Blood Final

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Blood Final
2015-05-17 19:28:25
blood final

blood final
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  1. The flow rate or period of time to administer components must be?
  2. patients blood sample must be carefully collected _______ prier to transfusion ?
  3. If antibody scree test is POSITIVE what must be performed?
    FULL Coombs crass match
  4. red Cell transfusion must be completed within _____ of the time issued from the blood bank?
  5. Any untoward reaction occurring during or after the infusion of blood or blood components resulting from antigen-antibody reaction is known as?
    Transfusion reaction
  6. the two type of transfusion reaction are?
    • Hemolytic
    • Non hemolytic
  7. hemolytic reactions could be?
    • Immediate
    • Delayed 
    • Non-Immune mediated hemolysis
  8. The two types of Immediate hemolytic reactions are?
    • Intravascular
    • Extravascular
  9. Rupture of the cell within the blood stream with subsequent liberation of hemoglobin into the plasma is?
    Intravascular destruction
  10. removal of red cells from the blood stream by cells of the reticuloendothelial system (RE) is?
    extravascular destruction
  11. The most common cause of Acute Hemolytic reaction - intravascular is?
    ABO incompatibility
  12. rapid hemolysis of as little as ________ of ______ can produce patient symptoms of Acute Hemolytic reaction - intravascular
    • 10mL
    • incompatible blood
  13. Hemoglobinemia is?
    rise in SERUM hemoglobin level
  14. The most common cause of ________ is transfusion of blood containing the antigen to which a patient has ______?
    • Extravascular Hemolytic reaction 
    • atypical IgG antibody
  15. Delayed hemolytic reaction is most often seen in patient with ________ blood group system?, but may also be seen in?
    • Kidd (Jk)
    • Duffy, Kell, MNS, Rh
  16. Transfusion related Sepsis
    Febrile, non hemolytic transfusion reaction
    Allergic reaction
    are all examples of?
    Non Hemolytic Transfusion reaction
  17. FNHTR is?
    Febrile , Nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
  18. TRALI is?
    Transfusion related acute lung injury
  19. TACO is?
    Circulatory overload
  20. Transfusion related sepsis may be confused with _______ and caused by ______blood products?
    FNHTR / bacterial contaminated
  21. The most common type of REPORTED transfusion reaction is?
    FNHTR - Febrile, non hemolytic transfusion raction
  22. which transfusion reaction is defined as the occurence of ≥ 1C rise in temperature above 37C, associated with transfusion , for which no other cause is identifiable ?
  23. Second most frequent type reaction with most being mild. Can range from simple urticary or rash or sever as in anaphylaxis?
    Allergic reaction
  24. which transfusion reaction can be life threatening or fatal with symptoms accruing within 6 hour of transfusion  with most being evident within 1 or 2 hours
  25. ________ and ________ antibodies in blood component have been associated with TRALI ?
    • HLA I, II 
    • Neutrophil (HNA)
  26. Which complication frequently can be confused with TRALI due to the symptoms of pulmonary edema and it is possible for both  to accure in the same patient ?
    TACO - circulatory overload
  27. To prevent TA-GVHD blood components must be ____ ?
  28. with premature or critically ill infants a major reason for transfusion can be______?
    iatrogenic blood loss
  29. fetal red cells at birth have ____lifespan, and have _____ Hemoglobin ____?
    • 45-70 days
    • 53-95% F
  30. Full term infants have an average blood volume of approximately ?
  31. premature infants have  have an average blood volume of approximately ?
  32. Infant transfusion volume from ____ of ____?
    • 12-30mL
    • packed RBC
  33. in adult ________ response may be see in ____ where as in infants it might take ______?
    • reticulocyte
    • 4-6 days
    • 2-3 weeks
  34. Blood for infant transfusion must be______ utilizing __ C blood warmers, to avoid ____?
    • pre-warmed 
    • 37C
    • cold stress
  35. Blood for infant transfusion must be?
    • Fresh
    • Crassmatch compatible with the mother
    • CMV negativ
    • Irradiated
    • Hemoglobion S negative
  36. Blood for infant transfusion must be fresh to avoid ?
    excess potassium
  37. If the donor blood for the transfusion of infant is NOT O negative, then the donor type selected must be ______ with _______ blood type.
    • compatible 
    • mother and baby
  38. If the mother or baby exhibiting a positive antibody screen a ___________ is required for _________ and the donor blood selected must _______?
    • Full coombs crassmatch 
    • mother and baby
    • lack the offending antigen
  39. In neonates, symptomatic anemia, specifically venous hemoglobin less the 13 in first 24h is the major indicator for?
    Simple transfusion
  40. when platelet count is low, neonates are at risk of?
    intracranial hemorrhage
  41. HDN is?
    Hemolytic disease of new borns
  42. HDN is present when fetal red blood cells are coated with ?
    maternal IgG antibody
  43. the 3 categories of HDN are?
    • Rh
    • "other"
    • ABO
  44. ____ is the most common and severe type, usually caused by _______ ?
    • Rh HDN
    • IgG maternal anti-D
  45. in Rh HDN we sometime see an anti-D along with?
    anti -C and anti -E
  46. The most common type of HDN seen occuring in 1 in 5 (20%) of all pregnancies is?
    ABO type
  47. ABO HDN is caused by?
    IgG maternal anti-A and anti-B
  48. When the placenta is separated and passed , a small amount of fetal red blood cells enters maternal circulation. this is refereed to as?
    Fetal-Maternal Hemorrhafe (FMH)
  49. FMH occurs is ___ of ____ pregnancies?
    • 2%
    • Rh negative
  50. a woman can be "sensitized" or produce antibody with FMH of only ___ of foreign fetal RBC?
  51. at 40 weeks the ___ level in cord blood is ____ than the maternal level
    • IgG
    • 20-30% higher
  52. the problem of HDN in utero is that the fetal RBC destruction can cause severe ____?
  53. The main organ of concern in the fetus in HDN in utero is the?
  54. when the fetal spleen and liver enlarged from clearing destroyed RBC  from the circulation, this condition is known as?
  55. immature fetal RBC are produced in form of?
    reticulocytes and nucleated RBC
  56. Normal Pre-term Hemoglobin is?
    15.9 ± 2.4 gm/dL
  57. Normal cord blood hemoglobin is?
    16.9 ± 1.6 mg/dL
  58. byproduct of destroyed fetal RBC is
    unconjugated bilirubin
  59. newborns are not able to excrete unconjugated bilirubin because the liver has very low levels of?
    glucronyltransferase enzime
  60. when unbound, unconjugated bilirubin diffuses to body fluids and tends to collect and remain permanently in_____ leading to condition
    • brain tissue cells
  61. antibody which is produced or stimulated by a foreign antigen which the host lack is?
    allo antibody
  62. an antibody directed against an antigen(s) present on the cell of the same person of host is?
    Auto antibody
  63. AIHA is?
    Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  64. Name types of Auto antibody?
    • Warm AIHA
    • Cold AIHA
    • Drug induced 
    • harmless
  65. 85% of total involving auto antibodies reacting at 37C and Coombs - the most sever type is?
    Warm AIHA
  66. _____ is 15% of total involving auto antibody reacting at 4C also referred to as ____?
    • Cold AIHA
    • CAD ( cold aglutinin disease )
  67. Blood group systems that we are testing for are?
    • Rh
    • I
    • Kell
    • Duffy
    • Kidd
    • Lewis
    • P
    • MNSs
    • Lutheran
  68. Rh blood group system is composed of?
    Anti: C, c, D, E, e Cw, V
  69. Kell blood group system is composed of?
    anti: K, k, Kpa, Kpb, Jsa, Jsb
  70. Duffy blood group system consists of?
    anti Fya, Fyb
  71. Kidd blood group system consists of?
    anti: Jk, Jkb
  72. Lewis blood group system contain which antigens?
    Lea, Leb
  73. P blood group system consists of which antigens?
    P, P1, Pk, Tja(P+P1+Pk)
  74. I blood group system contains which antigens?
    I and i
  75. Lutheran blood group system is composed of which antigens?
    Lua, Lub
  76. The immunogenicity of the ____ is greater then all of the antigens studied?
    D antigen
  77. Cw antigen is present in ___ of population.
    2 %
  78. people who have Rh genes but express no Rh antigen on the red blood cell are sad to be of what type?
    Rh Null
  79. Most Rh antibodies are _____ and _______ complement
    • IgG
    • DO NOT activate
  80. which blood group system antibody typically exhibit "Dosage effect"?
  81. Donor test for Rh status requires that a unit labeled as Rh negative must have ______ performed
    Weak D test
  82. which blood group system is not manufactured or synthesized by the RBC or a part of the RBC membrane, but passively absorbed onto red cell membrane from the plasma ?
    Lewis ( Les, Leb)
  83. Antigens of Lewis system are ______ and present in?
    • soluble
    • saliva and plasma
  84. Lewis blood group substance is composed of hte same common precursor as the?
  85. antigens of what blood group system are poorly developed at birth, become weaker in pregnancy?
    Lewis (Lea, Leb)
  86. which antibody is known to be frequently troublesome in blood bank?
  87. which antibodies are:
    Generally IgM and capable of binding complement.
    Saline reactive at 37C
    Naturally occurring, and common in pregnancies
  88. Most common antibody in Blacks is?
  89. Leb and H antigens are receptors of?
    H pylori
  90. Leb and type 1 H antigens are receptors for?
    Norwalk virus
  91. which phenotype is associated with an increased susceptibility to infections by Candida and uropathogenic E.Coli?
  92. Which antigen is considered universal, present on  100% of adult human RBCs and present on chromosome gp34
  93. which antigen is is virtually non detected on adult RBC but HIGHLY present on Infant and cord blood?
  94. Which antibody is though to be dangerous as it can mask other warm and clinically significant antibodies?
    anti I
  95. which antibody is known to be rare, but when present will only strongly with cord cells and negative with adult cells?
  96. which antibody reacts strongly with O cells and A2 cells?
    anti IH
  97. which antibody can interfere with ABO typing, antibody screening, and compatibility testing?
    auto anti I
  98. which antibody can be neutralized with, brast milk, urine, amniotic fluid?
  99. which antibody can be neutralized with hydatid cyst fluid or extracts of certain warms and liver flukes
    anti P1
  100. Pk+, P- people often have strong ______?
    IgM anti P1
  101. Paroxismal Cold hemoglobinuria is observed in people of _______ phenotype in which they have ______ .
    • Pk+, P- 
    • Cold auto anti P1
  102. in Peroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria auto anti P1 is _____ and not ______
  103. which antibody is known as Donath - Landsteiner?
    auto anti P1
  104. PCH is an example of _____ autoimmune hemolytic anemia and is seen in children with ______
    • COLD
    • Viral Infections
  105. people with rape p phenotype often make a ______ hemolytic antibody known as___-?
    • strong IgM
    • anti Tja
  106. which  antigen is the receptor for shiga toxin, parvovirus B19?
  107. which antigen only present at birth, very antigenic only present on RBC , and its precursor also present on macrophages neutrophils, and phagocytic cells
    Kell antigen
  108. Kell antibodies are ______ antibody and capble of causing ______
    • warm reactive IgG
    • HDNB
  109. Kell antibody is optimally reactive at ______ and   ________ enhance their reactivity or degrade antigen
    • Coombd
    • Enzymes DO NOT
  110. Kell antibodies destroy RBC by _____ destruction?
  111. rare phenotypes of the Kell system are?
    • Ko
    • McLeod
  112. Chronic Granulomatous disease, is a rear sex linked disorder only affecting ____ where there is lack of _____antigen on membrain of neutrophils and monocytes
    • male
    • Kx
  113. Blacks are predominantly ?
  114. most frequent of the Fy antibodies, may cause sever transfusion reaction
    anti Fya
  115. anti Fy3 reacts with ___, but not _____
    reacts best at Coombs, Not destroyed by Enzyme.
    • Fya+b+ 
    • Fya-b-
  116. ____ present in 99.9% of Jka+or b+
  117. Seen more often in Pacific population, Hawaiin, Philippino and Asian.
    Jk(a-, b-)
  118. which blood group system is notorious for delayed hemolytic reactions
    shoes dosage effect, good complement binders, enhanced with enzymes, IgG immune stimulated coombs reactive  ?
  119. _____ antigen in _____ blood system is knonw asn High Frequancy antigen >99.9% of population?
    • U antigen
    • MNSsU system