Biochemistry Summer

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Marine
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303392
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Biochemistry Summer
Updated:
2015-06-14 05:45:40
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biochemistry biochem
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biochem
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Biochemistry summer credit
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  1. The amino acid which melanin is produced from is:
    a. lysine
    b. tryptophan
    c. tyrosine
    d. arginine
     
    c. tyrosine - from phenylanine
  2. Which are part of the ketone bodies?
    a. beta hyuluronic acid
    b. beta hydroxy butyrate
    c. acetoacetate
    d. acetone
     
    • b. beta hydroxy butyrate - energy source after starvation
    • c. acetoacetate energy source after starvation
    • d. acetone - exhaled via lungs
    • all formed by acetyl coA
  3. Which markers is specifically for the heart:
    a. lactate dehydrogenase (LDH1 : LDH2)
    b. troponin T (cTnT)
    c. troponin I (cTnI)
    d. creatine kinase (CK1)
    e. myoglobin
    f. aspartate transaminase
    g. glycogen phosphorylase isoenzyme BB (GPBB)
    h. Ischemia modified albumin (IMA)
    • All
    • a. lactase dehydrogenase (LDH1: LDH2) - when LDH1 is higher shows myocardial infarction
    • b. troponin T (cTnT) - most sensitive and most specific
    • c. troponin I (cTnI) - most sensitive and specific
    • d. creatine kinase (CK10) - can also indicate skeletal muscle damage
    • e. myoglobin - muscle tissue damage in general 
    • f. aspartate transaminase (AST) - also for liver function
    • g. glycogen phosphorylase isoenzyme BB (GPBB) - not yet in use
    • h. ischemia modified albumin (IMA) - binds less cobalt than normal
  4. Thyroxine (T4) is formed by condensation of two molecules of:
    diiodotyrosine
  5. Most active form of thyroid hormone:
    a. T3 (thyronine) - most potent
    b. T4 (thyroxine) - most synthesized
    a. T3 (thyronine)
  6. Metabolic acidosis is not caused because of:
    a. vomiting
    b. intensive muscular work
    c. starvation
    d. diabetes
    e. renal failure
    f. ethanol
    g. diarrhea
    h. burns
    i. diuretics
    a. vomiting
  7. Catecholamines are degraded using:
    a. monoamine oxidase
    b. norepinephrine
    • All
    • a. monoamine-oxidase
    • b. norepinephrine ->vanillylmandelic acid (degradation) i. catecholamine o methyltransferase ii. monoamine oxidase iii. aldehyde dehydrogenase
  8. Cytokines represent an important component of the communication between cells of the immune response to potential pathogens. Their function is antagonistic which means that:
    a. one cytokine negates activity of an other
    b. one cytokine increases the effect of an other
    c. more than one cytokine has the same effect
    d. one cytokine activated more than one cell line
    a. one cytokine negates activity of an other - antagonistic

    • b. one cytokine increases the effect of an other - synergistic 
    • c. more than one cytokine has the same effect - redundant
    • d. one cytokine activated more than one cell line - pleirotropic
  9. Macrophages:
    a. present to T cells using HLA class 2
    b. phagocytotic cells
    • All
    • a. present to T cells using HLA class 2
    • b. phagocytotic
  10. Prions:
    a. indigestible proteins
    b. proteinaceous infectious particles that cause fatal degenerative disorders
    • All
    • a. indigestible by proteases - circumvent normal intestinal absorption by passing into gut associated lymphoid tissue directly (not broken down)
    • b. proteinaceous infectious particles that cause neurodegenerative disorder
  11. Glycerol from triacylglycerol (TGA):
    a. free of adipocytes
    b. adipose tissue is store of triglycerols
    • a. free of adipocytes
    • b. adipose tissue is a store of triaglycerols
  12. Which of the following substances provides the acidic pH of skin?
    a. lactic acid
    b. carbonic acid
    c. hyaluronic acid
    d. proton pump
    • a. lactic acid
    • b. carbonic acid - found in plasma to transport CO
    • c. hyaluronic acid - provides fluid environment
    • d. proton pump - found in bone to dissolve bone salts in resorption
  13. α-Amylase is found in the:
    a. pancreatic juice
    b. synovial fluid 
    c. serum
    d. gastric juice
    e. saliva
    • a. pancreatic juice
    • e. saliva - yes but it is not essential to life
  14. Nitric oxide (nitrogen monoxide) is generated from:
    a. aspartate
    b. asparagine
    c. alanine
    d. arginine
    d. arginine->citrulline
  15. Which neurotransmitter belong to biogenic amines?
    a. beta endorphins
    b. dopamine
    c. acetylcholine
    d. adenosine
    b. dopamine - tyrosine->dopa->dopamine->norepinephrine->epinephrine
  16. Which of the following does not belong to the effects of growth hormone?
    a. decreased lipolysis 
    b. increased proteosynthesis
    c. hyperglycemic effect
    d. increased ketogenesis
    a. decreased lipolysis - insulin acts on this
  17. The major aldosterone carrier in blood is:
    a. sex hormone binding globulin
    b. cortisol binding globulin (transcortin)
    c. serum albumin
    d. androgen binding protein
    • c. serum albumin
    •  
    • a. sex hormone binding globulin - testosterone + estrogen
    • b. cortisol binding globulin (transcortin) - binds 70% cortisol + 10% aldosterone
    • d. androgen binding protein - testosterone
  18. AMP-activated protein kinase:
    a. decreases the fatty acid beta oxidation by acetyl CoA carboxylase activation - increased beta oxidation by stopping inhibition of Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase 1
    b. inhibits anabolic processes and activates the catabolic ones - from ATP using to ATP forming
    c. decreases the fatty acid beta oxidation by acetyl CoA carboxylase inhibition - increased beta oxidation by stopping inhibition of carnitine palmitoyl transferase 1
    d. inhibits catabolic processes and activates anabolic ones - from ATP forming to ATP using
    b. inhibits anabolic processes and activates the catabolic ones - from ATP using to ATP forming
  19. Fibrin clot formation requires:
    a. Mg²⁺
    b. plasmin
    c. heparin
    d. Ca²⁺ 
    • d. Ca²⁺ - factor 4 coagulation cascade
    •  
    • b. plasmin - fibrinolysis
    • c. heparin - heparin sulfate inhibit thrombin function
  20. The kidneys decrease the internal acidity mainly by excreting:
    a. bicarbonate
    b. lactate
    c. dihydrogen phosphate
    d. sulphate
    • d. sulphate
    •  
    • a. bicarbonate - reabsorbed from filtration (not excreted as it is the main buffer in ECM)
    • b. lactate - usually fully metabolized so is not excreted 
    • c. dihydrogen phosphate - buffer of urine
  21. Which pathway is activated by insulin?
    a. synthesis of fatty acids 
    b. gluconeogenesis
    c. degradation of glycogen
    d. lipolysis
    a. synthesis of fatty acids
  22. The secretion of glucagon is not stimulated by:
    a. decreased concentration of glucose
    b. increased concentration of amino acids
    c. increased concentration of glucose
    d. decreased concentration of insulin
    c. increased concentration of glucose
  23. Which process accompanies the light absorption in the photoreceptors?
    a. decrease amount of cAMP
    b. increased amount cAMP
    c. decreased amount cGMP 
    d. increased amount cGMP
    • c. decreased amount of cGMP - cGMP broken down in the light
    •  
    • d. increased amount cGMP - cGMP is high in the dark
  24. What are foam cells?
    a. dieing endothelium
    b. something with mast
    c. neutrophil that overripe LDL
    d. macrophage that destroy/engulf LDL
    d. macrophages that destroy/engulf LDL - macrophages engorged with lipid found in atherosclerotic plaques
  25. A marker of progression of atherosclerosis:
    a. apolipoprotein(a)
    b. plasminogen
    c. vitamin H
    d. LDH
    • a. apolipoproteins(a) - competes with plasminogen causing reduced fibrinolysis and increased clotting covalently links to lipoprotein(a); Lp(a) binds to LDL, calcium etc. to form atherosclerotic plaque
    •  
    • b. plasminogen->plasmin->fibrinolysis
    • c. vitamin H (biotin) - used for carboxylation (decreased muscle pain/inhibit hair greying/improve nail quality/helps skin diseases)
    • d. LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) - marker for myocardial infarction
  26. What is not organ-specific autoimmune disease?
    a. Graves-Basedow 
    b. DM type 1 
    c. rheumatoid arthritis
    d. systemic lupus erythemoatodes
    e. scleroderma 
    f. Sjorgren's syndrome 
    g. Goodpasture syndrome 
    h. Wegener's granulomatosis
    i. polymyalgia rhematic
    • c. rheumatoid arthritis - joints/lung/skin
    • d. systemic lupus erythemoatodes - multiorgan
    • e. scleroderma - connective tissue
    • f. Sjogren's syndrome - salivary glands/lacrimal glands/joints
    • d. Goodpasture syndrome - lung/kidneys
    • h. Wegener's granulomatosis - lungs/kidneys
    • i. polymyalgia rheumatic - stiff muscles
    •  
    • a. Graves-Basedow - thyroid
    • b. DM type 1 - pancreatic islets
  27. What causes metabolic alkalosis?
    a. the loss pf chloride (Cl⁻)
    b. hypoxia
    c. diabetes
    d. shit
    e. loss of H⁺
    f. increase in HCO₃⁻
    g. loss of K⁺ 
    • a. the loss of chloride (Cl⁻) - diuretics
    • e. loss of H⁺ - vomiting
    • f. increase in HCO₃⁻
    • g. loss of K⁺ - diuretics
  28. Insulin is:
    a. dimer
    b. polymer
    c. some drivel
    d. 4 insulins join with zine to form a hexamer
    • a. dimer - 2 polypeptide chains joined by disulphide bridges (84AA->51AA)
    • d. 4 insulins join with zine to form a hexamer
  29. The system by which osteoclasts lower the pH for degradation of inorganic matrix of bone is:
    a. production of carbonic acid
    b. production of pyruvic acid
    c. a proton pump
    d. production of malic acid
    c. proton pump - vacuolar ATPase/carbonic anhydrase proton pumps
  30. The most common type of local regulation of blood flow:
    a. alpha adrenogenic receptors
    b. vasoconstriction due to NO
    c. myogenic response 
    d. chemoreceptors
    • c. myogenic regulation - arteriolar constriction in response to vessel stretching
    •  
    • a. alpha adrenergic receptors - vasoconstriction
    • b. vasoconstriction due to NO - vasodilator
  31. What does the liver not make:
    a. maintaining glucose - glycogen stores
    b. immunoglobulins - plasma cells
    c. detoxification + elimination
    d. still some crap... 
    b. immunoglobulins - plasma cells
  32. Pheochromocytoma is the tumor of:
    a. adrenal glands
    b. pancreas
    c. thyroid gland
    d. GI tract
    a. adrenal glands
  33. Which glucose transporters are insulin dependent?
    a. GLUT 4
    b. GLUT 1
    c. GLUT 2
    d. GLUT 3
    e. GLUT 5
    • a. GLUT 4
    •  
    • b. GLUT 1 - passive movement of glucose into the cells, barrier endothelial cells _ erythrocytes
    • c. GLUT 2 - passive movement of glucose in or out of the cell/ found in pancreatic beta cells/liver/kidney.serosal cells of GIT as a receptor for glucose levels in blood
    • d. GLUT 3 - passive movement of glucose into the cell, brain neurons
    • e. GLUT 5 - can't transport any saccharide but prefers fructose, intestinal epithelium/spermatozoa
  34. In oxyhemoglobin the iron:
    a. doesn't change its valence and stays in Fe²⁺ state
    b. changes its valence to Fe³⁺
    • a. doesn't change its valence and stays in Fe²⁺ state
    • b. changes its valence to Fe³⁺ - Methemoglobin is only time it changes to Fe³⁺
  35. What is not true:
    a. glycerol has 3 OH groups
    b. acetic anhydride is not a substitutional derivative of carboxylic acid 
    c. Malate's OH group is reduced to form oxaloacetate 
    c. Malate's OH group is reduced to form oxaloacetate - malate is OXIDISED to form oxaloacetate
  36. Ligand binding to membrane receptors is associated with activity of which enzymes:
    a. protein kinase A - adenylyl cyclase->cAMP
    b. CaM kinase (Ca²⁺/calmodulin dependent protein kinase) - phospholipase C ->IP3
    c. protein kinase C - phospholipaseC->DAG
    d. MAP kinase (mitogen activated protein kinase)
    e. protein kinase B
    All the kinases :)
  37. pH values at physiological state
    a. 7.40 +/- 0.04
    b. 4.8 - 8.0
    • a. 7.40 +/- 0.04 = 7.36 - 7.44 in blood
    •  
    • b. 4.8 - 8.0 in urine (?)
  38. Vitamin K is an important cofactor participating in:
    a. glutamic acid carboxylation
    b. found in coagulation factors 2, 7, 9a and 10 as well as protein C and S
    c. causes coagulation - used as antidote to anticoagulants
    a. glutamic acid carboxylation - acts as cofactor
  39. The cofactor for prolyl hydroxylase and lysyl hydroxylase is:
    a. vitamin K 
    b. Cu
    c. Fe²⁺
    d. vitamin A (retinol) - visual pigments in retina
    e. vitamin C
    f. alpha ketoglutarate
    g. O₂
    • c. Fe²⁺
    • e. vitamin C
    • f. alpha ketoglutarate
    • g. O₂

    • a. vitamin K - cofactor in carboxylation of glutamic acid
    • b. Cu - cytochrome oxidase
    • d. vitamin A(retinol) - visual pigments in retina
  40. What is not an intermediate of epinephrine?
    a. serotonin
    b. tyrosine
    • a. serotonin - intermediate in synthesis of melatonin and hydroxy indole acetic acid
    •  
    • b. phenylalanine->tyrosine->DOPA->dopamine->norepinephrine->epinephrine
  41. NADH transport through malate shuttle yields:
    a. 2.5 ATPs
    b. 1.5 ATPs
    c. 30-32
    • a. 2.5 ATPs - malate aspartate shuttle with 1 mole NADH
    •  
    • b. 1.5 ATPs - glycerol phosphate shuttle with 1 mole NADH/1 mole FADH₂
    • c. 30-32 - whole respiratory chain
  42. Which AA is needed for serotonin synthesis?
    a. tryptophan
    b. tyrosine
    a. tryptophan->hydroxytryptophan->hydroxytryptamine/serotonin->N acetyl serotonin->melatonin
  43. What is not true about pathologic amyloid structure:
    a. converts from beta to alpha conformation
    b. contains many beta sheets giving it a fibrillary structure instead of globular structure
    c. each fibril is made of 2-6 straight unbranched protofilaments
    e. misfolded protein is very stable
    a. converts from beta to alpha conformation
  44. What has ATPase activity:
    a. myosin globular head
    b. sarco plasmic reticulum Ca²⁺ pumps 
    c. plasma membrane Na⁺/K⁺ exchanger = sodium pumps
    d. H⁺ pump in distal tubules of kidney
    a. myosin globular head = actin myosin ATPase
  45. What is true about enzyme multisubstrate ordered type of mechanism:
    a. forms ternary complex
    b. binding of A is required before binding of B
    c. 2 substrates can bind in any order - random mechanism
    • a. forms ternary complex
    • b. binding of A is required before binding of B
  46. What is not true about xenobiotics:
    a. they can diffuse freely across cell's membrane
    b. chemical compounds foreign to the body
    c. the lipids and phospholipids in the membrane five the membrane a high absorption ability
    d. are metabolized in 2 phases which aim to make them more water soluble i. hydroxylation using cytochrome p450 ii. conjugation with hydrophilic compounds
    a. they can diffuse freely across cell's membrane - depends on properties of molecule i. free diffusion ii. facilitated diffusion iii. active transport iv. endocytosis
  47. What is formed by oxidation glc on C6?
    a. glucuronic acid
    b. gluconic acid
    c. fructose
    • a. glucuronic acid
    •  
    • b. gluconic - oxidation at C1
    • c. fructose - isomerization
  48. Defensins are:
    a. polpeptide produced by neutrophils
    b. platelets something
    c. from leukocytes
    d. from erythrocytes
    e. cationic peptides containing cystein/ arginine which interact with anion lipids in bacterial walls to form pores
    f. can inhibit synthesis of DNA and proteins
    g. part of oxygen independent degradation in phagocytotic vesicles
    • a. polypeptides neutrophils
    • c. from leukocytes - yes because neutrophils are granulocytes which are leukocytes
    • e. cationic peptides containing cystein/ arginine which interact with anion lipids in bacterial walls to form pores
    • f. can inhibit synthesis of DNA and proteinsg. part of oxygen independent degradation in phagocytotic vesicles
  49. Choline contains what group?
    a. they fooled around with pink stuff as a secondary ammonium, not to be confused
    b. is a quarternary amine (N bound 4 different C groups) = quaternary amine salt
    c. there is hydroxyl(-OH)
    d. found in phospholipids
    e. is a cation +ve due to N⁺
    • b. is a quarternary amine (N bound 4 different C groups) = quaternary amine salt
    • c. there is hydroxyl(-OH)
    • d. found in phospholipids
    • e. is a cation +ve due to N⁺
  50. What kind of enzyme degrades acetylcholine?
    a. monoamine oxidase
    b. acetylcholine esterase
    c. choline acetyltransferase
    d. acetate-CoA ligase
    b. acetylcholinesterase 
  51. Motif EF-hands is characteristic for binding proteins:
    a. align forefinger and thumb whilst pointing = alpha helix E and F respectively and other curled fingers are loop around Ca²⁺
    b. calcium
    c. ferrous
    d. selenious
    e. magnesium cations
    b. calcium
  52. What is the active form of vitamin D?
    a. cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) 
    b. 25 OH vitamin D
    c. 1,25 OH vitamins D levels
    d. 7-dehydrocholesterol
    • c. 1,25 OH vitamin D levels - active hormone
    •  
    • a. cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) - transported from skin to liver
    • b. 25 OH vitamin D - transported from liver to kidneys
    • d. 7-dehydrocholesterol - found in skin and converted using UV light
  53. The first substrate of pentose phosphate pathway:
    3x glucose-6-phosphate ->3x ribulose 5 phosphate (C5)->...->fructose 6 phosphate + glyceraldehyde
  54. Cytochrome P450
    a. monoxygenase - cause hydroxylation
    b. dioxygenase
    c. is a source of free radicals in vivo
    d. are important in the 1st step of detoxification of xenobiotics
    e. hemoprotein
    f. wide substrate specificity/most versatile biocatalyst known
    • a. monoxygenase - cause hydroxylation
    • c. is a source of free radicals in vivo
    • d. are important in the 1st step of detoxification of xenobiotics
    • e. hemoprotein
    • f. wide substract specifity/most versatile biocatalyst known
  55. Which metabolic pathway is present in erythrocytes:
    a. synthesis of amino acids 
    b. synthesis of ketone bodies
    c. synthesis of glutathione
    d. synthesis of fatty acids
    e. pentose phosphate pathway
    f. anaerobic glycolysis
    g. production of 2,4 bisphosphoglycerate
    h. NADH cytochrome b5 methemoglobin reductase
    • c. synthesis of glutathione
    • e. pentose phosphate pathway
    • f. anaerobic glycolysis
    • g. production of 2,4 bisphosphoglycerate
    • h. NADH cytochrome b5 methemoglobin reductase
  56. Marker of bone formation:
    a. alkaline phosphatase 
    b. osteocalcin
    c. procollagen 1 extension peptides (P1NP)
    d. urinary calcium
    e. hydroxyproline
    f. urinary pyridinium crosslinks
    • a. alkaline phosphatase - found in the plasma
    • b. osteocalcin - which is synthesized by the osteoblasts and incorperated into the bone matrix
    • c. procollagen 1 extension peptides P1NP - which are cleaved during bone formation
    •  
    • d. urinary calcium corrected for creatine produced by muscle resorption (inaccurate) - degradation
    • e. hydroxyproline results from collagen break down - degradation
    • f. urinary pyridinium crosslinks (found in collagen type 1 also) - degradation
  57. What does not contribute in correcting protein conformation:
    a. chaperones
    b. proteasome
    c. chaperonin
    d. hitones
    • d. histones - used in condensation of DNA
    •  
    • a. chaperones - interact with partially of improperly folded polypeptides
    • b. proteasome - ubiquitine proteasome system (UPS) labels proteins for degradation
    • c. chaperonin - part of molecular chaperon family/provide optimal condiction for correct folding
  58. Regulation of beta oxidation:
    a. different options activators
    b. inhibitors carnitine palmitoyl transferase 1 (CPTI) - carnitine shuttle is affected
    c. peroxisome proliferator activated receptor - promotor to control transcription of genes that code for enzymes involved in beta oxidation
    • b. inhibitors carnitine palmitoyl transferase 1 (CPTI) - carnitine shuttle is affected
    • c. peroxisome proliferator activated receptor - promotor to control transcription of genes that code for enzymes involved in beta oxidation
  59. Chronic effects of diabetes:
    a. non-enzymatic glycation of proteins in ECM
    b. diabetic foot 
    c. diabetic catarachts
    All
  60. Most potent form of thyroid hormone:
    a. thyronine (T3)
    b. thyroxine (T4) 
    • a. thyronine (T3) - most potent
    •  
    • b. thyroxine (T4) - most synthesized
  61. What happens to glycerol after TAG hydrolysis in adipose tissue?
    a. released into blood
    b. fasting state hormone sensitive lipase cleaves TAG->3x FA + 1x glycerol-> blood i. FA bound to albumin oxidized to form energy ii. glycerol used by liver in gluconeogenesis 
    a. released into blood
  62. Antigen presenting cells:
    a. dendritic cells
    b. eosinophils
    c. t lymphocytes
    d. b lymphocytes
    e. macrophages
    All
  63. From what is glucagon not stimulated:
    a. high glucose levels
    b. post absorptive state
    c. starvation
    a. high glucose levels
  64. Ghrelin:
    a. apetite stimulating - orexigenic
    b. acts on GHSR (growth hormone secretagogue receptor)
    c. secreted by stomach
    d. leptin - controls apetite/decreases food intake in laboratory animals
    • a. apetite stimulating - orexigenic
    • b. acts on GHSR (growth hormone secretagogue receptor)
    • c. secreted by stomach
  65. Hormone sensitive lipase:
    a. hydrolysis fat from adipose tissue - released into blood
    b. stimulated by increased levels of glucagon
    Both
  66. Needed for formation of mercapturic acid:
    a. acetyl coA
    b. glutathione
    c. cholesterol
    d. glucoronic acid
    e. coupling of cysteine with aromatic compounds in the liver and excreted in the urine
    • b. glutathione - glutathione S transferase lose glutamate and glycone portion + is acytylated->mercapturic acid
    • e. coupling of cystein with aromatic compounds in the liver and excreted in the urine
  67. What are free radicals:
    a. superoxide O₂⁻
    b. hyperoxide HO₂
    c. hydroxyl radical HO
    d. lipid peroxides LOO
    e. nitric oxide NO
    f. nitrogen dioxide NO₂
    All
  68. CO₂ binds to what in lungs (or sth)=how is CO₂ transported to the lungs:
    a. bound to amino groups as carbamate=carbamino groups
    b. as HCO₃⁻
    c. as dissolved CO₂
    All
  69. Opsonins play a role (coat foreign organism and enhance phagocytosis):
    a. complex 3b
    b. complex 4b
    c. C reactive protein
    d. antibodies
    All
  70. Degradation of glutathione conjugate arises:
    a. mercapturic acid
    b. adipic acid
    c. hippuric acid
    • a. mercapturic acid - glutathione S transferase loses glutamate and glycine portions + is acetylated->mercapturic
    •  
    • b. adipic acid - used in production of nylon
    • c. hippuric - found in urine of herbivores
  71. Which collagen type is synthesized by hypertrophic chondrocytes?
    Collagen type X - fibrillary mesh in hypertrophic chondrocytes
  72. Which collagen type does not belong to fibrillary collagens?
    a. collagen IV
    b. collagen III
    c. collagen V
    d. collagen VI
    e. collagen IX
    f. collagen XII
    collagen type IV - non-fibrillar, mesh/basal lamina
  73. What does not apply to CRP:
    a. acute conditions are reduced
    b. role opsonins is incremented when bacterial infections
    c. reacts with C polysaccharide of pneumococci
    d. stimulates the classic compliment cascade
    e. used as a marker of tissue injury/infection/inflammation
    • a. acute conditions are reduced - part of the acute phase reactants
    • c. reacts with C polysaccharide of pneumococci
    • d. stimulates the classic compliment cascade
    • e. used as a marker of tissue injury/infection/inflammation
  74. Among atherogenic factors include:
    dyslipidemia - hypercholesterolemia
  75. Osteoporosis may cause:
    a. fracture
    b. enhanced bone fragility due to deterioration for bone tissue
    c. pain
    All
  76. AMPK - AMP activate protein kinase:
    inhibits the anabolic and catabolic processes activated
  77. Markers for bone degradation:
    a. pyridinoline
    b. urinary calcium corrected for creatine produced by muscle resorption (inaccurate)
    c. hydroxyproline results from collagen break down
    d. urinary pyridinium crosslinks ( found in collagen type 1 also) i. pyridinoline ii. hydroxypyridinoline
    All
  78. What is not a conjugate of xenobiotics:
    a. glutathione
    b. glucuronic acid
    c. PAPs and aritolochic acid
    d. aristolochic
    e. acetylation using acetyl CoA
    f. methylation using S adenosylmethionine
    • d. aristolchic - becomes cancerogenic when bound to cytochrome P450
    • a. glutathione - conjugation with glutathione
    • b. glucuronic acid - glucuronidation
    • c. PAPS aand aristolchic - acid properly - sulfation (using PAPS)
    • e. acetylation using acetyl CoA
    • f. methylation using S adenosylmethionine
    •  
  79. Which of these elements do not form radicals:
    a. oxygen
    b. nitrogen
    c. phosphorus
    d. chlorine
    c. phosphorus
  80. What is the function of melanin?
    a. protection of collagen from UV radiation
    b. protection of keratinocyte nucleus from UV radiation
    c. protection of keratin from UV radiation
    d. protection of fibroblast nucleus from UV radiation
    b. protection of keratinocyte nucleus from UV radiation
  81. Markers of liver damage:
    • alanine aminotransferase
    • aspartate aminotransferase
  82. The most common lipid surfactant:
    dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine
  83. Troponin complex is used to:
    calcium binding mediates contraction
  84. Why in atherosclerosis and inflammatory bb can LDL penetrate the endothelium?
    a. necrotic endothelium
    b. shrink
    c. not repel them
    c. not repel them
  85. Which of the following is formed in the lungs:
    a. angiotensin I
    b. angiotensinogen
    c. angiogenin
    d. angiotensin
     
    • d. angiotensin II - lung capillaries (angiotensin converting enzyme)
    •  
    • a. angiotensin I - circulation?(renin)
    • b. angiotensinogen - liver
    • c. angiogenin=ribunuclease 5 - found where new blood vessels form
  86. Lactate dehydrogenase:
    a. in the liver, D4 and D5
    b. 7 isomer
    c. D2 and D3
    a. in the liver, D4 and D5
  87. The principle component of epidermal cells is:
    a. creatine
    b. keratin
    c. carnosine
    d. carnitine
    • b. keratin - structural protein found in hair + nails + skin
    •  
    • a. creatine - formed in the liver + transported to high energy requiring tissues->creatine phosphate
    • c. carnosine - antioxidant found in muscle + brain
    • d. carnitine - transport long chain fatty acyl groups across inner mitochondrial membrane
  88. For parathyroid hormone PTH does not apply:
    a. hypocalcemia inhibits PTH secretion
    b. hypomagnesemia inhibits PTH secretion
    a. hypocalcemia inhibits PTH secretion - because hypomagnesemia inhibits secretion, it has a role in stimulus-secretion coupling-> it stimulates the resorptive activity PTH has on the kidneys (mild) or can lead to reversible hypothyroidism (severe)
  89. Buffer that is physiologically effective:
    PKa=7.24
  90. What is a liver function:
    a. store of TAG
    b. synthesize TAG
    c. synthesize immunoglobulins
    • a. store of TAG
    • b. synthesize TAG
  91. What is not true for skin:
    the emergence of an active form of vitamin D
  92. What does not stimulate the secretion of glucagon:
    a. decreased concentration of glucose 
    b. increased concentration of amino acids
    c. increased concentration of glucose
    d. decreased concentration of insulin
    c. increased concentration of glucose
  93. The most abundant protein in bone:
    collagen 
  94. The main source for energy lungs:
    glucose
  95. What lyses fibrin:
    plasmin
  96. What prevents hypoglycemia:
    glycogen
  97. What is gamma-glutamyl a marker for:
    obstructive diseases of biliary tract
  98. What is not reflected in liver disorders:
    increased albumin
  99. What in the heart converts pyruvate to lactate?
    Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
  100. The coagulation factor XIII(13) is a:
    a. transducing 
    b. transaminase
    c. transglutaminase
    d. transferase
    c. transglutaminase - cross linking of fibrin soft->hard
  101. Conjugated bilirubin is what?
    bilirubin conjugated with glucuronic acid
  102. What mainly causes atherosclerosis?
    LDL
  103. Corticosterone:
    a. is a strong androgen
    b. is a weak mineralcorticoid
    c. is a precursor of pregnenolone
    d. is hydrophilic
    • b. is a weak mineralcorticoid
    •  
    • c. is a precursor of pregnenalone - pregnenalone is THE precursor (formed from cholesterol)
    • d. is hydrophilic - hydrophobic
  104. Monooxygenase system cytochrome P450: 
    a. participates in conjugation of steroid hormones
    b. is a metabolic process located typically in the liver - metabolism of bilrubin
    c. metabolizes only exogenous molecule - bilrubin is endogenous
    d. is an NAPH: cytochrome oxireductase
    • a. participates in conjugation of steroid hormones - steroidogenesis in adrenalo + gonads + peripheral tissue
    • b. is metabolic process located typically in the liver - metabolism of bilirubin
  105. Which of the following belong to the positive acute phase reactants:
    a. transferrin 
    b. serum amyloid A (SAA)
    c. C-reactive protein (CRP), compliment component C3 and C4
    d. CRP, procalcitonin
    e. CRP, gamma globulin
    • b. serum amyloid A (SAA)
    • c. C-reactive Protein(CRP, compliment component C3 and C4
  106. The placentallactogens = human chorionic somatomammotropin (HCS):
    a. have steroid stucture - are polypeptides
    b. do not influence neither mammary gland nor the lactation
    c. affect the metabolism of fatty acids and glucose in mothers body
    d. are necessary to hold pregnancy - lack causes growth retardation but otherwise normal growth
    c. affect the metabolism of fatty acids and glucose in mothers body - decrease maternal glucose utilization + increase lipolysis 
  107. Renin is:
    a. a peptide giving (upon proteolytic cleavage) angiotensin I – cleaves
    Angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
    b. a steroid hormone regulating sodium homeostasis – polypeptide enzyme
    c. a protease cleaving angiotensin I from angiotensinogen
    d. a peptide hormone regulating the blood pressure in relation to angiotensin
    concentration – PROTEIN hormone released when there is a decrease in arterial
    BP / decrease in sodium in ultrafiltrate of nephron / sympathetic stimulation
    c. a protease cleaving angiotensin I from angiotensinogen
  108. The release of fatty acids from adipose tissue is not increased by:
    a. glucagon
    b. insulin
    c. growth hormone
    d. epinephrine
    • b. insulin - promotes fuel storage
    •  
    • a. glucagon - mobilizes fuels during fasting
    • c. growth hormone - mobilizes fuels during growth
    • d. epinephrine - mobilizes fuels during acute stress
  109. Ceruloplasmin carries:
    a. copper
    b. heme
    c. fatty acid
    d. zinc
    • a. copper
    •  
    • b. heme - heme transporters
    • c. fatty acid - lipoproteins/albumin
    • d. zinc - zinc transporters
  110. Select correct statement for pregnenolone:
    a. it is the precursor of minercorticoids
    b. it is the precursor of epinephrine 
    c. it is the vitamin D3 precursor
    d. it is synthesized directly from cholesterol in the cytoplasm
    • a. it is a precursor of minercorticoids
    •  
    • b. it is the precursor of epinephrine - phenylalanine AA
    • c. it is the vitamin D3 precursor - from 7, dehydrocholesterol (diet/skin)
    • d. it is synthesized directly from cholesterol in the cytoplasm - in the mitochondria
  111. What occurs in the pentose pathway?
    • a. glucose 6 phosphate
    • b. 6 phosphogluconolactone
    • c. 6 phosphogluconate
    • d. ribulose 5 phosphate
    • e. ribose 5 phosphate
    • f. xylulose 5 phosphate
    • g. fructose 6 phosphate
    • h. glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
  112. Decrease albumin concentrations can be caused by:
    a. bone marrow diseases
    b. decrease synthesis in liver
    c. increase protein loss 
    d. increase catabolic degradation during acute state
    • b. decrease synthesis in liver - cirrhosis/hepatitis
    • c. increase protein loss - through kidney
  113. Plasma cells are:
    a. producers of collagen I
    b. producers of interleukins
    c. terminal differentiation stage of B lymphocytes
    d. producers of ROS 
    • c. terminal differentiation stage of B lymphocytes
    •  
    • a. producers of collage I - connective tissue cells
    • b. producers of interleukins - T helper cells
    • d. producers of ROS - phagocytes
  114. Activated macrophages are able to increase their ability to select and kill pathogens, but they are also very important in:
    a. starting cytotoxic T cell activation
    b. activation of complimentary cascade
    c. development of memory component of adaptive immune response 
    d. initiation of somatic B cell hypermutation
    • a. starting cytotoxic T cell activation - binding of CD8 with an MHC type I molecule + antigen
    •  
    • b. activation of complimentary cascade - binding of complement to pathogen surface
    • c. development of memory component of the adaptive immune response - B cells
    • d. initiation of somatic B cell hypermutation - contact T helper cell + antigen
  115. Which of the following does not belong to the peptide hormones?
    a. parathyroid hormone
    b. prostracyclin
    c. insulin
    d. leptin
    • b. prostracyclin - prostragladin lipid molecule
    •  
    • a. parathyroid hormone - protein hormone
    • c. insulin - protein hormone
    • d. leptin - protein hormone
  116. Antibody specifically binds to one or more very similar antigens by means of:
    a. the constant part of the light chain
    b. variable regions of the heavy chain
    c. the Fc fragment 
    d. hypervariable regions of both heavy and light chains
    d. hypervariable regions of both heavy and light chains
  117. Which of the following amino acids is predominant in collagen?
    a. tryptophan
    b. proline
    c. tyrosine
    d. methionine
    e. glycine
    f. lycine
    • b. proline
    • e. glycine - every 3rd AA
    • f. lycine
  118. What is the energy source of skeletal muscle?
    a. phosphocarnitine 
    b. phosphocreatinine
    c. phosphocreatine
    d. creatine
    • c. hosphocreatine -energy reservoir for ATP in muscle/neurons/spermatozoa
    •  
    • a. phosphocarnitine - carnitine transports fatty acids
    • b. phosphocreatinine - creatinephosphate->creatinine/muscles->kidneys filter->urine
    • d. creatine - synthesized in kidney + liver-> brain/heart/muscle where joins with ATP
  119. The disaccharide repeating unit of the glycosaminoglycan hyaluronic acid consists of?
    a. glucose and galactose-lactose
    b. n-acetylglucosamine and fructose
    c. glucoronate and n-acetylglucosamine
    d. mannose and fructosamine
    c. glucoronate and N-acetylglucosamine
  120. 25-OH D₃ is called:
    a. calcidiol (=calcifediol)
    b. ergocalcipherol
    c. calcitriol
    d. cholecalcipherol
    • a. calcidiol (=calcifediol)
    •  
    • b. ergocalcipherol - D2
    • c. calcitriol - 1,25 (OH)₂D3
    • d. cholecalcipherol - D3
  121. Majority of coagulation factors are:
    a. steroids
    b. proteoglycans
    c. serine proteases
    d. lipoproteins
    c. serine proteases
  122. What biochemical markers is most suitable for estimation of pro-inflammatory state related to the total body fat amount?
    a. CRP determines by highly sensitive method
    b. interleukin 6
    c. glycaemia
    d. triglyceridemia
    b. interleukin 6
  123. Which of the following compounds participates in short term central regulation of CVS:
    a. aldosterone
    b. cortisol
    c. atrial natriuretic peptide
    d. ACTH=adrenocorticotrophic hormone
    • c. atrial natriuretic peptide - vasodilator/decrease sodium reuptake in kidney->decrease BP
    •  
    • a. aldosterone - reuptake of sodium by kidneys etc.->increase extracellular fluid->increase BP
    • b. cortisol - prepares body for stress
    • d. ACTH - increases release of cortisol
  124. De Ritis ratio:
    a. is the AST/ALT ratio, value > 1 suggest necrosis of hepatocytes
    b. is the ALT/AST ratio, value > 1 suggest necrosis of hepatocytes
    c. is the GMT/ALP ratio, value > 1 suggest necrosis of hepatocytes
    d. is the ALP/GMT ratio, value > 1 suggest bile duct obstruction
    a. is the AST/ALT ratio, value>1 suggest necrosis of hepatocytes
  125. Uncoupling proteins in brown fat mitochondria:
    a. decrease oxygen consumption - stays the same
    b. increase ATP production 
    c. short-circuit the proton gradient
    d. increase ATP hydrolysis
    • c. short-cicuit the proton gradient - allows energy to create heat
    •  
    • a. decrease oxygen consumption - stays the same
    • b. increase ATP production - low rate of ATP production in brown fat
    • d. increase ATP hydrolysis - same?
  126. Does the adipose tissue have its own endocrine function?
    a. only in fed state - leptin
    b. only during fasting
    c. yes 
    d. no
    c. yes - inflammatory hormones can always be secreted
  127. Which statements regarding osteoclasts is not true:
    a. they are involved in bone resorption
    b. they are mononuclear cells
    c. they are derived from monocyte-macrophage lineage
    d. they contain carbonic anhydrase
    b. they are mononuclear cells - multinucleated
  128. Proteoglycans differ from glycoproteins in:
    a. higher ratio of protein to lipid content
    b. lower portion of sugar component 
    c. higher lipid content
    d. sugars modified by sulpho groups
    d. sugars modified by sulpho groups - keratin sulfate + chondroitin sulfate
  129. What causes the triglyceride accumulation in liver?
    a. hypertriglyceridemia 
    b. insufficient function of hepatocytes
    c. insulin resistance
    d. insufficient fat stores
    • c. insulin resistance - causes hypertriglyceridemia
    •  
    • a. hypertriglyceridemia - caused by insulin in diabetes
    • b. insufficient function of hepatocytes - causes high TAG in plasma
  130. Glutamine is mainly produced by the:
    a. skeletal
    b. kidneys
    c. heart
    d. liver
    • a. skeletal muscle - from branched chained amino acids/lungs + brain use to remove NH₄⁺
    •  
    • b. kidneys - glutamine uptake
    • d. liver - regulatory role
  131. Fatty acids:
    a. neither can be used as fuel nor for biosynthesis in skeletal muscle
    b. are used only for biosynthesis in the muscle 
    c. are synthesized in the skeletal muscle and then transported to the adipose tissue
    d. are the major energy source for skeletal muscle
    d. are the major source for skeletal muscle
  132. Which of the following statements is correct regarding elastin:
    a. it consists of three helices - many fibres joined together
    b. it is a glycoprotein - peptide chains joined together
    c. its cross linkages are derived from side chain lysine residues
    d. it contains many cysteine residues - glycine/lysine/alanine/proline
    c. its cross linkages are derived from side chain lysine residues – hydroxylysine(alysine)
  133. Recommended daily amount of calcium intake for male and premenopausal female is:
    a. 1000mg
    b. 2000mg
    c. 800mg
    d. 500mg
    c. 800mg
  134. Which of the following molecules do not belong to the markers routinely used in myocardial infarction diagnosis:
    a. myoglobin
    b. ischemia modified albumin
    c. myosin light chains
    d. troponins
    c. myosin light chains
  135. Which of the following belong to the ketone bodies:
    a. acetaminophen
    b. acetone
    c. acetoacetate
    d. beta hydroxybutyrate
    • c. acetoacetate
    •  
    • a. acetaminophen=paracetamol
    • b. acetone-formed from breakdown of acetoacetate
    • d. beta hydroxybutyrate-not a ketone but raised during ketosis
  136. Which of the following does not belong to the products of proopiomelanocortin:
    a. melanocyte stimulating hormone
    b. beta lipotropin
    c. melatonin
    d. endorphins
    c. melatonin– from tryptophan
  137. MHC complex class II is not found in:
    a. B lymphocytes
    b. fibroblasts
    c. macrophages
    d. dendritic cells
    b. fibroblasts
  138. Endocrine disruptors are:
    a. endogenous compounds that influence hormonal systems

    b. exogenous compounds that influence hormonal systems

    c. drugs used to treat endocrine hyperfunction

    d. enzymes that metabolize hormones
    b. exogenous compounds that influence hormonal systems
  139. Albumin:
    a. participates in the synthesis of hydrogen peroxide – regulates colloidal osmotic pressure of blood

    b. is the most abundant plasma protein

    c. is a glycoprotein – globular proteins

    d. is the least abundant plasma protein
    b. is the most abundant plasma protein
  140. The compliment cascade triggered by three different pathways joining at the key point of the complement system:
    a. mannose binding lectin

    b. splitting C3 into C3a and C3b

    c. membrane attacking complex

    d. complement receptor I
    b. splitting C3 into C3a and C3b
  141. Plasma proteins:
    a. play an important role in transport of various substances 
    b. are always glycoproteins
    c. participate in defense organisms
    d. participate in maintaining colloid osmotic pressure
    • a. play an important role in transport of various substances - albumin etc.
    • d. participate in defense organisms - immunoglobins
  142. The role of melanin:
    protection of nuclei of keratinocytes from UV-B
  143. Homovanillic acid is the degradation product of:
    a. epinephrine
    b. serotonin
    c. dopamine
    d. norepinephrine
    c. dopamine
  144. Which of the following statements fits best the term innate immune response?
     a. it is a rapid specific response
    b. it requires more time to perform the adequate response
    c. it works by means of complement enzyme cascade activation
    d. it requires the memory component to perform the adequate response
    c. it works by means of complement enzyme cascade activation
  145. Plasma cells are:
    a. producers of ROS
    b. producers of collagen I
    c. producers of interleukins 
    d. terminal differentiation stage of B lymphocytes
     
    d. terminal differentiation stage of B lymphocytes
  146. Thyeoglubulin is a:
    a. pituitry hormone stimulating thyroxine production
    b. storage form of thyroxine
    d. degradation product of thyroxine
    d. thyroxine-transporting protein
    b. storage form of thyroxine
  147. The edema observed in patients with non-calorie protein malnutrition is caused by:
    a. increased fluid uptake
    b. increased ketone body production
    c. reduced protein synthesis in the liver
    d. loss of muscle mass
    c. reduced protein synthesis in the liver
  148. Vasopressin and oxytocin contain:
    a. 9 amino acid residues
    b. 13 amino acid residues
    c. 15 amino acid residues
    d. 11 amino acid residues
    a. 9 amino acid residues
  149. An important step in the inactivation and excretion of all classes of steroid hormones (except vitamin D₃) is:
    a. conjugation with glucuronic acid
    b. hydroxylation
    c. reduction
    d. side chain cleavage
    d. reduction
  150. NADPH-oxidase of leukocytes produces:
    a. NO
    b. hypochlorous acid
    c. oxygen
    d. superoxide
    d. superoxide
  151. Which of the following amino acid side chain is involved in the formation of O-glycosidic linkage between the oligosaccharide chain and the protein?
    a. serine
    b. methionine
    c. glycine
    d. histidine
    a. serine
  152. Bisphenol A:
    a. is an insecticide
    b. is used for production of PVC
    c. is a herbicide
    d. has estrogenic activity
    d. has estrogenic activity
  153. As a marker suitable for evaluation of the rise of developing and progression of atherosclerosis, one can use:
    a. plasmin
    b. CRP
    c. HDL concentration
    d. vitamin B
    b. CRP
  154. The signal cascade of glucagon involves activation of:
    a. phosphatase
    b. protein kinase B
    c. protein kinase A
    d. protein kinase C
    c. protein kinase A
  155. Metanephrine is degradation product of:
    a. serotonin
    b. melatonin
    c. norepinephrine
    d. epinephrine
    d. epinephrine
  156. Pancreatic lipase cleaves triglycerides to fatty acids:
    a. 2-monoacylglycerols
    b. 1,3-diacylglycerols
    c. 1,2-diacylglycerols
    c. 1-monoacylglycerols
    a. 2-monoacylglycerols
  157. Which of the following molecules do(es) not belong to the markers routinely used in myocardial infaction diagnostics?
    a. LDH1
    b. troponins
    c. ischemia-modified albumin
    d. myoglobin
    c. ischemia-modified albumin
  158. Cytochrome P450 does not utilize:
    a. oxygen
    b. NADH
    c. NADPH
    d. cytochrome P450
    b. NADH
  159. What are the major collagens of skin?
    a. collagen IV and collagen VI
    b. collagen II and collagen IV
    c. collagen II and collagen V
    d. collagen I and collagen III
    d. collagen I and collagen III
  160. Beta-subunits of insulin receptor:
    a. autophosphorylate each other
    b. bind to insulin
    c. are covalently bound together
    d. form a glucose channel
    a. autophosphorylate each other
  161. Among system autoimmune diseases does not belong:
    a. scleroderma
    b. diabetes mellitus 1st type
    c. rheumatoid arthritis
    d. system lupus erythematodes
    b. diabetes mellitus 1st type
  162. The alkaline phosphatase:
    a. has three main isoenzymes: hepatobillary, bone and pulmonary
    b. Has three main isoenzymes:
    tissue-nonspecific (further classified into liver, bone and kidney isoforms), intestinal and placental
    c. is usually decreased in the growth period
    d. together with γ-glutamyl transferase and
    conjugated bilirubin, is usually decreased in case of bile duct obstruction
    b. Has three main isoenzymes:tissue-nonspecific (further classified into liver, bone and kidney isoforms), intestinal and placental
  163. What is the main substrate for ATP formatio in adult heart?
    a. free fatty acids
    b. glucose
    c. ketone bodies
    d. triacylglycerols
    a. free fatty acids
  164. Which of the following is not a prion disorder?
    a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
    b. Scrapie of sheeps and goats
    c. Huntington's disease
    d. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
    c. Huntington's disease
  165. Hydrogen peroxide is decomposed by
    a. catalase
    b. hydratase
    c. carboxylase 
    d. enolase
    a. catalase

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