Histology

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303502
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Histology
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2015-06-01 11:21:50
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Histology
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Histology (Choose the correct answer(s)) A- Cytology I (1-23) B- Cytology II (24-60) C- Cytology III & Epithelial Tissue (61-98) D- Connective Tissue (99-134) E- Nerve & Muscle Tissue (135-174) F- Blood (175-213)
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  1. 1) What are the functions of the Plasma membrane from the following? 
    •selectively permeable barrier of cell
    •site for cellular receptors
    •cell adhesion surface
    •facilitates transport of ions
    •primary site of protein synthesis
  2. 2) Selectively permeable barrier of cell
    • Site for cellular receptors
    • Cell adhesion surface
    • Facilitates transport of ions
  3. 3) Which of the following is the location of mitochondrial DNA?
    •Cristae
    •F1 subunits
    •Inner mitochondrial membrane
    •Intracristal space
    •Mitochondrial granules
    •Mitochondrial matrix
    •Outer mitochondrial membrane
    Mitochondrial Matrix
  4. 4) Which of the following is the location of concentrated Ca2+ ions in mitochondria?
    •cristae
    •F1 subunits
    •inner mitochondrial membrane
    •intracristal space
    •mitochondrial granules
    •mitochondrial matrix
    •outer mitochondrial membrane
    Mitochondrial granules
  5. 5) Which of the following forms shelflike or tubular projections into matrix
    •mitochondrial matrix
    •mitochondrial granules
    •inner mitochondrial membrane
    •outer mitochondrial membrane
    •none of the above
    Inner mitochondrial membrane
  6. 6) Which is the site of calcium ion sequestratin?
    •mitochondrial matrix
    •mitochondrial granules
    •inner mitochondrial membrane
    •outer mitochondrial membrane
    •none of the above
    Mitochondrial granules
  7. 7) What is the location of globular structures with ATP synthetase activity
    •mitochondrial matrix
    •mitochondrial granules
    •inner mitochondrial membrane
    •outer mitochondrial membrane
    •none of the above
    Inner mitochondrial membrane
  8. 8) Where are the krebs cycle enzymes located?
    •mitochondrial matrix
    •mitochondrial granules
    •inner mitochondrial membrane
    •outer mitochondrial membrane
    •none of the above
    • Mitochondrial Matrix
    • Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
  9. 9) The synthesis of all proteins, is initiated on which of the following cellular components?
    •free polyribosomes
    •Golgi complex
    •ribophorin
    •rER
    •signal recognition particles
    •unit membrane
    Free polyribosomes
  10. 10) Which of the following, is the site of Initial glycosylation of secretory proteins?
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    rER
  11. 11) Which of the following is the site of Principal glycosylation of secretory proteins?
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    Golgi Complex
  12. 12) Which of the following pairs of functions are associated with the Golgi complex?
    •production of energy and glycogen synthesis
    •production of energy and lipid synthesis
    •glycosylation and packaging of secretory products
    •glycosylation and sulphation of secretory products
    •synthesis and concentration of lipids
    •phagocytosis and receptor recycling
    •protein synthesis and packaging of secretory products
    • Glycosylation and Packaging of secretory products
    • Glycosylation and sulphation of secretory products
  13. 13) Which of the following descriptions are true of autophagosome?
    •allows extracellular materials to enter cells
    •contains densely packed, inactive hydrolytic enzymes
    •contains aging or damaged organelles
    •contains acid phosphatase
    •is surrounded by membrane derived from ER
    •provides amino acids for protein synthesis by fusing with the rER
    • Allows extracellular matrix to enter cell
    • Is surrounded by membrane derived from cell membrane
  14. 14) Which functions are performed by lysosomes?
    •nucleic acid hydrolysis
    •protein degradation
    •protein glycosylation
    •destruction of damaged cell organelles
    •destruction of bacteria
    • nucleic acid hydrolysis
    • protein degradation
    • destruction of damaged cell organelles
    • destruction of bacteria
  15. 15) What are the sites of segregation of proteins for secretion?
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    • Golgi complex
    • rER
  16. 16) Organelles taking part in steroid hormone synthesis
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria tubular type
    •rER
    •sER
    sER
  17. 17) Site of exogenous or endogenous substances detoxification
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    sER
  18. 18) Site of energy production in a cell
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    Mitochondria
  19. 19) Site of glycosaminoglycans sulphation
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    Golgi Complex
  20. 20) Site of first steps in glycosylation of secretory proteins
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    rER
  21. 21) Site of signal sequence synthesis
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    Free polyribosomes
  22. 22) Site of drug detoxification
    •Golgi complex
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    sER
  23. 23) Which of the following is the site of actin and tubulin synthesis?
    •centrioles
    •free polyribosomes
    •mitochondria
    •rER
    •sER
    Free polyribosomes
  24. 24) Which of the following are composed primarily of tubulin?
    •basal bodies
    •intermediate filaments
    •microfilaments
    •microtubules
    • Basal bodies
    • Microtubules
  25. 25) Which of the following indicates the average diameter of cytoplasmic filaments composed of vimentin?
    •5-7nm
    •10-12nm
    •24nm
    •50-70nm
    •100-120nm
    •240nm
    •500-700nm
    10-12nm
  26. 26) Polymers of protein subunits
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    • Microtubules
    • Microfilaments
  27. 27) Rise from g-actin polymerization
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    Microfilaments
  28. 28) Components of cytoskeleton
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    • Microtubules
    • Microfilaments
  29. 29) Composed of tubulin
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    Mircotubules
  30. 30) Dynamic structures able to polymerize and depolymerize.
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    • Microtubules
    • Microfilaments
  31. 31) Contain desmin or vimentin
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    Neither
  32. 32) Subunits of centrioles
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    Microtubules
  33. 33) Their walls are composed of protofilaments
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    Microtubules
  34. 34) Outer diameter of about 24nm
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    Microtubules
  35. 35) Components of terminal web
    •microtubules
    •microfilaments
    •neither
    Microfilaments
  36. 36) Present in tonofibrils
    •tubulin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •actin
    •desmin
    •cytokeratin
    Cytokeratin
  37. 37) Forms protofilaments of microtubules
    •tubulin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •actin
    •desmin
    •cytokerati
    Tubulin
  38. 38) Present in epithelial cells
    •desmin filaments
    •cytokeratin filaments
    •vimentin filaments
    •neurofilaments
    •glial filaments
    Cytokeratin filaments
  39. 39) Present in neurons
    •desmin filaments
    •cytokeratin filaments
    •vimentin filaments
    •neurofilaments
    •glial filaments
    neurofilaments
  40. 40) Present in muscle elements
    •desmin filaments
    •cytokeratin filaments
    •vimentin filaments
    •neurofilaments
    •glial filaments
    • Desmin filaments
    • Vimentin filaments
  41. 41) Which of the following statements concerning nuclear envelope are true?
    •nuclear envelope is composed of a single unit membrane
    •nuclear pores are surrounded by protein complexes
    •perinuclear cisternae are continuous with ER
    •nuclear envelope is composed of two unit membranes separated by the perinuclear cisternae
    • Nuclear pores are surrounded by protein complexes
    • Perinuclear cisternae are continuous with ER
    • Nuclear envelope is composed of two unit membranes separated by the perinuclear cisternae
  42. 42) Nuclear envelope is considered a specialized portion of which one of the following structures?
    •golgi complex
    •nucleolus
    •plasma membrane
    •rER
    rER
  43. 43) Which of the following structures play a role in ribosomal RNA synthesis?
    •free polyribosomes
    •nuclear envelope
    •nucleolus
    •phagosomes
    •lysosomes
    •rER
    •sER
    Nucleolus
  44. 44) Which of the following terms is applied to the smallest chromatin morphologic subunit in eukaryotic cells?
    •chromosome
    •euchromatin
    •genes
    •heterochromatin
    •histone
    •nucleosome
    •solenoid
    Nucleosome
  45. 45) Contains nucleosome
    •heterochromatin
    •euchromatin
    •neither
    • Heterochromatin
    • Euchromatin
  46. 46) Stains darkly with acid dyes
    •heterochromatin
    •euchromatin
    •neither
    Neither
  47. 47) Stains darkly with toluidine blue or hematoxylin
    •heterochromatin
    •euchromatin
    •neither
    Heterochromatin
  48. 48) Always membrane limited
    •organelles
    •cytoplasmic inclusions
    •neither
    Organelles
  49. 49) Often act as storage depots of various metabolites
    •organelles
    •cytoplasmic inclusions
    •neither
    Cytoplasmic inclusions
  50. 50) Supporting structures of cytoplasm
    •organelles
    •cytoplasmic inclusions
    •neither
    Neither!
  51. 51) Serous granules
    •organelles
    •cytoplasmic inclusions
    •neither
    Cytoplasmic inclusions
  52. 52) Contain enzymes taking parts in metabolic activity of cell
    •organelles
    •cytoplasmic inclusions
    •neither
    Organelles
  53. 53) Often represent temporary components of cell
    •organelles
    •cytoplasmic inclusions
    •neither
    Cytoplasmic inclusions
  54. 54) Helps attach ribosomes to rER
    •ribophorin
    •lipofuscin
    •colchicine
    •euchromatin
    •heterochromatin
    •lamin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •vimentin
    •none of the above
    Ribophorin
  55. 55) Found in greater amount in cells with a long life-span
    •ribophorin
    •lipofuscin
    •colchicine
    •euchromatin
    •heterochromatin
    •lamin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •vimentin
    •none of the above
    Lipofuscin
  56. 56) Inhibits microtubule polymerization
    •ribophorin
    •lipofuscin
    •colchicine
    •euchromatin
    •heterochromatin
    •lamin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •vimentin
    -None of the above
    Colchicine
  57. 57) Kinetic protein of MAP's family
    •ribophorin
    •lipofuscin
    •colchicine
    •euchromatin
    •heterochromatin
    •lamin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •vimentin
    •none of the above
    Cytoplasmic dynein
  58. 58) Associated with inner surface of nuclear envelope
    •ribophorin
    •lipofuscin
    •colchicine
    •euchromatin
    •heterochromatin
    •lamin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •vimentin
    •none of the above
    Lamin
  59. 59) Forms some of intermediate filaments
    •ribophorin
    •lipofuscin
    •colchicine
    •euchromatin
    •heterochromatin
    •lamin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •vimentin
    •none of the above
    • Lamin
    • Vimetin
  60. 60) More abundant in nuclei with high level of transcription activity
    •ribophorin
    •lipofuscin
    •colchicine
    •euchromatin
    •heterochromatin
    •lamin
    •cytoplasmic dynein
    •vimentin
    •none of the above
    Euchromatin
  61. 61) Which of the following are true of holocrine secretion?
    •occurs in sebaceous glands
    •occurs in endocrine glands
    •involves little or no loss of cytoplasm
    •involves secretion of Na+ ions
    •is the typical mode of secretion of DNES cells
    Occurs in sebaceous glands
  62. 62) The following statements concerning zymogen granules are true except:
    • contain enzymes
    • surrounded by a membrane
    • evacuated by exocytosis
    • contain concentrated secretion products
    • appear in steroid-secreting products
    • appear in cells producing polypeptides
    • appear in protein-secreting cells
    Appear in steroid-secreting products

    Appear in cells producing polypeptides
  63. 63) Which of the following statements concerning mucous cells are true?
    • contain poorly developed Golgi complex
    • contain cisternae of granular ER
    • produce secretory granules
    • are eosinophilic
    • Contain cisternae of granular ER
    • Produce secretory granules
    • Are eosinophilic
  64. 64) Which of the following are used in the naming of epithelial types?
    • shape of cells in the basal layer
    • number of layers of epithelial cells
    • presence of a basal lamina
    • size of the nuclei
    • presence of cytokeratin
    • shape of cells in the superficial layer
    • Number of layers of epithelial cells
    • Shape of cells in the superficial layer
  65. 65) Which of the following are components of axonemes?
    • centrioles
    • basal bodies
    • dynein arms
    • intermediate filaments
    • nexin links
    • microfilaments
    • microtubules
    • radial spokes
    • Dynein arms
    • Nexin links
    • Microtubules
    • Radial spokes
  66. 66) Which of the following cells contain mitochondria of tubular type?
    • ion-transporting cells
    • mucus-secreting cells
    • peptide-secreting cells
    • protein-secreting cells
    • steroid-secreting cells
    Steroid-secreting cells
  67. 67) Which of the following contain axonemes of 9+2 inner pattern and are up to 50μm long?
    • cilia
    • flagella
    • basal bodies
    • centrioles
    Flagella
  68. 68) Composed of 9 triplets of microtubules and associated with striated rootlets?
    • cilia
    • flagella
    • basal bodies
    • centrioles
    Basal bodies
  69. 69) Help to organize mitotic spindles.
    • cilia
    • flagella
    • basal bodies
    • centrioles
    Centrioles
  70. 70) Which of the following in modified form, perform a sensory function?
    • cilia
    • flagella
    • basal bodies
    • centrioles
    Cilia
  71. 71) Most developed rER.
    • ion-transporting cells
    • protein-secreting cells
    • mucus-secreting cells
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • neither
    Protein-secreting cells
  72. 72) Abundant sER.
    • ion-transporting cells
    • protein-secreting cells
    • mucus-secreting cells
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • neither
    Steroid-secreting cells
  73. 73) Cells contain numerous large light secretory granules showing tendency to fuse.
    • ion-transporting cells
    • protein-secreting cells
    • mucus-secreting cells
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • neither
    Mucus-secreting cells
  74. 74) Contain dense core vesicles.
    • ion-transporting cells
    • protein-secreting cells
    • mucus-secreting cells
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • neither
    • Protein-secreting cells
    • Mucus-secreting cells
  75. 75) Contain basal labyrinth
    • ion-transporting cells
    • protein-secreting cells
    • mucus-secreting cells
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • neither
    Ion-transporting cells
  76. 76) Covered by plasma membrane.
    • cilia
    • microvilli
    • neither
    • Cilia
    • Microvilli
  77. 77) Contain microfilaments.
    • cilia
    • microvilli
    • neither
    Microvilli
  78. 78) Contain microtubules.
    • cilia
    • microvilli
    • neither
    Cilia
  79. 79) Anchored in basal bodies.
    • cilia
    • microvilli
    • neither
    Cilia
  80. 80) Anchored in terminal web.
    • cilia
    • microvilli
    • neither
    Microvilli
  81. 81) Reveal similar inner pattern as stereocilia.
    • cilia
    • microvilli
    • neither
    Microvilli
  82. 82) Appear on basal surfaces of epithelial cells.
    • cilia
    • microvilli
    • neither
    Neither
  83. 83) Present in simple cuboidal epithelium.
    • zonula occludens
    • zonula adherens
    • neither
    Neither
  84. 84) Present in pseudostratified epithelium.
    • zonula occludens
    • zonula adherens
    • neither
    • Zonula occludens
    • Zonula adherens
  85. 85) Component of basement membrane.
    • zonula occludens
    • zonula adherens
    • neither
    Neither
  86. 86) Component of desmosomes.
    • zonula occludens
    • zonula adherens
    • neither
    Neither
  87. 87) Abundant sER.
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • polypeptide & amine secreting cells
    • neither
    Steroid-secreting cells
  88. 88) Numerous parallel cisternae of rER.
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • polypeptide & amine secreting cells
    • neither
    Neither
  89. 89)
    • Numerous lipid droplets present.
    • • steroid-secreting cells
    • • polypeptide & amine secreting cells
    • • neither
    • Steroid-secreting cells
  90. 90) Large light secretory granules.
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • polypeptide & amine secreting cells
    • neither
    Neither
  91. 91) Mitochondria with tubular cristae.
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • polypeptide & amine secreting cells
    • neither
    Steroid-secreting cells
  92. 92) Small secretory granules that differ in their appearance in individual cell types.
    • steroid-secreting cells
    • polypeptide & amine secreting cells
    • neither
    Polypeptide & amine secreting cells
  93. 93) Which of the following are true of merocrine glands
    • do not include endocrine glands
    • do not include exocrine glands
    • secretory cells have a well developed Golgi complex
    • secretory cells lose their apical cytoplasm during secretion
    • secretory cells contain secretory granules
    Secretory cells have a well developed Golgi complex

    Secretory cells contain secretory granules
  94. 94) Which of the following are characteristic of pseudostratified columnar epithelium?
    • all nuclei lie at the same depth from the surface
    • all cells border on the lumen
    • all cells are in contact with basal lamina
    • contains also basal cells
    • All cells are in contact with basal lamina
    • Contains also basal cells
  95. 95) Which of the following are true of both endocrine and exocrine glands?
    • are incapable of merocrine secretion
    • their secretory portions are composed of epithelial cells
    • contain abundant sER in peptide- or protein-secreting
    • nerves do not affect their secretory activity
    • release their secretions directly into the blood
    Their secretory portions are composed of epithelial cells
  96. 96) Which of the following are true of stereocilia?
    • are structurally similar to cilia
    • contain an axoneme
    • are underline by basal bodies
    • contain actin filaments in their cores
    • contain 9 microtubule triplets in their cores
    Contain actin filaments in their cores
  97. 97) Which of the following are true of cilia?
    • covered by plasma membrane
    • posses microfilaments in their cores
    • anchored in terminal web
    • contain axonemes composed of microtubules
    • only one cilium may occur per cell
    • Covered by plasma membrane
    • Contain axonemes composed of microtubules
  98. 98) Which of the following are true of the zonula occludens?
    • is characterized by local adhesion of the outer leaflets of adjacent unit membranes
    • is characterized by the presence of abundant cytokeratin filaments in the vicinity of the junction
    • usually surrounds basal region of cells
    • is characterized by a dense intracellular layer of electron dense proteins?
    • is characterized by the presence of connexons
    • represents component of apical junctional complex
    Is characterized by local adhesion of the outer leaflets of adjacent unit membranes

    Represents component of apical junctional complex
  99. 99) Which of the following cells characteristically contain the most lysosomes?
    • fibroblasts
    • lymphocytes
    • macrophages
    • mast cells
    • reticulocytes
    • plasma cells
    • reticular cells
    Macrophages
  100. 100) Which of the following cell types produce components of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue?
    • fibroblast
    • lymphocyte
    • macrophage
    • adipocyte
    • mast cell
    • reticulocyte
    • neutrophil
    • plasma cell
    • reticular cell
    • Fibroblast
    • Reticular cell
  101. Which of the following cell types is capable of uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation and producing heat?
    • chondrocytes
    • fibroblasts
    • mast cells
    • multilocular adipocytes
    • osteoclasts
    • unilocular adipocytes
    Multilocular adipocytes
  102. Which of the following connective tissue components are part of the extracellular matrix but not of its amorphous portion?
    • capillaries
    • collagen fibers
    • fibroblasts
    • fibronectin
    • glycosaminoglycans
    • hyaluronic acid
    • proteoglycans
    Collagen fibers
  103. Includes registration peptides.
    • tropocollagen
    • procollagen
    • neither
    Procollagen
  104. Directly secreted by fibroblasts.
    • tropocollagen
    • procollagen
    • neither
    Procollagen
  105. Able to polymerize and form collagen protofibrils.
    • tropocollagen
    • procollagen
    • neither
    Tropocollagen
  106. Which of the following is true of tropocollagen?
    • includes a registration peptide
    • includes a signal sequence
    • is located in secretory vesicles of fibroblasts
    • is located in the extracellular matrix
    Is located in the extracellular matrix
  107. Which of the following are true of elastic fibers?
    • can be stretched to 150% of their length and subsequently will spring back to their original size
    • are ensheathed by type IV collagen fibers
    • are extremely soluble in aqueous solutions
    • are notably absent in the cartilages of the nose and ear
    • are markedly stained with standard hematoxylin and eosin staining
    • are composed of amorphous portion and of microfibrils
    • are composed of amorphous portion and of protofibrils
    Is located in the extracellular matrix

    Are composed of amorphous portion and of microfibrils
  108. Microfibrils are their components.
    • collagen fibers
    • elastic fibers
    • reticular fibers
    • none of the above
    Elastic fibers
  109. Their subunits are protofibrils.
    • collagen fibers
    • elastic fibers
    • reticular fibers
    • none of the above
    • Collagen fibers
    • Reticular fibers
  110. Contractile elements.
    • collagen fibers
    • elastic fibers
    • reticular fibers
    • none of the above
    • Collagen fibers
    • Reticular fibers
  111. Which of the following, is avascular?
    • dense connective tissue
    • reticular connective tissue
    • elastic connective tissue
    • mucous connective tissue
    • adipose tissue
    • cartilage
    • bone
    • all of the above
    • none of the above
    Cartilage
  112. Functions as a calcium depot.
    • dense connective tissue
    • reticular connective tissue
    • elastic connective tissue
    • mucous connective tissue
    • adipose tissue
    • cartilage
    • bone
    • all of the above
    • none of the above
    Bone
  113. Contains substantial proportion of hyaluronic acid.
    • dense connective tissue
    • reticular connective tissue
    • elastic connective tissue
    • mucous connective tissue
    • adipose tissue
    • cartilage
    • bone
    • all of the above
    • none of the above
    • Mucous connective tissue
    • Cartilage
  114. Which of the following, describe brown adipose tissue and is not shared by white or yellow adipose tissue?
    • is widely distributed in adults
    • is highly vascular
    • contains large unilocular adipocytes
    • can generate heat
    • contains multilocular adipocytes
    • contains a single large fat droplet in the cytoplasm of each adipocyte
    • reticular cells and fibers make up the tissue's stroma
    Can generate heat
  115. Which of the following are true of dense regular connective tissue?
    • is composed primarily of fibroblasts
    • extracellular matrix prevails in this type of tissue
    • is the predominant tissue type in most organ capsules
    • contains more mast cells than any other type of connective tissue
    • may be found in tendons
    • contains a great amount of collagen fibers
    • May be found in tendons
    • Contains a great amount of collagen fibers
  116. Contains fibers of type IV collagen.
    • hyaline cartilage
    • elastic cartilage
    • fibrocartilage
    • none of the above
    None of the above
  117. Contains predominantly reticular fibers.
    • hyaline cartilage
    • elastic cartilage
    • fibrocartilage
    • none of the above
    None of the above
  118. Contains abundant type I collagen.
    • hyaline cartilage
    • elastic cartilage
    • fibrocartilage
    • none of the above
    Fibrocartilage
  119. Which of the following are true of elastic cartilage?
    • is the primary skeletal tissue in the fetus
    • has no identifiable perichondrium
    • is found in the anulus fibrosus of intervertebral disks
    • is the most widely distributed cartilage type in the body
    • contains type II collagen in its matrix
    • contains type I collagen in its matrix
    • contains elastic fibers in its matrix
    • Contains type II collagen in its matrix
    • Contains elastic fibers in its matrix
  120. Which of the following areas in cartilage are collagen poor and sulfated glycosaminoglycan rich?
    • anulus fibrosus
    • territorial matrix
    • epiphyseal plate
    • interterritorial matrix
    • perichondrium
    Territorial matrix
  121. In which of the following ways does articular cartilage differ from most other hyaline cartilage in adults?
    • it contains isogenous groups of chondrocytes
    • it lacks blood vessels
    • it lacks a perichondrium
    • it contains type II collagen
    • it is supplied with nutrients from synovial fluid
    • it contains proteoglycan aggregates in its ground substance
    • it undergoes only interstitial growth
    • It lacks a perichondrium
    • It is supplied with nutrients from synovial fluid
  122. Following statements concerning osteocytes are true except:
    • cause slight osteolysis
    • have many processes
    • nourished by capillaries in osseous canaliculi
    • joined to each other by gap junctions
    • Cause slight osteolysis
    • Nourished by capillaries in osseous canaliculi
  123. Which of the following statements concerning osteoblasts are true?
    • secrete type I collagen
    • secrete type II collagen
    • their nuclei contain great amount of heterochromatin
    • their nuclei do not contain nucleoli
    • contain a great amount of smooth ER
    Secrete type I collagen
  124. Following statements concerning osteoclasts are true except:
    • large acidophilic cells
    • contain numerous mitochondria in cytoplasm
    • are members of mononuclear phagocyte system
    • are located in Howship's lacunae
    • produce extracellular matrix
    Produce extracellular matrix
  125. Which of the following is the predominant protein in the fibers of bone matrix?
    • type I collagen
    • type II collagen
    • type III collagen
    • type IV collagen
    • type V collagen
    • type VII collagen
    Type I collagen
  126. Which of the following are true of haversian canals but false regarding Volkmann's canals?
    • are surrounded by concentric bony lamellae
    • carry nerve fibers
    • carry blood vessels
    • are found in compact bone
    • may be found in the diaphyses of adult long bones
    • are lined by endosteum
    • are lined by periosteum
    Are surrounded by concentric bony lamellae
  127. Which of the following are true of compact bone?
    • is the predominant bone tissue in the epiphyses of adult long bones
    • can be either primary or secondary bone
    • forms as the first during the bone healing
    • is also called cancellous bone
    • is characterized by the presence of osteons
    • is typically more radiolucent than other types of bone
    • is a lamellar bone
    • Is characterized by the presence of osteons
    • Is a lamellar bone
  128. Which of the follo • is continuous with the joint capsule
    • is attached to the surface of bone by Sharpey's fibers
    • lines the marrow cavity
    • lines central channels of osteons
    • contains mature osteocytes
    • contains preosteoblasts wing are true of endosteum?
    • lines the marrow cavity
    • lines central channels of osteons
    • contains preosteoblasts
  129. Contains an abundance of hydroxyapatite.
    • hyaline cartilage
    • bone
    • neither
    Bone
  130. Contains a lot of hyaluronic acid.
    • hyaline cartilage
    • bone
    • neither
    Hyaline cartilage
  131. Contains a great amount of free cells.
    • hyaline cartilage
    • bone
    • neither
    Neither
  132. Growth of long bones in width.
    • intramembranous ossification
    • enchondral ossification
    • neither
    Intramembranous ossification
  133. Cartilage directly changes into bone.
    • intramembranous ossification
    • enchondral ossification
    • neither
    Neither
  134. In the course of this process, osteoid is synthesized by osteoblasts.

    • intramembranous ossification
    • enchondral ossification
    • neither
    • intramembranous ossification
    • enchondral ossification
  135. The superficial lamina of a muscle fiber is a component of which of the following?
    • endomysium
    • epimysium
    • fascia
    • perimysium
    • sarcoplasmic reticulum
    Endomysium
  136. Which of the following are true of synaptic clefts of myoneural junctions?
    • are devoid of superficial lamina
    • each includes one primary and many secondary clefts
    • are structurally identical to large gap junctions
    • are abundant in cardiac muscle tissue
    • contain many mitochondria
    • are abundant in striated skeletal muscle tissue
    Each includes one primary and many secondary clefts

    Are abundant in striated skeletal muscle tissue
  137. Which of the following characteristics are unique to cardiomyocytes?
    • contain centrally located nuclei
    • mitochondria represent up to 40% of their volume
    • are striated
    • are multinucleated
    • lack T tubules
    • contain distinct myofibrils
    • contain diads
    • contain sarcoplasmic reticulum
    • contain triads
    • Mitochondria represent up to 40% of their volume
    • Contain diads
  138. Which of the following statements concerning smooth muscle cells are false?
    • do not contain myofibrils
    • contain troponin
    • contain desmin intermediate filaments
    • connected by numerous gap junctions
    • T tubules are developed
    • do not contain myofibrils
    • contain troponin
    • T tubules are developed
  139. Which of the following are true of unmyelinated axons of the central nervous system?
    • may be covered by Schwann cells
    • several may be covered by a single oligodendrocyte
    • may have nodes of Ranvier
    • occur in both gray and white matters
    • have a faster conduction velocity than myelinated axons
     occur in both gray and white matters
  140. Equipped with thorny spines.
    • Nissl substance
    • neurotubules
    • synaptic vesicles
    • axons
    • dendrites
    Dendrites
  141. Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes.
    • Nissl substance
    • neurotubules
    • synaptic vesicles
    • axons
    • dendrites
    Nissl substance
  142. Involved in transmission and secretion of neurotransmitters.
    • Nissl substance
    • neurotubules
    • synaptic vesicles
    • axons
    • dendrites
    Synaptic vesicles
  143. Involved in cytoplasmic transport.
    • Nissl substance
    • neurotubules
    • synaptic vesicles
    • axons
    • dendrites
    Neurotubules
  144. Myelinated processes.
    • Nissl substance
    • neurotubules
    • synaptic vesicles
    • axons
    • dendrites
    Axons
  145. Some of them line ventricles of the brain.
    • neurons
    • glial cells
    • neither
    Glial cells
  146. Some of them belong to mononuclear phagocyte system.
    • neurons
    • glial cells
    • neither
    Glial cells
  147. Which of the following statements concerning skeletal muscle fibers are false?
    • syncytial structures
    • joined to each other by intercalated disks
    • contain vimentin intermediate filaments
    • triads are at junctions of A and I bands
    • contain elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum
    •  joined to each other by intercalated disks
    •  contain vimentin intermediate filaments
  148. Which of the following are true of sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle?
    • is a specialized form of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    • expands to form terminal cisternae near the Z line
    • is an invagination of the sarcolemma
    • carries the acetylcholine receptors of the postsynaptic membrane
    • forms a sheath around each myofilament
    • surrounds myofibrils
    • is a specialized form of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    • surrounds myofibrils
  149. Which of the following are true of T tubules?
    • are evaginations of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    • sequester calcium ions during muscle relaxation
    • carry depolarization to the muscle fiber interior
    • are found overlying the A-I band junction in cardiac muscle cells
    • contain material of the superficial lamina
    • contain a rich supply of acetylcholine receptors
    • Carry depolarization to the muscle fiber interior
    • Contain material of the superficial lamina
  150. Which of the following are true of thin myofilaments?
    • globular heads project from each
    • contain myosin
    • are found in the A band
    • are anchored in the M lines
    • are found in the H band
    • are found in the I band
    • Are found in the A band
    • Are found in the I band
  151. Which of the following are true of intercalated disks?
    • are found only in smooth muscle
    • are autonomic myoneural junctions
    • consist of desmosomes, fasciae adherentes and gap junctions
    • are located at the M line
    • are the middle components of the triads
    • represent specialized junctional complexes
    • Consist of desmosomes, fasciae adherentes and gap junctions
    • Represent specialized junctional complexes
  152. Which of the following cell types are found only in white matter?

    • ependymal cells
    • fibrous astrocytes
    • microglia
    • oligodendrocytes
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • satellite cells
    • Schwann cells
    Fibrous astrocytes
  153. Which of the following statements about dendrites are false?
    • each has a constant diameter along its entire length
    • each neuron has only one
    • each ends with a typical terminal dilatation?
    • are found only in white matter
    • may contain ribosomes?
    • do not contain synaptic vesicles
    • are typically myelinated
    Each has a constant diameter along its entire length

    Each neuron has only one

    Are found only in white matter

    Are typically myelinated
  154. Which of the following cell types are found only in white matter?
    • ependymal cells
    • fibrous astrocytes
    • microglia
    • oligodendrocytes
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • satellite cells
    • Schwann cells
    fibrous astrocytes
  155. Which of the following are true of synaptic vesicles?
    • are found in terminal dilated portions of terminal branches of axons
    • are found in the synaptic cleft
    • contain lysosomal enzymes
    • bud directly from the rough endoplasmic reticulum
    • are found in dendrites near membrane
    Are found in terminal dilated portions of terminal branches of axons
  156. Which of the following statements about skeletal muscles are false?
    • contains abundant caveolae
    • contains intercalated disks
    • contains sarcomeres
    • contains sarcoplasmic reticulum
    • contains triads
    • contains numerous ribosomes
    • contains tropomyosin
    • contains T tubules
    • contains abundant caveolae
    • contains intercalated disks
    • contains numerous ribosomes
  157. The superficial lamina of a muscle fiber is a component of which of the following?
    • endomysium
    • epimysium
    • fascia
    • perimysium
    • sarcoplasmic reticulum
    endomysium
  158. Which of the following characteristics are unique to smooth muscle cells?
    • T tubules lie in the area of Z lines
    • each thick filament is surrounded by six thin filaments
    • thin filaments attach to dense bodies
    • are multinucleated
    • lack T tubules
    • have no distinct myofibrils
    • contain centrally located nuclei
    • thin filaments attach to dense bodies
    • lack T tubules
    • have no distinct myofibrils
  159. Contains sarcoplasmic reticulum.
    • skeletal muscle tissue
    • cardiac muscle tissue
    • smooth muscle tissue
    • no type of muscle tissue
    • Skeletal muscle tissue
    • Cardiac muscle tissue
    • Smooth muscle tissue
  160. exhibits motor-end-plates.
    • skeletal muscle tissue
    • cardiac muscle tissue
    • smooth muscle tissue
    • no type of muscle tissue
    Skeletal muscle tissue
  161. May provide myelin for several axons.
    • microglial cells
    • oligodendrocytes
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • fibrous astrocytes
    • Schwann cells
    • satellite cells
    • ependymal cells
    • none of the above
    Oligodendrocytes
  162. Surround perikaryons of neurons in ganglia.
    • microglial cells
    • oligodendrocytes
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • fibrous astrocytes
    • Schwann cells
    • satellite cells
    • ependymal cells
    • none of the above
    Satellite cells
  163. Characterized by glial end feet.
    • microglial cells
    • oligodendrocytes
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • fibrous astrocytes
    • Schwann cells
    • satellite cells
    • ependymal cells
    • none of the above
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • fibrous astrocytes
  164. Derived from monocytes.
    • microglial cells
    • oligodendrocytes
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • fibrous astrocytes
    • Schwann cells
    • satellite cells
    • ependymal cells
    • none of the above
    Microglial cells
  165. Line cavities of central nervous system.
    • microglial cells
    • oligodendrocytes
    • protoplasmic astrocytes
    • fibrous astrocytes
    • Schwann cells
    • satellite cells
    • ependymal cells
    • none of the above
    Ependymal cells
  166. Membrane depolarization occurs in skeletal muscle fibers in which order after acetylcholine crosses the synaptic cleft?
    • T tubule, terminal cisternae, sarcoplasmic reticulum, sarcolemma
    • sarcoplasmic reticulum, T tubule, presynaptic membrane, sarcolemma
    • terminal cisternae, sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum, caveolae
    • sarcolemma, T tubule, terminal cisternae, sarcoplasmic reticulum
    • sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum, T tubule, terminal cisternae
    Sarcolemma, T tubule, terminal cisternae, sarcoplasmic reticulum
  167. Which of the following statements concerning kardiomyocytes are false?
    • contain wider T tubules than skeletal muscle fibers
    • possesses 1 or 2 centrally located nuclei
    • do not contain myofibrils
    • gap junctions facilitate communication between them
    Do not contain myofibrils
  168. Which of the following are true of the thorny spines those project from dendrites?
    • often have a larger diameter than the dendrites themselves
    • typically contain numerous synaptic vesicles
    • represent the sites of synaptic contact with terminal dilated portions of terminal branches of axons
    • are found mainly at the nodes of Ranvier
    • are also called neurites
    Represent the sites of synaptic contact with terminal dilated portions of terminal branches of axons
  169. Which of the following statements are false of chemical synapses?
    • permit transmission of a nerve impulse in either direction
    • can occur between a dendrite and a neuron cell body
    • can contain some superficial lamina in the synaptic cleft
    • may contain acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft
    • postsynaptic membrane is in contact with the synaptic vesicles
    permit transmission of a nerve impulse in either direction

    can occur between a dendrite and a neuron cell body

    postsynaptic membrane is in contact with the synaptic vesicles
  170. May contain a rough endoplasmic reticulum.
    • axons
    • dendrites
    • neither
    Dendrites
  171. Contain Golgi complex:
    • axons
    • dendrites
    • neither
    Neither
  172. Covered by thorny spines.
    • axons
    • dendrites
    • neither
    Dendrites
  173. May be myelinated.
    • axons
    • dendrites
    • neither
    Axons
  174. Contain synaptic vesicles.
    • axons
    • dendrites
    • neither
    Axons
  175. How long do the erythrocytes approxi mately live in the circulation?
    • 8 days
    • 20 days
    • 5 weeks
    • 4 months
    • 1 year
    4 months
  176. Which of the following cytoplasmic components is (are) the main constituent of the dark precipate that forms in reticulocytes in response to staining with the vital dye cresyl blue?

    • Golgi Complex
    • Hemoglobin
    • Nucleoli
    • Nuclear fragments
    • Polyribosomes
    • SER
    • Spectrin
    Polyribosomes
  177. Which of the following is (are) true of mature granulocytes?
    • undergo mitosis
    • may cross capillary walls to enter connective tissue
    • cannot reenter the circulation
    • may eventually differentiate into tissue macrophages
    • May cross capillary walls to enter connective tissue
    • Cannot reenter the circulation
  178. Which of the following statements concerning eosinophils is (are) false?
    • peripheral blood contains more eosinophils than neutrophils
    • specific granules of eosinophils are modified lysosomes
    • peripheral blood contains fewer eosinophils than lymphocytes
    • peripheral blood contains fewer eosinophils than basophils
    • are capable of phagocytosis
    peripheral blood contains more eosinophils than neutrophils

    peripheral blood contains fewer eosinophils than basophils
  179. Which of the following blood elements agranulocytes that become phagocytic after enter the connective tissue?
    • basophils
    • eosinophils
    • erythrocytes
    • lymphocytes
    • monocytes
    • neutrophils
    • platelets
    Monocytes
  180. Which of the following processes occour(s) during granulocytes maturation but not during erythrocytes maturation?
    • Cells eventually lose their capacity for mitosis
    • Cytoplasmic content of hemaglobin increases
    • Nuclear euchromatin content increases
    • Nucleus become increasingly lobulated
    • Nucleus is expelled
    • overall cell diamter generally decreases
    • overall nuclear sizes decreases
    Nucleus become increasingly lobulated
  181. Which of the following cell types typically contains the largest and most easily visualized nucleous?
    • erythrocyte
    • basophilic erythroblast
    • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
    • polychromatophilic erythroblast
    • proerythroblast
    • reticulocytes
    Nucleus become increasingly lobulated
  182. Derived from blood monocytes.
    • lymphocyte
    • macrophage
    • reticular cells
    • plasma cells
    Macrophage
  183. Secrete immunoglobulins.
    • lymphocyte
    • macrophage
    • reticular cells
    • plasma cells
    Plasma cells
  184. Primary cellular component of stroma hemopoietic organ.
    • lymphocyte
    • macrophage
    • reticular cells
    • plasma cells
    Reticular cells
  185. 185) Contain largest amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum of listed cells
    • • lymphocyte
    • • macrophage
    • • reticular cells
    • • plasma cells
    • ans
    • • plasma cells
  186. Nucleus is expelled.
    • erythropoiesis
    • granulopoiesis
    • neither
    erythropoiesis
  187. Cells eventually lose their capacity for mitosis.
    • erythropoiesis
    • granulopoiesis
    • neither
    • Erythropoiesis
    • Granulopoiesis
  188. Which of the following statements about spectrin molecules is (are) true?
    • are bound to plasma membrane outer leaflet
    • help to maintain shape of erythrocytes
    • are associated with cytokeratin filaments
    help to maintain shape of erythrocytes
  189. Which of the following is true of erythrocytes?
    • enter the circulation only after becoming fully mature
    • undergo mitosis in the circulation only after becoming fully mature
    • are removed from circulation by macrophages after approximately 120 days
    • contain mitochondria and are capable of oxidative phosphorylation
    • Have precursor that produce hemoglobin
    are removed from circulation by macrophages after approximately 120 days

    Have precursor that produce hemoglobin
  190. Which of the following statements concerning plateletes is (are) false?
    • aggregates when exposed to collagen
    • are megakaryocyte fragments
    • contain a small condensed nucleus
    • are limited by a cell membrane
    • peripheral blood contains fewer platelets than erythrocytes
    contain a small condensed nucleus
  191. Which of the following is (are) true of monocytes?
    • their precursor are situated in the bone marrow
    • typically remain in the circulationfor several weeks
    • have no cytoplasmic granules
    • may differentiate into macrophages
    • Their precursor are situated in the bone marrow
    • May differentiate into macrophages
  192. Which of the following cell types are capable of further mitosis after leaving the hematopoietic organ in which they were formed?
    • basophil
    • eosinophil
    • erythrocyte
    • lymphocytes
    • neutrophil
    • platelete
    Lymphocytes
  193. In which of the following cells are azurophillic granules are not observed?
    • basal form of granulocytes
    • mature form of granulocytes
    • metamyelocyte
    • myeloblast
    • myelocyte
    • promyelocyte
    Myeloblast
  194. Which cell types have a cytoplasm with roughly equal amounts of basophilic and acidophilic components?
    • basophillic erythoblast
    • orthchromatophillic erythroblast
    • polychromatophilic erythroblast
    • proerythroblast
    • reticulocytes
    Polychromatophilic erythroblast
  195. Largest cell of the erythrocyte precursor.
    • proerythroblast
    • reticulocytes
    • erythrocytes
    • basophillic erythroblast
    • polychromatophilic erythroblast
    • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
    Proerythroblast
  196. incapable of mitosis.
    • proerythroblast
    • reticulocytes
    • erythrocytes
    • basophillic erythroblast
    • polychromatophilic erythroblast
    • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
    • reticulocytes
    • erythrocytes
    • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
  197. Contains a pycnotic nucleus.
    • proerythroblast
    • reticulocytes
    • erythrocytes
    • basophillic erythroblast
    • polychromatophilic erythroblast
    • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
    orthochromatophilic erythroblast
  198. Stage of haemoglobin synthesis beginning.
    • proerythroblast
    • reticulocytes
    • erythrocytes
    • basophillic erythroblast
    • polychromatophilic erythroblast
    • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
    Proerythroblast
  199. Overall nuclear size decreases.
    • erythropoiesis
    • granulopoiesis
    • neither
    Erythropoiesis
  200. Euchromatic content generally increases.
    • erythropoiesis
    • granulopoiesis
    • neither
    Neither
  201. What of the following is true of megakaryotcytes?
    • is multinucleated
    • is formed by the fusion of many haploid cells
    • serves as a precursor to the bone marrow marophages
    • is located primarily in the spleen
    • its cell membrane form deep invagination
    • contains one large lobated polyploid nucleus
    • its cell membrane form deep invagination
    • contains one large lobated polyploid nucleus
  202. Which of the following is (are) the most widely held theory of hematopoiesis?
    • medullolymphatic theory
    • monophyletic theory
    • monopoietic theory
    • polyphyletic theory
    Monophyletic theory
  203. Which of the following cells are incapable of further mitosis?
    • erythrocytes
    • basophilic erythroblast
    • orthochromatophillic erythroblast
    • polychromatophillic
    • reticulocytes
    • erythrocytes
    • orthochromatophillic erythroblast
    • reticulocytes
  204. Earliest stage at which specific granulocytes types can be differentiated from one another.
    • myeloblast
    • promyelocyte
    • myelocyte
    • metamyelocytes
    • band form of granulocytes
    • mature form of granulocytes
    Myelocyte
  205. Earliest stage of granulopoiesis.
    • myeloblast
    • promyelocyte
    • myelocyte
    • metamyelocytes
    • band form of granulocytes
    • mature form of granulocytes
    Myeloblast
  206. Stage at which azurophilic granules first appear.
    • myeloblast
    • promyelocyte
    • myelocyte
    • metamyelocytes
    • band form of granulocytes
    • mature form of granulocytes
    Promyelocyte
  207. Stage at which specific granules first appear.
    • myeloblast
    • promyelocyte
    • myelocyte
    • metamyelocytes
    • band form of granulocytes
    • mature form of granulocytes
    Myelocyte
  208. 208) Contains most basophilic cytoplasm.
    • myeloblast
    • promyelocyte
    • myelocyte
    • metamyelocytes
    • band form of granulocytes
    • mature form of granulocytes
    Promyelocyte
  209. 209) First cell type in series incapable of mitosis.
    • myeloblast
    • promyelocyte
    • myelocyte
    • metamyelocytes
    • band form of granulocytes
    • mature form of granulocytes
    Metamyelocytes
  210. 210) Which of the following statements concerning erythrocytes are true?
    • mature red blood cells are incapable of protein synthesis
    • red blood cells lack nucleoli throughout their life cycle
    • mature red blood cells contain inactive rER
    • mature red blood cells contain sER
    Mature red blood cells are incapable of protein synthesis

    Red blood cells lack nucleoli throughout their life cycle
  211. 211) Which of the following are true of the darker staining central region of human platelets?
    • contains the marginal bundle of microtubules
    • contains the platelet's nucleus
    • contains the dense granules
    • is termed the hyalomere
    • is termed the central pallor
    Contains the dense granules
  212. 212) Which of the following are true of specific granules of leukocytes?
    • may be found in lymphocytes
    • may be found in monocytes
    • may be found in platelets
    • are large lysosomal transport vesicles
    • may contain lactoferrin and lysozyme
    • may contain basic rich in arginin
    • Are large lysosomal transport vesicles
    • May contain lactoferrin and lysozyme
  213. 213) Which of the following blood elements are most numerous of the circulation under physiological conditions in adults?
    • basophils
    • eosinophils
    • erythrocytes
    • lymphocytes
    • monocytes
    • neutrocytes
    • platelets
    Erythrocytes

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