Card Set Information
The flow rate or period of time to administer components must be?
patients blood sample must be carefully collected _______ prier to transfusion ?
If antibody scree test is POSITIVE what must be performed?
FULL Coombs crass match
red Cell transfusion must be completed within _____ of the time issued from the blood bank?
Any untoward reaction occurring during or after the infusion of blood or blood components resulting from antigen-antibody reaction is known as?
the two type of transfusion reaction are?
hemolytic reactions could be?
Non-Immune mediated hemolysis
The two types of Immediate hemolytic reactions are?
Rupture of the cell within the blood stream with subsequent liberation of hemoglobin into the plasma is?
removal of red cells from the blood stream by cells of the reticuloendothelial system (RE) is?
The most common cause of Acute Hemolytic reaction - intravascular is?
rapid hemolysis of as little as ________ of ______ can produce patient symptoms of Acute Hemolytic reaction - intravascular
rise in SERUM hemoglobin level
The most common cause of ________ is transfusion of blood containing the antigen to which a patient has ______?
Extravascular Hemolytic reaction
atypical IgG antibody
Delayed hemolytic reaction is most often seen in patient with ________ blood group system?, but may also be seen in?
Duffy, Kell, MNS, Rh
Transfusion related Sepsis
Febrile, non hemolytic transfusion reaction
are all examples of?
Non Hemolytic Transfusion reaction
Febrile , Nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
Transfusion related acute lung injury
Transfusion related sepsis may be confused with _______ and caused by ______blood products?
FNHTR / bacterial contaminated
The most common type of REPORTED transfusion reaction is?
FNHTR - Febrile, non hemolytic transfusion raction
which transfusion reaction is defined as the occurence of ≥ 1C rise in temperature above 37C, associated with transfusion , for which no other cause is identifiable ?
Second most frequent type reaction with most being mild. Can range from simple urticary or rash or sever as in anaphylaxis?
which transfusion reaction can be life threatening or fatal with symptoms accruing within 6 hour of transfusion with most being evident within 1 or 2 hours
________ and ________ antibodies in blood component have been associated with TRALI ?
HLA I, II
Which complication frequently can be confused with TRALI due to the symptoms of pulmonary edema and it is possible for both to accure in the same patient ?
TACO - circulatory overload
To prevent TA-GVHD blood components must be ____ ?
with premature or critically ill infants a major reason for transfusion can be______?
iatrogenic blood loss
fetal red cells at birth have ____lifespan, and have _____ Hemoglobin ____?
Full term infants have an average blood volume of approximately ?
premature infants have have an average blood volume of approximately ?
Infant transfusion volume from ____ of ____?
in adult ________ response may be see in ____ where as in infants it might take ______?
Blood for infant transfusion must be______ utilizing __ C blood warmers, to avoid ____?
Blood for infant transfusion must be?
Crassmatch compatible with the mother
Hemoglobion S negative
Blood for infant transfusion must be fresh to avoid ?
If the donor blood for the transfusion of infant is NOT O negative, then the donor type selected must be ______ with _______ blood type.
mother and baby
If the mother or baby exhibiting a positive antibody screen a ___________ is required for _________ and the donor blood selected must _______?
Full coombs crassmatch
mother and baby
lack the offending antigen
In neonates, symptomatic anemia, specifically venous hemoglobin less the 13 in first 24h is the major indicator for?
when platelet count is low, neonates are at risk of?
Hemolytic disease of new borns
HDN is present when fetal red blood cells are coated with ?
maternal IgG antibody
the 3 categories of HDN are?
____ is the most
type, usually caused by _______ ?
IgG maternal anti-D
in Rh HDN we sometime see an anti-D along with?
anti -C and anti -E
The most common type of HDN seen occuring in 1 in 5 (20%) of all pregnancies is?
ABO HDN is caused by?
IgG maternal anti-A and anti-B
When the placenta is separated and passed , a small amount of fetal red blood cells enters maternal circulation. this is refereed to as?
Fetal-Maternal Hemorrhafe (FMH)
FMH occurs is ___ of ____ pregnancies?
a woman can be "sensitized" or produce antibody with FMH of only ___ of foreign fetal RBC?
at 40 weeks the ___ level in cord blood is ____ than the maternal level
the problem of HDN in utero is that the fetal RBC destruction can cause severe ____?
The main organ of concern in the fetus in HDN in utero is the?
when the fetal spleen and liver enlarged from clearing destroyed RBC from the circulation, this condition is known as?
immature fetal RBC are produced in form of?
reticulocytes and nucleated RBC
Normal Pre-term Hemoglobin is?
15.9 ± 2.4 gm/dL
Normal cord blood hemoglobin is?
16.9 ± 1.6 mg/dL
byproduct of destroyed fetal RBC is
newborns are not able to excrete unconjugated bilirubin because the liver has very low levels of?
when unbound, unconjugated bilirubin diffuses to body fluids and tends to collect and remain permanently in_____ leading to condition
brain tissue cells
antibody which is produced or stimulated by a foreign antigen which the host lack is?
an antibody directed against an antigen(s) present on the cell of the same person of host is?
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Name types of Auto antibody?
85% of total involving auto antibodies reacting at 37C and Coombs - the most sever type is?
_____ is 15% of total involving auto antibody reacting at 4C also referred to as ____?
CAD ( cold aglutinin disease )
Blood group systems that we are testing for are?
Rh blood group system is composed of?
Anti: C, c, D, E, e Cw, V
Kell blood group system is composed of?
anti: K, k, Kp
Duffy blood group system consists of?
Kidd blood group system consists of?
Lewis blood group system contain which antigens?
P blood group system consists of which antigens?
P, P1, Pk, Tja(P+P1+Pk)
I blood group system contains which antigens?
I and i
Lutheran blood group system is composed of which antigens?
The immunogenicity of the ____ is greater then all of the antigens studied?
Cw antigen is present in ___ of population.
people who have Rh genes but express no Rh antigen on the red blood cell are sad to be of what type?
Most Rh antibodies are _____ and _______ complement
DO NOT activate
which blood group system antibody typically exhibit "Dosage effect"?
Donor test for Rh status requires that a unit labeled as Rh negative must have ______ performed
Weak D test
which blood group system is not manufactured or synthesized by the RBC or a part of the RBC membrane, but passively absorbed onto red cell membrane from the plasma ?
Lewis ( Les, Leb)
Antigens of Lewis system are ______ and present in?
saliva and plasma
Lewis blood group substance is composed of hte same common precursor as the?
antigens of what blood group system are poorly developed at birth, become weaker in pregnancy?
Lewis (Lea, Leb)
which antibody is known to be frequently troublesome in blood bank?
which antibodies are:
Generally IgM and capable of binding complement.
Saline reactive at 37C
Naturally occurring, and common in pregnancies
Most common antibody in Blacks is?
Leb and H antigens are receptors of?
Leb and type 1 H antigens are receptors for?
which phenotype is associated with an increased susceptibility to infections by Candida and uropathogenic E.Coli?
Which antigen is considered universal, present on 100% of adult human RBCs and present on chromosome gp34
which antigen is is virtually non detected on adult RBC but HIGHLY present on Infant and cord blood?
Which antibody is though to be dangerous as it can mask other warm and clinically significant antibodies?
which antibody is known to be rare, but when present will only strongly with cord cells and negative with adult cells?
which antibody reacts strongly with O cells and A2 cells?
which antibody can interfere with ABO typing, antibody screening, and compatibility testing?
auto anti I
which antibody can be neutralized with, brast milk, urine, amniotic fluid?
which antibody can be neutralized with hydatid cyst fluid or extracts of certain warms and liver flukes
Pk+, P- people often have strong ______?
IgM anti P1
Paroxismal Cold hemoglobinuria is observed in people of _______ phenotype in which they have ______ .
Cold auto anti P1
in Peroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria auto anti P1 is _____ and not ______
which antibody is known as Donath - Landsteiner?
auto anti P1
PCH is an example of _____ autoimmune hemolytic anemia and is seen in children with ______
people with rape p phenotype often make a ______ hemolytic antibody known as___-?
which antigen is the receptor for shiga toxin, parvovirus B19?
which antigen only present at birth, very antigenic only present on RBC , and its precursor also present on macrophages neutrophils, and phagocytic cells
Kell antibodies are ______ antibody and capble of causing ______
warm reactive IgG
Kell antibody is optimally reactive at ______ and ________ enhance their reactivity or degrade antigen
Enzymes DO NOT
Kell antibodies destroy RBC by _____ destruction?
rare phenotypes of the Kell system are?
Chronic Granulomatous disease, is a rear sex linked disorder only affecting ____ where there is lack of _____antigen on membrain of neutrophils and monocytes
Blacks are predominantly ?
most frequent of the Fy antibodies, may cause sever transfusion reaction
anti Fy3 reacts with ___, but not _____
reacts best at Coombs, Not destroyed by Enzyme.
____ present in 99.9% of Jka+or b+
Seen more often in Pacific population, Hawaiin, Philippino and Asian.
which blood group system is notorious for delayed hemolytic reactions
shoes dosage effect, good complement binders, enhanced with enzymes, IgG immune stimulated coombs reactive ?
_____ antigen in _____ blood system is knonw asn High Frequancy antigen >99.9% of population?