –
    • - Nematoda
    • - Ascaridae
    • - Ascaridoidea
    • - Toxocara, Toxascaris, Physaloptera, Baylisascaris
  81. __________ and _________ (like Ancylostoma caninum) are the most pathogenic of the roundworms
    • - Toxocara canis
    • - Toxocara cati
  82. List 4 ways Ascarids are transmissed?
    • 1. Ingestion –2nd stage is infective stage.
    • 2. Inutero (transplacental) - primary for the Ascarids
    • 3. Transmammary – (Transplacental)
    • 4. Mammalian Parentenic Host
  83. What happens if the 1st Stage larvae (ascarids) is eaten?
    • 1. They wind up in the lungs and they are going to be coughed up from the trachea to the pharynx.
    • 2. Then swallowed to the lungs/esophagus and go back to the stomach all in stage 2.
    • 3. Once they hit the stomach the 2nd time then they will molt to 3, 4, & 5 in the intestines and start reproducing.

    **This is called Transtracheal Migration**
  84. Transtracheal Migration is common for every ascarid in every species. In the pig, the coughing brought on by the migration is called ________.
    Thumps
  85. _____ means that it has to go through an intermediate host. 
    _____ means that it does not have go through an intermediate host. If it is picked up by another animal and eaten by dog, then that animal that was eaten is called a ________ host.
    Intermediate host implies ________. Paratenic host implies ____________.
    • - Indirect
    • - Direct
    • - Paratenic 
    • - Biological vector
    • - Mechanical host
  86. Baylisascaris procyonis is dangerous because it ________.
    Invades the nervous system
  87. Toxocara canis and T. cati follow what is called a __________.
    Also sometimes called __________.
    • - Tracheal Migration
    • - Route; transtracheal migrations
  88. What are 6 Patterns of Migration of Ascarids?
    • 1. Dog consumes second stage larvae.
    • 2. Larvae penetrates the stomach and enters the hepatic portal circulation.
    • 3. Larvae migrates through the liver parenchyma.
    • 4. Larvae enters the posterior vena cava then goes to the right auricle, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, pulmonary artery, and goes to the lungs.
    • 5. Larvae will migrate up the trachea to the pharynx switches tubes and goes from the trachea to the esophagus where they are swallowed where it goes back to the stomach as Stage 2.
    • 6. Following a molt in the stomach to stage 3, the parasite goes to the small intestine to molt twice and reproduce.
  89. Toxocara canis is the largest ascarid in dogs living in the _________ and are long white and often straight in contrast to the worms of Physaloptera rara which lives in the ___________ and is continuous ________ throughout its life.
    • - Small intestines
    • - Stomach 
    • - C shaped
  90. Ascarid parasite can also be passed _______ from the bitch to the pups by the ____ stage larvae.
    Infected pups can have the ____ stage larvae in their lungs when born, and a molt from ____ stage can occur during the first week of life.
    The 4th stage are then present in the _____ at ____ after birth.
    • - Inutero 
    • - 2nd
    • - 3rd 
    • - 3rd to 4th 
    • - intestinal tract
    • - 3 days
  91. The prepatent period for ascarids is ______.
    12 days
  92. _________ is the stage in which we can do a fecal and see the passage of eggs from the intestines.
    Prepatent period
  93. Life Cycle for Ascarids:
    • 1. Dog or cat ingest the eggs, 2nd stage or paratenic host.
    • 2. Egg will hatch in stomach and molt to 2nd stage.
    • 3. 2nd stage larvae invade the bowel, move to the liver, and go to the lungs via the posterior (caudal) vena cava.
    • 4. Larvae enter alveoli, coughed up into trachea & mouth, are swallowed and mature in the small intestine.
    • 5. When bitch is pregnant (hormones), larvae are activated to migrate to placenta and into lungs of pups or to the mammary glands where they are shed in the milk.
  94. Larvae of both Ascarids and Ancylostoma that do not follow the normal routes of migration and as a result they encyst in the muscles in a dormant state. If they go to the muscle it is termed _________ is a term for this state of arrested development in the muscles.
    Hypobiosis
  95. What are the 3 forms of both the Ascarid and Ancylostoma in the animal’s body, that are not in the egg form?
    • 1. Adult –in the intestines mostly
    • 2. Visceral migrating larvae
    • 3. The encysted larval form
  96. Primary means of Transmission for:
    1. Ascarids - 
    2. Ancylostoma- 
    Remember – this is the primary both parasites have dual transmissions.
    • - Transplacental, transovarial or in-utero
    • - Transmammary or Galactogenic
  97. Name 2 Signs of Ascarid Infections in prenatal infected pups:
    • a) abdominal cramps
    • b) intussusception with constipation/obstipation and dyschezi
  98. List 4 Signs of Ascarid Infections in Adults:
    • a) gastrointestinal upset (diarrhea and vomiting)
    • b) respiratory disorders due to tracheal migration
    • c) "pot belled” appearance and emaciation (hook bone and pin bone are showing)
    • d) rough and dull hair coat
  99. _______ – these are basically physiological changes that you can observe with the naked eye or hear. Examples vomiting, coughing, diarrhea, dyspnea, constipation etc.
    _______ – are the result of running test in clinical laboratory and observing changes from normal. Examples Packed cell volume, complete blood count, neutrophilia etc.
    • - Symptoms
    • - Clinical signs
  100. Control measures of Ascarids (like Ancylostomiasis) include:
    • 1. Bitch should be screened for parasites prior to breeding and dewormed twice prior to breeding if positive. May want to use Ivermectin.
    • 2. Puppies should be reared in an enclosed environment with multi-hour disposal of feces from bitch and puppies. Examples – concrete runs that are trialed off-level and treating with polyurethane.
    • 3. Screen puppies at 4 and 8 weeks for all parasites.
  101. List 8 Benzindazoles:
    • 1) Parabendazole
    • 2) Albendazole
    • 3) Cambendazole – Camvet (proprietary name)
    • 4) Thiabendazole – Omnizole
    • 5) Fenbendazole – Panacur –
    • 6) Mebandazole – Telmin –
    • 7) Oxifendazole
    • 8) Oxibendazole
  102. If the Visceral Larvae Migrans is ocular it is called ____________.
    Ocular Larval Migrans
  103. Visceral Larval Migrans (including OLM):
    Cause is _______ and _________.
    Remember _______ is NOT a visceral migrator
    • - Toxocara canis
    • - Toxocara cati (mystax)
    • - Toxascaris leonina
  104. Cutaneous Larval Migrans :
    Cause in humans by ________ and ________. However, most authorities and text will list only _____, causing Cutaneous Larval Migrans in zoonotic cases.
    Nickname is _______.
    • - Ancylostoma brazilienses
    • - A. caninum
    • - A. brazilienses
    • - “Creeping Eruption” (only used for humans)
  105. Toxocara mystax (T. cati): 3 Similarities to Toxocara canis
    • 1. Toxocara mystax is the common ascarid to cats like T. canis is to the dog. 
    • 2. Transtracheal migration is exactly the same as in T. canis.
    • 3. Larval leak syndrome does occur with cats and T. cati.
  106. Toxocara mystax (T. cati): Differences to Toxocara canis
    • - Transplacental route of infection does not occur with T. cati.
    • - Transmammary is the route in cats.
    • - Transmammary does occur with Toxocara canis.
  107. Toxascaris leonina does not have visceral migration, but follows a mucosal migration with the 2nd and 3rd molts occurring in the ______ and the 4th stage entering the ________ to mature.
    Inside the intestine to outside = 
    Prepatent period is _______.
    • - Mucosa wall
    • - Lumen of the gut
    • - Inside the intestine to outside = Mucosa, submucosa, muscle and serosa.
    • - 10 weeks
  108. Why do we only deworm for T. leonina once?
    Because they don’t participate in Visceral Larval Migrans - they do NOT leave the intestines.
  109. Two mechanisms of transmission of Toxascaris leonina:
    • 1. Ingestion of the eggs (most common method)
    • 2. Ingestion of the paratenic host
  110. Toxascaris leonina Signs:
    Minimal due to the lack of pathogenicity with no transplacental and no transmammary transmission; therefore the animal is not effected until near adulthood.
  111. Life Cycle of Toxascaris leonina:
    • 1)Ingestion of eggs
    • 2) Hatch,
    • 3) Molt
    • 4) Mature to adult all within the intestinal tract.
  112. ___________ is the most pathogenic zoonosis (next to Strongyloides) because its larvae continues to grow as they migrate penetrating the CNS causing irreparable damage or even death.
    Baylisascaris procyonis
  113. B. procyonis is a roundworm of the raccoon.
    Eggs are shed ____ before development of infection.
    Intermediate hosts are ___, ____ or ____.
    The  ____ consumes parenteric host. 
    Can undergo ______ migration just like other ascarids with exception of T. leonina.
    • - 2-4 weeks
    • - rodent, lizard, bird
    • - dog 
    • - transtracheal
  114. __________ - 3rd Most Common Nematode
    Nickname – ________
    • - Trichurisasis
    • - "Whipworms"
  115. Name the Whipworms of:
    1. _______________ – dog
    2. _______________ – cat
    3. _______________ – cat
    4. _______________ – man, pig, & monkeys
    • 1. Trichuris vulpis
    • 2. Trichuris campanula
    • 3. Trichuris serrate
    • 4. Trichuris trichura
  116. The irritation to the cecum produces ______. 
    Trichuris species will cause _____blood in the feces where Ancylostoma causes ____ stool.
    Trichuris participated in no __________.
    All Trichuris eggs, on flotation, are usually mistaken for _________ genus, or bladder eggs since they are both operculated.
    • - “Flank Sucking”
    • - Bright red
    • - Dark tarry
    • - Transtracheal migration
    • - Eucoleus
  117. Prepatent period for Trichuris is ______ from the time the animal consumes the egg.
    3 months
  118. Life Cycle of Trichuris:
    • 1. Eggs are consumed directly 
    • 2. Eggs hatch and the larval development occurs in either the duodenum or jejunal walls (larvae incubate 1 mo. in egg)
    • 3. Adults then move to the cecum where they mature and reproduce in approximately 11 weeks after ingestion of the egg. Once mature and start to reproduce – start seeing eggs in feces.
  119. Symptoms of Trichuris Cecum Inhabitant:
    • 1. Weight loss
    • 2. Bright blood in the feces (small amount)
    • 3. Anemia – clinical sign
    • 4. Abdominal pain
    • 5. Flatulence
    • 6. Flank Sucking
  120. Fecal flotations are used to diagnose Trichuris like all the Ascarids and Ancylostoma; however, Trichuris eggs are ______ and thus require a flotation medium with a specific gravity of at least _____ in order to get the eggs to float to the top.
    ______ is the choice if we suspect Trichuris.
    • - Heavier
    • - 1.145 
    • - Zinc sulfate
  121. Treatment of Trichuris:
    • - Fenbendazole (Panacur) is still the drug of choice for at least three days in a row of treatment.
    • - However Drontal Plus with febantel is supposed to take care of Trichuris.
  122. Taxonomy Strongyloides
    Phylum:
    Order: 
    Family:
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Rhabditida
    • Family: Rhabdiasoidea
  123. All Strongyloides and Ancylostomas can be passed in _____ or _____ form.
    Larval, or egg form.
  124. Strongyloides live in the mucosa of the anterior half of the ________ in dogs, cats, foxes and man.
    They also cause the production of ________.
    Why?
    • - Small intestine
    • - Bright red blood
    • - Because it passes through the digestion rapidly and the blood doesn’t have time to mix with the feces
  125. List the 3 types of Strongyloides in order of most pathogenic to least pathogenic:
    • - Asexual pathogenic female - Most
    • - Sexual female 
    • - Sexual Male - Least
  126. Intestinal Threadworms:
    _______ in cow
    _______ in horse
    _______ in the dog
    _______ in the cat
    • - Strongyloides papillosus
    • - Strongyloides westeri
    • - Strongyloides stercoralis
    • - Strongyloides tumefaciens
  127. Micronema species are part of the ____________ family.
    Such as the Genus Strongyloides and are common in horses invading the CNS on occasion.
    Rhabdiasoidea
  128. Strongyloides live in the anterior half of the small intestines, but produce bright blood due to the ________.
    Rapid movement through the intestines
  129. Strongyloides stercoralis:
    This rhabditiform larvae was diagnosed using the _______ AKA the  _____________.
    Larvae were found in 5 of the 7 puppies in this litter using this technique.
    • - Baermann technique
    • - Wisconsin Lungworm technique
  130. Which two parasites produce bright red stool?
    • 1) Trichuris
    • 2) Strongyloides
  131. Which two parasites produce dark tarry stool?
    • 1) Ancylostoma
    • 2) Physaloptera
  132. Which parasites exit the host as a larvae?
    Strongyloides; lungworms
  133. Which parasites inhabit the:
    Small intestine =
    Cecum =
    • SI: T. canis, T.cati, T. leonina, A. caninum,
    • A. tubaeformae, U. stenocephala,
    • Strongyloides stercoralis
    • Cecum: Trichuris
  134. Which parasites have Visceral Migration in their life cycle?
    • - Toxocara canis
    • - Toxocara cati/mystax
  135. Which parasites have only Mucosal Migration in their life cycle?
    Toxascaris leonina
  136. Which parasites are incriminated as primarily zoonotic (public health) problems?
    • - Ancylostoma caninum (CLM)
    • - Ancylostoma braziliensis
  137. CLM in humans is which parasite?
    Ancylostoma brazilienses
  138. Which two parasites can penetrate the skin?
    • 1) Ancylostoma
    • 2) Strongyloides
  139. Which parasite can use a direct life cycle and indirect life cycle?
    Eucoleus aerophila
  140. Which two parasite during 1st stage larvae becomes infective?
    • 1) Filaroides osleri
    • 2) Filaroides hirthi
  141. Lungworms:
    Order – 
    Family - 
    Genus -
    • Order: Trichinellida 
    • Family: Trichinelloidea
    • Genus: Eucoleus, Aelurostrongylus, Filaroides (Paragonimus is a Trematode - a fluke)
  142. _______ known as “the fox lungworm” is the lungworm of the dog and fox. The can be oviparous, pass larvae, use a direct life cycle or an indirect life cycle utilizing an earthworm referred to as a _________.
    - Eucoleus aerophila
  143. Other Capillaria:
    ______= crop worm poultry      
    ______= inflammation of mucosa in ducks.
    The eggs of Eucoleus are ______ and resemble Trichuris.
    • - Eucoleus annulata
    • - E. contorta
    • - Bipolar
  144. ______ is the lung worm of the cat primarily.
    Their life cycle is ______ living in _______.
    • - Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
    • - Indirect 
    • - Molluscs (snail - most common mollusk),
  145. Clinical Picture of Lungworms in Dogs and Cats:
    • Dogs w/ E. aerophila: coughing with pneumonia
    • Cats w/ Aleurostrongyles abstruses: coughing with dyspnea, anorexia and fever.
  146. Other Lungworms
    _______ – not a nematode but a trematode, and its natural host is the _____.
    Eggs are _____.
    • - Paragonimus kellicotti
    • - Mink
    • - Unipolar
  147. Treat Paragonimus kellicotti with _________.
    Ivermectin at 1/4mL/40#
  148. Life Cycle of Paragonimus kellicotti:
    • 1) Eggs coughed up and swallowed.
    • 2) Pass in water through the feces.
    • 3) Picked up by snail.
    • 4) Crayfish eats snail.
    • 5) Dog eats crayfish.
  149. Review Intermediate Host: 
    ___________– earthworm
    __________– molluscs 
    __________– crayfish
    __________– do not require intermediate host - if they did it would be a snail.
    • - Eucoleus 
    • - Aelurostrongylus
    • - Paragonimus
    • - Filaroides
  150. Spirocera lupi:
    • - "Esophageal Worm"
    • - Bight red worms
    • - Nodules in esophagus, gastric or aortic walls.
    • - Produce neoplasms.
  151. Symptoms of Spircerca lupi are:
    • - Vomiting
    • - Dysphagia
    • - Aortic aneurysm
    • - Esophageal neoplasms

    **These can lead to Pulmonary Osteoarthropathy**
  152. Life Cycle of Spirocera lupi:
    • 1) Eggs are deposited in stool.
    • 2) Eggs hatch after ingestion by coprophagic beetle.
    • 3) Larva become infective and encyst in tracheal tubes of beetle.
    • 4) Beetle ingest by parentic host (lizard.)
    • 5) Parentic host ingest by dog.
    • 6) Larvae liberated in stomach, penetrate stomach wall, find their way via the arterial system to the aorta and then to the esophagus.
  153. ___________ – stomach worm of cats
    ___________ – stomach worm of dogs
    • - Physaloptera preputialis
    • - Physaloptera rara
  154. Physaloptera Differ From Ascarids in What 5 Ways:
    • 1. Stomach only.
    • 2. C chaped.
    • 3. Eggs always in vermiform stage.
    • 4. Eggs appear transparent.
    • 5. Feed on mucosa and cause bleeding (dark.)
  155. Physaloptera is known as the ______.
    It has an indirect life cycle and the ______ is the intermediate host.
    It can be controlled with the common dewormer ______.
    • - "Stomach Worm"
    • - Coprophagous beetle
    • - Pyrantel pamoate
  156. Thelazia californiensis:
    • - "Eyeworm" of dogs, sheep, deer, cattle and cats.
    • - Occur in conjunctival sac and conjunctivae of dogs, cats, etc.
  157. _______ and ________ are the mechanical host flies and transmit larvae eggs from eye to eye.
    • - Musca domestica (house fly)
    • - Musca autumnalis (face fly)
  158. ______ and ______ both produce neoplasms.
    • - Draschia megastoma
    • - Spirocera lupi
  159. Prepatent Periods:
    Ascarids = 
    Ancylostoma = 
    Trichuris = 
    Spirocera lupi =
    Strongylus vulgaris =
    S. edentatus & equinus around =
    • - 21 days
    • - 14 days
    • - 3 months
    • - 6 months
    • - 6 months
    • - 11 months
  160. List three areas that you will find migrating Spirocerca lupi:
    • - Adventita of the visceral arteries
    • - Walls of esophagus
    • - Stomach
  161. Pet Owner Knowledge for Prevention of Companion Animal Zoonosis:
    • 1. Purchase from reputable breeders and shelters.
    • 2. Annual vet visits; examinations.
    • 3. Use of broad spectrum internal parasite products.
    • 4. Consult vet with any issues of diarrhea.
    • 5. Support leash laws and fecal removal rules.
    • 6. Feed pets prepared rations.
    • 7. Avoid feeding wildlife.
    • 8. Don't assume info from internet is correct.
    • 9. Remove feces from young.
    • 10. Don't empty litterbox is pregnant.
    • 11. Fully cook meals before eating.
    • 12. Avoid direct contact with soil animals have been in contact with.
  162. Taxonomy of Heartworms:
    • Phylum - Nematoda
    •     Class - Nematode
    •       Order - Spiruridae
    •         Superfamily - Filarioidea
    •                    Genus - Dirofilaria
  163. Heartworms Dates:
    • - 1937: Heartworms discovered in canines Hennapin County, Minnesota.
    • - 1920's: First feline heartworms.
    • - 2004: 255,000 dogs diagnosed with heartworms in the US.
  164. Heartworm Disease Means:
    • 1. Animal has heartworms.
    • 2. Animal suffers from symptoms of heartworms.
  165. The definitive host of Heartworms is the _____.
    The non-definitive host is the _____ and _____.
    • - Canidae (dogs, wolves, foxes)
    • - Ferret and cat.
  166. Heartworms Can Affect:
    • - Dogs (wolves, foxes, etc.) (Most common)
    • - Ferrets (2nd most common to get hearworms)
    • - Cats
    • - Sealions
    • - Humans
  167. Life Cycle of Heartworms:
    • a) S1 (microfilariae) & S5 (adult) - Dog 1
    • b) S1 in mosquito molts to S3 (infective stage) in 1 to 4 weeks depending on temperature.
    • c) S3 enters dog 2 & molts to S4 in 1 to 2 weeks.
    • d) S4 stays in subcutaneous area for 100 days.
    • e) S4 moves to pulmonary artery & molts to premature S5, staying in pulmonary artery as S5 for 80 days.
    • f) After 80 days in the pulmonary artery as the premature S5 it will mature to S5 & begin mating & produce S1.
  168. Adult heartworms live ____ years.
    Microfilaria live ______ years.
    • - 5 years
    • - 1.5-2 years
  169. 3 types of Mosquito species associated with Heartworms:
    • 1) Culex
    • 2) Aedes
    • 3) Anopheles
  170. Average dog has ___ heartworms postmortem.
    Average cat has ___ heartworms postmortem.
    • - 14
    • - 1.5
  171. A 3 basic cosmopolitan distribution of H.W:
    1st – 
    2nd – 
    3rd –
    • 1st – Gulf Coast
    • 2nd – East Coast 
    • 3rd – Great Lakes
  172. New Subspecies of Heartworms:
    • - MP3 Strain
    • - Discovered in 2006
    • - Immidacloprid will 100% treat.
  173. ________ is another new form of Heartworms that is transmitted by the flea, making it a filarid, not a heartworm.

    You can treat this filarid with ______.
    • - Acanthochelonema reconditum
    • - ¼ mL ivermectin /40lbs
  174. ________ is another newly discovered form of Heartworms that is often seen is in large cats. (definitive)
    It has been seen in ____, (non-definitive) and has the same life cycle as Dirofilaria immitis in the animal just does not proliferate well.
    • - Dirofilaria ripens
    • - Dogs
  175. The Standard Lab Dog is the _____.
    Beagle
  176. Dogs are the only species that call the first stage of heart worms ______.
    Microfilariae
  177. Why Does Heartworm Disease Spread?
    • 1. Lack of compliance with regular administration of preventatives.
    • 2. Lack of certainty as to when to start and stop heartworm therapy.
  178. 50% (10-67%) of dogs with adult heartworms are _____ for microfilaria.
    Causes:
    • - Negative
    • Causes:
    • 1. Same sex and can't reproduce
    • 2. Body getting better to fight infective WBC (monocytes, macrophages & neutrophils) attacks the microfilaria.
  179. Symptoms of Heartworms:
    • 1. Coughing/Dyspnea
    • 2. Loss of stamina
    • 3. Ascites
    • 4. Front legs bowed outward.
  180. 5 Blood Sample Tests Used to Diagnose Heartworm:
    • 1) Direct Smear = 64% effective
    • 2) Modified Knotts Method = 84% effective
    • 3) Micropore Filtration Method = 84% effective
    • 4) Microhematocrit Tube = Least effective
    • 5) Occult Test = Most effective; Best         
    •                            a) antigen         
    •                            b) antibody - cats
  181. The best test to check for microfilaria for heartworm is _______.
    The poorest test to check for microfilaria for heartworm is _______.
    • - Difil Test - 84% efficiency 
    • - Microhematocrit Tube
  182. The best heartworm blood test is the _________.
    The poorest heartworm blood test is the _________.
    • - Occult Test
    • - Microhematocrit Tube
  183. Four Methods to Diagnose Heartworm Disease:
    • 1. Blood Samples 
    • 2. History – usually reason dog is in your clinic – coughing, loss of stamina, ascites, front legs bowed out
    • 3. Radiology – confirms the severity of the infection. 
    • 4. Echocardiography - produce equal sign
  184. A heartworm heart has an _______ – silhouette that implies you have right ventricle, pulmonary artery and right atrium involvement or at least right ventricle and pulmonary artery. Tells you if you are dealing with a caval syndrome.
    Inverted D
  185. Size of D. immitus Vs. A. reconditum:
    • D. immitus =  300-320 u length
    •                       6-8 u width

    • A. reconditum = 260-280 u length
    •                           6-7 u width
  186. Shape of D. immitus Vs. A. reconditum:
    • D. immitus = Straight tail with a tapered head.
    • A. reconditum = Button hooked tail with a blunt
    •                          head.
  187. Two types of Antibody Test for Heartworms:
    • 1. MAT – microfilariae antibody test detects antibodies to the microfilaria.
    • 2. DAT – dirofilariae antibody test – most commonly used – detects antibodies to heartworms.
  188. _______ and _______ systems are two types of Antigen Tests for the testing of Heartworms.
    • - ELISA
    • - Immunochromatographic Test
  189. The 2 Largest Veterinary Labs in the US are:
    • - Idexx
    • - Antech
  190. Why Aren’t More Dogs Protected From Heartworms Each Year?
    • 1. 24% of all pet owners spend nothing at veterinary hospitals.
    • 2. Clients do not understand heartworm disease.
    • 3. Pricing of treatment and prevention deter many clients from starting on a prophylaxis regiment.
  191. 2 items that are critical is persuading a client to get further care for pets are:
    • 1. Communication
    • 2. Consistency
  192. The antigen, or ELISA test can be run individually or as a group of tests, which is called _____________.
    Batch testing
  193. List 4 Causes of False Negative Antigen Tests:
    • 1. Blood sample not warmed up to room temp.
    • 2. Infection is light.
    • 3. Female worms have yet to mature.
    • 4. It's a male heartworm infection.
  194. List 3 Reasons Why ELISA Tests are Not as Sensitive to Heartworms in Cats:
    • 1. Low heartworm burden.
    • 2. Immature female heartworms.
    • 3. Male heartworm infection.
  195. The Most Useful Tests to Confirm Heartworm Infection in Cats are:
    • 1. Antibody Test - Test of Choice.
    • 2. Thoracic Radiographs
    • 3. Echocardiography
  196. Radiographs of the thoracic cavity of the dog are often used to determine the severity of heartworm disease and the effect on the heart and lungs. The changes typically seen in canine radiographs include:
    • 1. Enlargement of the main lobar and peripheral pulmonary arteries.
    • 2. The pulmonary artery is greater than 1.6 times the width of the ninth rib. Look like equal signs on radiographs. Due to the decrease in number = no “Inverted D.”
  197. There are two views that are a must for determining the SEVERITY of heartworm infection are ______ and ______.
    • - Lateral View
    • - Ventral Dorsal View
  198. Changes Typically Seen in Feline with Heartworms Radiographs Include:
    • 1. Enlargement of mail lobar and peripheral pulmonary arteries.
    • 2. Pulmonary artery greater than 1.6 times of he 9th rib.
  199. Echocardiography - The body wall of adult heartworms is highly echogenic and produces distinctive, short parallel-sided images with the appearance of ____________ where the imaging plane cuts across loops of the parasite.
    - Equal "=" signs
  200. Macrocyclic Lactones Includes the Following Preventive Medications for Heartworms:
    • 1. Ivermectin - Merial
    • 2. Milbemycin oxime - Novartis
    • 3. Selamectin - Pfizer
    • 4. Moxidectin - Bayer
  201. Macrocyclic lactones are highly therapeutic and possess anthelmintic activity against _____, _____ and _____, and in some instances _____.
    • - Microfilaria
    • - 3rd; 4th stage larvae
    • - Young adult heartworms (S5a)
  202. List 7 Preventives for Heartworm Disease:
    • 1) Diethylcarbamazine citrate – Originally Pfizer - Oral - Nemacide, Dirocide, Filaribits, etc.
    • 2) Ivermectin – Merial - Oral - Heartgard
    • 3) Milbemycin oxime – Novartis - Oral - Interceptor 
    • 4) Milbemycin oxime & Lufenuron (preventative for fleas) –Novartis - Oral - Sentinel 
    • 5) Selamectin – Pfizer - Topical - Revolution 
    • 6) Moxidectin – Ft. Dodge - Injectable - Proheart6
    • 7) Moxidectin + Imidacloprid - Bayer - Topical - Advantage Multi 
  203. Diethylcarbamazine citrate (DEC):
    • - Filaribits
    • - Pfizer Corporation
    • - Taken daily
    • - Kills only S3
    • - The FIRST oral preventative on the market.
  204. _________ required mandatory microfilaria testing before it can be administered to the dog because this product will also produce an _________ with microfilaria, resulting in vomiting and death.
    • - Diethylcarbamazine citrate
    • - Anaphylactic reaction
  205. List 3 basic products still on the market that we know will react with microfilaria, causing vomiting and shock:
    • 1. Diethylcarbamazine citrate
    • 2. Dichlorvos
    • 3. Milbemycin oxime (Interceptor)
  206. Liquid Diethylcarbamazine Phosphate - Name the Proprietary and Non-Proprietary Name:
    • - Styrylpyridinium chloride diethylcarbamazine phosphate
    • - Styride Caricide
  207. Ivermectin:
    • - Heartgard
    •       - (Adding Pyrantal Pamoate makes it
    •         Heartgard Plus)
    • - Merial Coroporation
    • - Taken once a month orally
    • - For dogs, cat and ferrets
    • - Kills S3 and S4
    • - Dosage is 6mcg/kg for dogs
    • - Ivomec 1% = Cattle Dewormer     
    • - Treats positive heartworm dogs with   
    •      microfilariae.
    • - High doses are toxic to collies.
  208. Ivermectin is a member of the ________ family, which contain to distinct families known as ____ and ____.
    • - Avermectin
    • - Avermectin and Milbemycin Family
  209. List the products in the Avermectin Family:
    (Non-proprietary, proprietary and administration)
    • 1. Ivermectin (Heartgard) – oral
    • 2. Selamectin (Revolution) – topical
    • 3. Doramectin – topical and injectable (not for HW prevention). 
    • 4. Eprinomectin – topical and injectable (not for hw prevention). 
    •        - Doramectin and Eprinomectin are    
    •        primarily for large animals – cattle,
    •        sheep & horses
  210. List the products in the Milbemycin Family:
    (Non-proprietary, proprietary and administration)
    • 1. Milbemycin oxime – oral
    • 2. Moxidectin – topical and injectable
  211. Mechanism of Actions of Avermectins and Milbemycins:
    Kill animal by ____.
    There are two modes of action for the above two: 
    The primary mode of action is in binding of ________ in the synapse between _______ and _______ in nematodes and arthropods.
    • - hypoxia
    • - glutamate chloride channels (glutamate is a neuron transmitter in the CNS)
    • - inhibitory interneurons (what we call the association neurons)
    • - excitatory motor neurons
  212. Milbemycine oxime:
    • - Interceptor
    • - Novartis
    • - Oral; every 30 days.
    • - Kills S3 and S4.
    • - Sales are second to Heartgard.
    • - Originally for dogs only.
  213. Milbemycin oxime w/ Lufenuron:
    • - Sentinel
    • - Novartis
    • - Lufenuron breaks the flea life cycle by preventing the formation of chitin.
    • - Oral; every 30 days.
  214. Selamectin:
    • - Revolution
    • - Pfizer
    • - Parts of Avermectin
    • - Topical; once a month
    • - First topical medication to prevent heartworm and flea replication.
    • - Treats roundworms, hookworms and sarcoptic mites also.
  215. Moxidectin w/ Imidacloprid:
    • - Advantage Multi (called Advocate in Europe)
    • - Bayer (bought from Fort Dodge)
    • - Topical; once a month.
    • - Treats demodectic mange
    • - Prevents heartworms and other parasites.
  216. Moxidectin:
    • - Proheart6
    • - Fort Dodge
    • - Injection
    • - Every 6 months.
    • - Developed in Houston at Still Meadows Laboratories.
  217. List 3 Oral Heartworm Preventatives:
    • 1. Diethylcarbamazine citrate (DEC)
    • 2. Ivermectin
    • 3. Milbemycin
  218. List 2 Topical Heartworm Preventatives:
    • 1. Selamectin
    • 2. Moxidectin w/ Imidacloprid
  219. Macrocyclic Lactones Chemoprophylaxis Will:
    • 1. Clear microfilariae from the blood of dogs
    • 2. Retarding repopulation of microfilariae by gradually suppressing embryogenesis.
  220. Elimination of microfilariae is usually complete within ____ of oral dosing with monthly macrocyclic lactones or one month following moxidectin injection.
    6-12 months
  221. If dogs are pathologically unable to receive heartworm treatment with Immitacide, then the alternative is to put the animal on macrocyclic lactones to:
    • 1. Deplete the microfilaria
    • 2. Sterilize the adults
    • 3. Shorten the life of the adults
  222. Adult heartworms can live up to ______.
    Microfilaria can live up to _____.
    • - 7 years
    • - 4-5 years
  223. Name 4 Treatments of Adult Heartworms:
    • 1. Melarsomine dihydrochloride - US
    • 2. Thiacetarsamide sodium - Asia/Europe
    • 3. Lavamisole HCI - Unsafe
    • 4. Fenthion (Talodex) - Not FDA approved
  224. Treating Adult Heartworms: US
    • - Melarsomine dihydrochloride
    • - Immiticide
    • - By Merial
    • - Only ADULT medication is US.
    • - Monitor kidney/liver function b/c of arsenic compound
    • - 1 mL/22#
    • - 2 IM injections (24 hr. interval).
  225. Immiticide is administered in ________ where mild swelling and some soreness can occur.
    Deep epaxial lumbar muscles
  226. Standard protocol for Immiticide calls for ______________.
    Two injections 24 hours apart.
  227. Alternative protocol for Immiticide is the treatment of choice of the American Heartworm Society. It's for dogs at a greater risk.
    - 1 injection initially, then a second dose of 2 injections after 4-6 weeks.
  228. All macrocyclic lactones have a “reach back” of ______.
    As melarsomine has not been demonstrated to kill worms under four months of age, three doses of a macrocyclic lactone (or an injection of Moxidectin) will kill most _________ and allow immature worms to reach the age that they will be susceptible to melarsomine.
    • - 2 months
    • - Pre-cardiac larvae (4th stage)
  229. Thiacetarsamide sodium (Caparsolate):
    • - Adulticide for adult heartworms 
    • - Still found in Asia and parts of Europe.
    • - Extremely toxic to the patient; dogs would die from liver failure.
    • - 4-6 injections IV; .1mL/# twice a day for two days.
    • - Half the cost of Immiticide.
    • - Kill rates range from 20-80%
  230. Adulticides for Heartworms Not in Use Today:
    • - Thiacetarsamide sodium/Caparsolate
    • - Levamisole HCI: Unsafe (organophosphate like symptoms) and also very ineffective.
    • - Fenthion (Talodex): used effectively as a
    • microfilariacide although never FDA approved.
  231. Treating Microfilariae:
    • 1. Ivermectin 1% - Cattle Dewormer   
    •         -1/4 mL/40# body weight oral   
    •         - Drug of choice (Not FDA approved)
    •         - Oral
    • 2. Milbemycin (Interceptor) - Oral
    • 3. Selamectin (Revolution) - Topical
    • 4. Dithiazine Iodine (Dizan)
    •        - Oral
    •        - Still the only FDA approved drug.
    • 5. Levamisole - No longer used.
    • 6. Fenthion 
    •        - Excellent microfilaricide
    •        - Harmful to liver.
    •        - Ordered off black market.
  232. Adult worms, when treated with the adulticide, will die in _____.
    So why do we not exercise the dog for at least 6 weeks?
    • - 10 days to 2 weeks.
    • - They are swept to the lungs where they become lodged in the alveoli and are decomposed by neutrophils, macrophages
    • (monocytes), and lymphocytes. The lungs are very susceptible to internal hemorrhage and tissue abuse.
  233. ________ is the drug of choice for treating Heartworms.
    Ivermectin
  234. List the 2 agencies that must approve of medications:
    • EPA – Environmental Protection Agency - approves Heartgard
    • FDA – Food & Drug Administration
  235. If dog stops eating during treatment for Heartworms, take temperature. If it's  elevated that means you have a _____________.
    This means that the adults are dying and are going to be swept to the lungs and now you have an infection.
    Verminous pneumonia
  236. Classification of Heartworm Disease:
    • Class 1 = - Asymptomatic, or mild signs. 
    •                 - No radiographic signs, or anemia.
    •                 - Occasional cough.
    •                 - No lab problems.
    •                 - TREATMENT!
    • Class 2 = - Moderate clinical & radiographic
    •                  abnormalities.
    •                 - Radiographic signs present with 
    •                  anemia.
    •                 - PCV less than 30%. 
    •                 - Mild lab elevation and proteinura.
    •                 - Must stabilize before treatment.
    •                 - Consider TREATMENT!  
    • Class 3 = - Severe clinical & radiographic
    •                 abnormalities including right side
    •                 CHF.
    •                 - Stabilize and alternate dosage.
    •                 - Don't treat at this stage.
    • Class 4 = - Often included to identify the
    •                 Class 3 patients that also have
    •                 Caval Syndrome.
  237. What is Caval Syndrome?
    - Develops in heavily infected dogs (class 3, or above) with large numbers of adults that are partially obstructing the tricuspid valve and interfering with the closure of it.

    - Can be confirmed with echocardiographic and radiographic visualization.
  238. Caval Syndrome is AKA ________.
    Dirofilarial hemoglobinuria
  239. List 2 symptoms of Caval Syndrome:
    • - Severe congestion of the liver.
    • - Jugular pulsations.

    **and obstructed blood flow**
  240. Treatement for Caval Syndrome:
    • - Surgical removal performed by removing (some) adults from the external jugular vein.
    • - Surgical instrument used for the this is the alligator forceps.
  241. Name the vessels and chambers the alligator forceps will enter through to remove the adult heartworms from the heart?
    • - Jugular vein
    • - Subclavian vein
    • - Brachiocephalic vein
    • - Cranial vena cava
  242. Left side heart failure = ____ - blood backs up to the lungs.
    Right side heart failure = ________ - blood backs up to the liver.
    • - Mitral Valve Insufficiency 
    • - Heartworms
  243. Wolbachia:
    • - Belongs to the Genus, Rickettsiales.
    • - Found with the filarid D. immitus.
    • - Both Wolbachia and D. immitus depend on eachother for development.
    • - Contributes to pulmonary and renal inflammation with WSB. (Wolbachia Surface Protein.)
    • - Most filarial nematodes harbor obligate, intracellualar, gram negative bacteria belonging to this Genus.
    • - Treat with Doxycycline.
  244. Dr. Graham, President of the Heartworm Association said “We put dogs on doxycycline because the antibiotics help to reduce the spread of heartworm infections by":
    • 1. Circulating microfilaria become non-infective.
    • 2. Makes the adult heartworms easier to kill. 
    • 3. Reduces post treatment side effects of the dying worms in the pulmonary arteries.
  245. Molting Time In Mosquito:
    30 celsius or 86 F = __ days
    26 celsius or 79 F = __ days
    22 celsius or 72 F = __ days
    18 celsius or 65 F = __ days
    12 celsius or 54 F = _____
    • - 30 celsius or 86 F = 8 days
    • - 26 celsius or 79 F = 12 days
    • - 22 celsius or 72 F = 17 days
    • - 18 celsius or 65 F = 29 days
    • - 12 celsius or 54 F = death


    9/5 X C + 32 = F
  246. Susceptibility To Infection:

    10 HW Dogs Exp. To 100 L3 = ___ dogs get HW.
    # of Ddults develop in the heart normally
    = ___.

    10 HW Cats Exp. To 100 L3 = ___ cats get HW.
    # of Adults develop in the heart normally
    = ____.
    • - 10 dogs
    • - 8 adults

    • - 7 cats
    • - 1-2 adults
  247. Why is 14 the average # of adult heartworms postmortem in the dog?
    - Immune recognition

    ** Protein recognition of the antibody being constantly reproduced by the repetition of the D. immitus life cycle cause less worms to survive.**
  248. Why Treat Microfilariae?
    • 1. Dog positive for microfilaria is a potentional threat to other animals.
    • 2. Pathological changes associated with high numbers of microfilaria make treatment for adults much more complex.
    • 3. If dog is positive and owner uses DEC, it can cause anaphylactic shoch and death.
  249. 3 Ways to Diagnose for Microfilariae:
    • 1. Direct smear.
    • 2. Millipore filtration
    • 3. Buffy coat smear from capillary tubes.
  250. ________ is the most common symptom of Anaphylactic shock.
    ___________ is the final symptom when the animal has gone through all the stages of shock.
    • - Vomiting
    • - Dilated pupils
  251. List 3 Products Can Cause Shock When Given to Animal with Microfilariae:
    • 1. Diethylcarbamazine citrate (DEC)
    • 2. Interceptor (milbemycine oxime)
    • 3. Dichlorvos
  252. Anaphylactic Reactions with H.W. Dogs:
           Type 1 Hypersensitivity
    - AKA = Anaphylactic Shock

    • - Mast cells release histamines that dilate blood vessels.
    • - Hypotension results in decreased cardiac output.
    • - Loss of tone in capillary walls.
    • - Blood pools in peripheral vessels.
    • - Blood can't get back to heart and lungs to receive O2 .
    • - Animal falls into coma and dies of hypoxia.
    • - Reaction can occue with in 20 minutes.
  253. When treating Heartworms, there are 3 options:
    • 1. Adulticide.
    • 2. Adulticide and microfilaricide.
    • 3. Microfilaricide.
  254. The drug of choice for killing adult Heartworms is _____.
    Though this particular medication does not kill stages ___ and ___.
    • - Immicide (melarsomine dihydrochloride)
    • - L3 and L4
  255. Class 1 Heartworm Treatment = ______.
    Class 2 and 3 Heartworm Treatment = ______.
    - 2 injections 24 hours apart. 

    - 1 injection initially followed by 2 injections given 30 days later, 24 hours apart.
  256. A dog being treated for Heartworms must be placed on restricted exercise for at least _____.
    This decreases the possibility for thrombo-embolisms in the lungs as the adult heartworms start dying from the adulticide and then become dislodged and travel to the lungs to be reabsorbed by _____ and _____.
    • - 6 weeks.
    • - Neutrophils and macrophages
  257. What are other drug may need to be used to treat Heartworms?
    • Aspirin
    • (Reg. amount is 325 mg; Baby amount is 81 mg.)

    - Because it reduces # of clots and increases blood flow.
  258. New Recommendations on Traditional Heartworm Treatment:
    • 1. Exam to insure animal has microfilariae and liver/kidney function is okay.
    • 2. Pretreat any preexisting subclinical disease.
    • 3. Treat microfilaria with Ivomec, or Revolution.
    • 4. 1st Injection of melarsomine dihydrochloride.
    • 5. 2nd shot one month later.
    • 6. Check for microfilaria one month later. Give Ivomec if needed.
    • 7. Check occult 4 months later as dog is on preventative.
  259. Cat Dates:
    2005 – 
    2007 – 
    2010 –
    • 2005: Cats outnumbered dogs in the US.
    • 2007: 81.7 million cats to 72 million dogs.
    • 2010: There were 37.5 cat owning household, the average household has 2, or more cats, and 12% have 4, more.
  260. Money Spent on Veterinary Care:
    2005 - 
    2007 -
    • 2005: 18.6 billion.
    • 2007: 24.5 billion.
  261. Signs of Heartworm Disease in Cats usually develop during one of two stages:
    • 1. Arrival of the immature S5 in the pulmonary artery.
    • 2. Death of adult heartworms.
  262. Heartworms are found more often in cats migrating in the body cavities, systemic arteries, and CNS than in dogs, because cats are the _________.
    Intermediate host.
  263. HARD: Heartworm-Associated Respiratory Disease
    • - Adults do not need to reach maturity to cause disease in cats.
    • - Often misdiagnosed as asthma, or allergic bronchitis.
    • - Affects arterioles and bronchioles.
    • - Disease may persist after worms die.
  264. AFTER KATRINA infections in the US increased immediately:
    HW: Dogs – ___% increase; Cats – __% increase.
    FeLV – __% increase. This use to be the primary cause of death in cats.
    FIV – __% increase Feline HW Disease – Feline AIDS
    • - 48.8%; 4.2%
    • - 2.6%
    • - 3.6%
  265. Comparative Disease Risk in Cats in the US:
    Kidney disease – __%
    D. mellitus – ___%
    FeLV – __%
    FIV – __% 
    HW infection – ___% possibility of infection.
    • - 11%
    • - 15%
    • - 2.3%
    • - 2.5%
    • - 2.14%
  266. Death from heartworms in cats and dogs is due to ________ AKA ________.
    • - Pulmonary thrombo-embolism 
    • - PTE
  267. What test would you use on a cat if you suspect microfilaria?
    Millipore Filtration Test
  268. Diagnostic Hang-ups in Cats Earliest Detection Times:
    Occult –
             a) Antigen - _____.
             b) Antibody - _____.
    Thoracic Radiography - _____.
    Echocardiography – _____.
    • - 6 months; 2 months.
    • - 4-6 months
    • - 6 months.
  269. Heartworm Prevention in Cats:
    • 1. Selamectin (Revolution) – topical - Pfizer
    • 2. Ivermectin (Heartgard) – oral - Merial
    • 3. Milmbemycin (Sentinel) – oral – Novartis
    • 4. Imidacloprid – Moxidectin (Advantage Multi) – topical - Bayer
  270. Nematodes of the Equine:
    Phylum – _____
    Order – _____
    Family – _____
    Sub-family – 
    _____ (small strongyles)
    _____ (large strongyles)
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Strongylida
    • Family: Strongyloidea 
    • Sub-family:
    • Cyathostominae (small strongyles)
    • Strongylinae (large strongyles)
  271. Strongyles inhabit the ____ and ____.
    • - Cecum
    • - Colon
  272. The most common cause of death in horses in the US is ____.
    The most common parasite that causes this is the large strongyles known as ________.
    • - Colic
    • - Strongylus vulgaris
  273. All large strongyles are known as _____,or _____.
    • - Bloodworms
    • - Redworms
  274. What are the 3 most important Large Strongyles?
    • 1. Strongylus vulgaris - Most dangerous.
    • 2. Strongylus equinus - Limited to US.
    • 3. Strongylus edentatus - Larger one.
  275. The most common cause of death from parasites in horses in TX is ________.
    Strongylus vulgaris
  276. Strongylus have a ring like fence of projections (mouth) known as the _______ that surround the mouth.
    Large strongyles can cause some bleeding, but they are not blood suckers, they eat ______ along the mucosa and they do not cause bleeding, unless they are sucking close to blood vessel.
    • - Corona radiata
    • - Glycoproteins
  277. Strongylus vulgarus Life Cycle:
    • 1. 3rd stage larvae is ingested by horse.
    • 2. 3rd stage larvae cast its covering and enters wall of the cecum and ventral colon.
    • 3. Larvae penetrates submucosa & 3rd stage molt to 4th stage in one week.
    • 4. 4th stage now penetrates small arteries and aorta and will wander to the cranial mesenteric artery in 11-21 days.
    • 5. After 2-4 months of migration in the cranial mesenteric artery, the 4th stage enters surrounding tissue and molts to 5th stage, which enters lumen of colon.
    • 6. Reproduction begins in about 6 months. When adults  reproduce, they will pass an egg, they will go through the feces, hit the ground, hatch into 1st stage then molt to the 2nd stage then molt to 3rd stage – that is the infective stage
  278. S. vulgaris → Infarction → ______.
    Death of bowel.
  279. Migration of S. edentatus:
    • 1. 3rd stage larva burrows into wall of gut and reaches liver via portal vein (elaborate).
    • 2. Larvae make way back to cecum and into bowl lumen.
    • 3. Subsequent molts will occur.
  280. Migration of S. equinus:
    • 1. 3rd stage larvae molts in intestinal wall.
    • 2. Then 4th stage make way to right half of liver, next to cecum.
    • 3. The 4th molt occurs 4 months later and the adults reenter the lumen of the large
    • intestines to mate and produce eggs.
  281. The Small Strongyles - There are about 40 species available and almost all can parasitize the equine; however, like T. leonina, they do not __________ like the large strongyles
    Migrate viscerally
  282. Pinworms:
    Phylum – _____
    Order – _____
    Family – _____
    Genus – _____
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Ascaridae
    • Family: Oxyuroidea
    • Genus: Oxyuris, Enterobius, Probstymeria
  283. The Oxyurid, or “equine pinworm”, is known as _____  and has a  _____life cycle.
    They like the strongyles, also inhabit the _____ of the horse.
    • - Oxyuris equi
    • - Direct
    • - Cecum and colon
  284. Often the life cycle of Oxyuis equi is confused with the “________”, aka _________, human pinworm which also inhabits the appendix, large intestine and female genitalia
    • -"Seatworm of Man"
    • - Enterobius vermicularis
  285. _________ is caused by the eggs attached to the skin around the anus, which causes a major problem.
    Priruitus ani
  286. The eggs of Oxyuris equi look like ______ eggs.
    Paragonimus kellicotti.

    **Which are in dogs, not horses**
  287. _________, aka “the minute pinworm,” life cycle is completed in one location, the ______ and does not have a prepatent period.
    • - Probstmayria vivipara
    • - Large intestines (cecum and colon)
  288. The Ascarid of Equine:
    Phylum - 
    Order - 
    Family - 
    Genus -
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Ascaridae
    • Family: Ascaridoidea
    • Genus: Parascaris

    **Closely related to Ascaris suum**
  289. ____________ is the only ascarid in the horse and is the largest of all the ascarids in domestic animals.
    Parascaris equorum
  290. Parascaris equorum has 3 modes of Transmission: 1.____
                         2.____
                         3.____
    It doesn't penetrate the skin like _____ does.
    • 1. Transmammary
    • 2. Intrauterine
    • 3. Oral consumption

    - Toxocara
  291. 3 Primaries of Gasterphilus species:
    • 1. Gasterophilus intestinalis (most common)
    • 2. Gasterophilus nasalis
    • 3. Gasterophilus haemorrhoidalis (less common)
  292. The Gasterophilus parasite has three different forms of existence:
    ____ → ____ → ____ = _____.
    Fly → Egg → Larvae = 1 year
  293. Gasterophilus intestinalis Life Cycle:
    • 1. Male and female flies reproduce laying eggs on the hairs of the forelegs and shoulders. 
    • 2. After 5 days, the horse consumes the eggs with hatching and migration of larvae to dorsal surface of the tongue. 
    • 3. Larvae remain in the tongue for 30 days and then move to the lumen to be swallowed. 
    • 4. The intestinalis will attach to the stomach and live for about 10 - 11 months. They release their grip and fall in the feces.
    • 5. Pupal cases will release bot flies in 3 to 9 weeks.
    • 6. Egg hatch with male and female flies reproducing.
  294. Gasterphilus nasalis Life Cycle:
    • 1. Female and male flies reproduce with eggs being laid on the intermandibular spaces.
    • 2. Eggs hatch in 5 days, crawl towards the mouth and then between the lips.
    • 3. Larvae burrow into the pockets between the molar teeth.
    • 4. In about 2 weeks they will move to the lumen and be swallowed. The larvae will attach to the duodenum.
    • 5. In about 11 months, the larvae will release and pass out the horse. Pupal cases will hatch in 3 to 9 weeks.
  295. Gasterphilus haemorrhoidalis Life Cycle:
    • 1. The flies lay their eggs on the lips. Hatch in 2-4 days when the horse drinks water, penetrated the epidermis of the lips, and burrow into the mucus membranes of the mouth.
    • 2. In about 2 weeks they migrate out into the lumen and end up in the duodenum.
    • 3. In about 11 months they lose grip and pass out in feces in their pupal cases. The adult bot flies will emerge in 3 to 9 weeks.
  296. Medications To Remove Bots:
    • Carbon disulfide: Parvex Plus
    • Dichlorvos: Equigard (organophosphate)
    • Trichlorfon: Combot (organophosphate)
    • Ivermectin: Ivermec -now the drug of choice
  297. Why do we wait 1 month after the first frost to deworm for bots?
    Because after the 1st frost all the eggs are dead and 30 days allows for the time for anything in the mouth to get to the stomach and duodenum. So deworming will kill everything that is in the intestines and duodenum.
  298. The Rhabditoids (as they are known as) are all of the Genus _______.
    Strongyloides
  299. _________ is the “intestinal threadworm of the horse” and is shared with the ____.
    _____ and _____ are the two domestic animals most commonly infected via nursing 4-7 days after foaling.
    • - Strongyloides westeri
    • - Swine
    • - Foals and piglets
  300. _______ is shared with the equine and swine.
    _______ is shared with the equine and ruminants.
    • - Strongyloides westeri
    • - Trichostrongylus axei
  301. The Minute Stomach Worm:
    Phylum – ______
    Order – ______
    Family – ______
    Genus - ______
    • Phylum: Nematode
    • Order: Strongylida
    • Family: Trichostrongylidae
    • Genus: Trichostrongylus
  302. 4 Stomach Worms in Ruminants:
    • 1. Haemonchus contortus
    • 2. Haemonchus placei
    • 3. Ostertagia ostertagi
    • 4. Trichostrongylus axei - "Min. Stomach Worm"
  303. 4 Stomach Worms in Equine from the Spiruroidea Family that Share the Abomasum with T. axei:
    • 1. Habronema muscae
    • 2. Habronema majus
    • 3. Habronema microstoma
    • 4. Draschia megastoma (produces a tumor)

    **Family is Spiruroidea**
  304. Equine Stomach Worm:
    Phylum – _____.
    Order – _____.
    Super Family – _____.
    Family – _____.
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Spirurida
    • Super Family: Spiruroidea
    • Family: Habronema
  305. Habronema and Draschia Perpetrate the Host in 2 ways:
    • 1. Larvae on skin - Will invade tissue and cause "summer sores."
    • 2. Flys that are consumed enter the GI tract and produce catarrhal gastritis with mucus production.
  306. 3 tapeworms of the horse: ____, ____, & ____.
    Intermediate host of Tapeworms is _______.
    • - Anoplocephala magna, A. mamillana, & A. perfoliata.
    • - Mites
  307. ______ will remove tapeworms with hooks.
    Praziquantel
  308. Stomach Worms of Ruminants Taxonomy:
    Phylum - _____.
    Order - _____.
    Family - _____.
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Strongylida
    • Family: Trichostrongyloidea
  309. Stomach Worms of Ruminants:

    _________ - Also found in the horse.
    _________ - "Twisted Stomach Worm"
    _________ - Wire and Barber Pole Stomach Worm.
    _________ - Medium, or Brown Stomach Worm.
    • - Trichostrongyles axei 
    • - Haemonchus contortus 
    • - Haemonchus placei 
    • - Ostertagia ostertagi
  310. Strongylid parasites of ruminants are Nematodes of the Order ________.
    This name includes: (11)
    ______, ______, ______, ______, ______, ______, ______, ______, ______, ______, and ______.
    • - Strongylida
    • - Ostertagia, Haemonchus, Cooperia,
    • Trichostrongylus, Telodorsagia, Mecistocirrus,
    • Oesophagostomum, Bunostomum, Chabertia,
    • Camelostrongylus, and Lamanema.
  311. All coccidia in farm animals are all of the _______ genus.
    In dogs and cats it’s going to be an ______.
    The only exception is the pig, which have _____ and _____.
    • - Eimeria
    • - Isospora canis & Isospora felis
    • - Eimeria and Isospora
  312. ____________ are considered the most pathogenic of all helminths to parasitize the ruminant.
    Stomach worms
  313. 3 Intestinal Worms of Ruminants:
    • 1. Bunostomum phlebotomum
    • 2. Oesophagostomum columbianum - "Sheep Nodular Worm."
    • 3. Oesophagostomum radiatum - "Cow Nodular Worm."
  314. ___________ is a hookworm and cattle are the definitive host.
    ____________ is also a hookworm and sheep and goats are the definitive host.
    • - Bunostomum phlebotomum
    • - Bunostomum trigonocephalum
  315. “Nodular Worm Disease” of Cows and Sheep:
    Family - _____.
    List Two - 1._____ 2._____
    • - Syngamoidea
    • 1. Oesophagostomum columbianum
    • 2. Oesophagostomum radiatum
  316. Lungworms of Ruminants:
    Phylum – _____.
    Order – _____.
    Super Family - _____.
    Family – _____.
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Strongylida
    • Super Family: Metastrongyloidea
    • Family: Trichostrongyloidea
  317. Dictyocaulus viviparous is AKA _______.
    Husk
  318. Lungworms of Ruminants - Super Family of Lungworm:
    Super Family – ________ – is another lungworm that is classified as a super family since it has an indirect life cycle requiring the ____, or ____ as its intermediate host.
    • - Metastrongyloidea
    • - Earthworm, or snail.
  319. __________ is a member (4th member) of the Metastrongyloidea super family known as a lungworm, but can also inhabit the circulatory system in other species. Most verminous pneumonias attributed to this parasite.
    Protostrongylus rufescens
  320. Lungworm Migration:
    • 1. Eggs laid in the lungs. Coughing is one of the side effects.
    • 2. The eggs may hatch or may be passed intact.
    • 3. Eggs are coughed up, swallowed, and passed out in the feces.
    • 4. Eggs hatch in soil and larvae are consumed
    • 5. Larvae penetrate the intestine –blood –lungs.
  321. Nematodes of Swine Species:
    Phylum – _____.
    Order – _____.
    Family – _____.
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Ascaridae
    • Family: Ascaridoidea
  322. A deviated septum called Atrophic rhinitis is caused by ______.

    Also, ____ is one of the most common forms of death in Swine.
    • - Bordetella bronchiseptica
    • - Tanic acid
  323. Ascaris suum like the roundworms of Toxocara and Parascaris, these parasites live in the ________.
    Small intestines.
  324. __________ is the largest nematode of the human intestines and the most prevalent parasite of humans in the world.
    Ascaris lumbricoides
  325. Other Nematodes of Swine:
    Phylum – _____.
    Order – _____.
    Family – _____.
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Strongylida
    • Family: Strongylidea
  326. _______ – known as the “common kidney worm” is unique in that it has a direct and indirect life cycle. (_____ is intermediate host)
    • - Stephanurus dentatus
    • - Earthworm
  327. Intestinal Parasite of Swine:
    Phylum – _____.
    Order – _____.
    Family – _____.
    • Phylum: Nematoda
    • Order: Rhabditida
    • Family: Rhabdiasoidea
  328. Our rhabditoids (intestinal threadworms) are also found in swine as _____, _____, and _____. The primary route of infection is ______.
    • - Strongyloides ransomi, S. suis, and S. westeri
    • - Transmammary
  329. 3 Stomach Worms of Swine:
    • 1. Hyostrongylus rubidus (red stomach worm)
    • 2. Physocephalus sexalatus 
    • 3. Ascarops strongylina
  330. Once classified as a nematode, __________ is now known to be the tapeworm of swine. Nickname is the __________.
    dIt is indirect as all tapes are, using the _____________ as intermediate host.
    • - Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus
    • - “Thorny-headed” worm of swine
    • - Maybeetle, dung beetle and water beetles

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