General Chemistry MCAT flashcards..txt

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General Chemistry MCAT flashcards..txt
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General chemistry topic. Test. Up to chapter 6
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  1. Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for Zn2+? A: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s0 3d10 B: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 C: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 D: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s0 3d8
    A
  2. Which of the following quantum number sets is possible? A: n=2; l=2; ml = 1; ms = +1/2 B: n=2; l=1; ml = -1; ms = +1/2 C: n=2; l=0; ml = -1; ms = -1/2 D: n=2; l=0; ml = 1; ms = -1/2
  3. What is the maximum number of electrons allowed in a single atomic energy level in terms of the principal quantum number n? A:2n B:2n+2 C:2n^2 D:2n^2 +2
    C
  4. Which of the following equations describes the maximum number of electrons that can fill a subshell? A: 2l+2 B: 4l+2 C: 2l^2 D: 2l^2+2
    B
  5. Which of the following atoms only has paired electrons in its ground state? A: Sodium, B:Iron, C: Cobalt, D: Helium
    D
  6. An electron returns from an excited state to its ground state, emitting a photon at ⋌ =500nm. What would be the magnitude of the energy change if one mole of these photon were emitted? (Note: h=6.626 x 10^-34J). A: 3.98 x 10^-21J B:3.98 x 10^-19J C: 2.39 x 10^3J D: 2.39 x 10^5J
    D
  7. Suppose an electron falls from n=4 to its ground state, n=1. Which of the following effects is most likely? A: A photon is absorbed B: A photon is emitted C: The electron moves into a p-orbital D: The electron moves into a d-orbital
    B
  8. Which of the following isotopes of carbon is LEAST likely to be found in nature? A: 6C B: 12C C:13C D: 14C
    A
  9. Which of the following best explains the inability to measure position and momentum exactly and simultaneously according to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle? A: Imprecision in the definition of the meter and kilogram B: Limit on accuracy of existing scientific instruments C: Error in one variable is increased by attempts to measure the other: D: Discrepancies between the masses of nuclei and of their component particles.
    C
  10. Which of the following electronic transitions would result in the greatest gain in energy for a single hydrogen electron? A: An electron moves from n=6 to n=2 B: An electron moves from n=2 to n=6 C: An electron moves from n=3 to n=4 D: An electron moves n=4 to n=3
    B
  11. How many total electrons are in a 133Cs cation? A: 54, B: 55, C: 78, D: 133
    A
  12. The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1.008 amu. What is the percent composition of hydrogen by isotope, assuming that hydrogen's only isotopes are 1H and 2D? A: 92% H, 8%D. B: 92.2% H, 0.8%D. C: 92.92% H, 0.08%D. D: 92.992% H, 0.008%D.
    B
  13. Which of the following species is represented by the electron configuration 1s^22s^22p^63s^23p^64s^13d^5? I. CR II. Mn+ III. Fr2+ A: I only B: I and II only C: II and III only D: I, II, and III.
    B
  14. Lithium and Sodium have similar chemical properties. For example, both can form ionic bonds with chloride. Which of the following best explains this similarity? A: Both Lithium and Sodium ions are positively charged. B: Lithium and Sodium are in the same group of the Periodic table. C: Lithium and Sodium are in the same period of the Periodic table. D: Both Lithium and Sodium have low atomic weights.
    B
  15. Carbon and Silicon are the basis of biological life synthetic computing, respectively. While these elements share many chemical properties, which of the following best describes a difference between the two elements? A: Carbon has a smaller atomic radius than silicon. B: Silicon has a smaller atomic radius than Carbon. C: Carbon has fewer valence electrons than silicon. D: Silicon has fewer valence electrons than Carbon.
    A
  16. What determines the length of an element's atomic radius? I. The number of valence electrons. II. The number of electron shells. III. The number of neutrons in the nucleus... A: I only. B: II only. C:I and II only. D: I, II and III
    C
  17. Ionization energy contributes to an atom's chemical reactivity. Which of the following shows an accurate ranking of ionization energies from lowest to highest? A: First Be < second Be < first Li B: First Be < first Li < second Be C: First Li < First Be < second Be D: First Li < Second Be < First Be
    C
  18. Antimony is used in some anti parasitic medications - specifically those targeting Leishmania donovani. What type of element is antimony? A: Metal BL Metalloid C: Halogen D: Nonmetal.
    B.
  19. What elemental properties change left to right on the periodic table?
    • Atomic radius decrease
    • Ionization energy increase
    • Ionization affinity increase
    • Electronegativity Increase
  20. What elemental properties change top to bottom on the periodic table?
    • Atomic radius increase
    • Ionization energy decreases
    • Electron affinity decreases
    • Electronegativity decreases
  21. Metals are often used for making wires that conduct electricity. Which of the following properties of metals explains why? A: Metals are malleable B: Metals have low electronegativities C: Metals have valence electrons that can move freely. D: Metals have high melting points.
    C
  22. When dissolved in water, which of the following ions is most likely to form a complex ion with H2O? A: Na+ B: Fe2+ C: Cl- D: S2-
    B
  23. How many valence electrons are present in elements in the third period? A: 2 B:3 C: The numbers decreases as the atomic number increases D: The number increases as the atomic number increases.
    D
  24. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity? A: Mg B: Cl C: Zn D: I
    B
  25. Which of the following atoms or ions has the largest nuclear charge? A: Cl B: Cl- C: K D: K+
    D
  26. Why do halogens often form ionic bonds with alkaline earth metals? A: The Alkaline earth metals have much higher electron affinities than the halogens. B: By sharing electrons equally, the alkaline earth metals and halogens both form full octets. C: Within the same row, the halogens have smaller atomic radii than the alkaline earth metals. D: The halogens have much higher electron affinities than the alkaline earth metals.
    D
  27. What is the highest-energy orbital of elements with electrons in the N=3 shell? A: s-orbital B: p-orbital C: d-orbital D: f-orbital.
    C
  28. What is the character of the bond in carbon monoxide? A: Ionic B: Polar covalent C: Nonpolar covalent D: coordinate covalent
    B
  29. Which of the following molecules contains the oxygen atom with the most negative formal charge? A: H20 B: CO3^2- C: O3 D: CH2O
    B
  30. Which of the following correctly ranks the compounds below by ascending boiling point? I. Acetone II. KCl III. Kr IV. Isopropyl alcohol. A: I
    D
  31. Both CO3^2- and CIF3 have three atoms bonded to a central atom. What is the best explanation for why CO3^2- has trigonal planar electronic geometry, while CIF3 has trigonal bipyramidal electronic geometry? A: CO3^2- has multiple resonance structures, while CIF3 does not. B: CO3^2- has a charge of -2, while CIF3, has no charge. C: CIF3 has lone pairs on its central atom, while CO3^2- has none D: CO3^2- has lone pairs on its central atom, while CIF3 has none.
    C
  32. Which of the following has the largest dipole? A: HCN B: H2O C: CCl4 D: SO2
    A
  33. Despite the fact that both C2H2 and HCN contain triple bonds, the lengths of these triple bonds are not equal. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding? A: in C2H2, the bonds shorter because it is between atoms of the same element. B: The two molecules have different resonance structures. C: Carbon is more electronegative than hydrogen. D: Nitrogen is more electronegative than carbon.
    D
  34. Which of the following is the best explanation of the phenomenon of hydrogen bonding? A: Hydrogen has a strong affinity for holding onto valence electrons. B: Hydrogen can only hold two valence electrons. C: Electronegative atoms disproportionately carry shared electron pairs when bonded to hydrogen. D: Hydrogen bonds have ionic character.
    C
  35. Which of the following best describes the number and character of the bonds in an ammonium cation? A: Three polar covalent bonds B: Four polar covalent bonds, of which none are coordinate covalent bond C: Four polar covalent bonds, of which one are coordinate covalent bond D: Four polar covalent bonds, of which two are coordinate covalent bond
    C
  36. Although the octet rule dictates much of molecular structure, some atoms can violate the octet rule by being surrounded by more than eight electrons. Which of the following is the best explanation for why some atoms can exceed the octet ? A: Atoms that exceed the octet already have eight electrons in their outermost electron shell. B: Atoms that exceed the octet only do so when bonding which transition metals. C: Atoms that exceed the octet can do so because they have d-orbitals in which extra electrons can reside. D: Some atoms can exceed the octet because they are highly electronegative.
    C
  37. Both Bf3 and NH3 have three atoms bonded to the central atom. Which of the following is the best explanation for why the geometry of these two molecules is different. A: Bf3 has three bonded atoms and no lone pairs, which makes its geometry trigonal pyramidal B: NH3 is non polar, while BF3 is polar. C: NH3 has three bonded atoms and one lone pair, which makes its geometry trigonal pyramidal. D: BF3 is non polar, while NH3 is polar.
    C
  38. Which of the following best describes an important property of bond energy. A: Bond energy increases with increasing bond length. B: The more shared electron pairs comprising a bond, the higher the energy of that bond. C: Single bonds are more difficult to break than double bonds. D: Bond energy and bond length are unrelated.
    B
  39. Which of the following best describes ionic compounds? A: Ionic compounds are formed from molecules containing two or more atoms. B: Ionic compounds are formed of charged particles and are measured by molecular weight. C: Ionic compounds are formed of charged particles that share electrons equally. D: Ionic compounds are three- dimensional arrays of charged particles.
    D
  40. Which of the following compound has a formula weight between 74 and 75 grams per mole. A: KCl B: C4H10O C: MgCl2 D: BF3
    A
  41. Which of the following is the farm equivalent weight of H2SO4 with respect to protons. A: 49.1g B: 98.1g C: 147.1g D: 196.2g
    A
  42. In which of the following compounds is the percent composition of carbon by mass closest to 62 percent. A: Acetone B: Ethanol C: C3H8 D: Methanol
    A
  43. What is the most specific characteristic of the reaction shown? Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) -- CaSO4 (aq) + H20 (l) ... A: single-displacement B: Neutralization C: Double-displacement D: Oxidation- displacement.
    B
  44. In the reaction shown, if 39.05g of NaS are reacted with 113.3f of Ag NO3, how much of the excess reagent with be left over once the reaction has gone to completion? NaS + 2AgNO3 --- Ag2S + 2NaNO3. A: 13.0g Na2S B: 26.0g Na2S C: 41.4g AgNO3 D: 74.3g AgNO3
    A
  45. Aluminum metal can be used to remove tarnish from silver when the two solid metals are placed in water, according to the following reaction: 3AgO + 2Al -- 3Ag +Al2O3 .. this reaction is a: I. double-displacement reaction II. Single-displacement reaction III. Oxidation-reduction reaction IV: Combination reaction. . A: II only B: IV only C: I and III only D: II and III only.
    D
  46. Which of the following types of reactions generally have the same number of reactants and products. I. Double - displacement reaction II. Single-displacement reactions III. Combination reactions .. A: I only B: II only C: I and II only D: II and III only
    C
  47. A reaction that utilizes oxygen and hydrocarbons as reactant and that produces carbon dioxide and water as products is best characterized as: A: Single-displacement B: Combustion C: Metathesis D: Decomposition
    B
  48. In the process of photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water combine with energy to form glucose and oxygen, according to the following equation: CO2 + H2O -- C6H12O6 +O2. What is the theoretical yield of glucose if 30g of water are reacted with excess carbon dioxide and energy, according to the equation above? A: 30.0g B: 50.0g C: 300.1g D: 1801g
    B
  49. In the following reaction: Au2S3(s) + H2(g) -- Au(s) + H2S(g) if w moles of Au2S3(s) is reacted with 5 moles of hydrogen base, what is the limiting reagent. A: Au2S3(s) B: H2(g) C: Au (s) D: H2S (g)
    B
  50. Which of the following would make the strongest electrolytic solution? A: A nonpolar covalent compound with significant solubility B: An ionic compound composed of one cation with +3 charge and three anions with -1 charge. C: A polar covalent compound with a small dissociation constant D: An Ionic compound composed of two cations with +1 charge and one anion with -2 charge.
    B
  51. What is the molecular formula of a compound with an empirical formula B2H5 and a molar mass of 53.2g/mol? A: B2H5 B: B3H7 C: B4H10 D: B6H15
    C
  52. In a third-order reaction involving two reactants and two products, doubling the concentration of the first reactant causes the rate to increase by a factor of 2. What will happen to the rate of this reaction if the concentration of the second reaction is cut in half? A: It will increase by a factor of 2. B: It will increase by a factor of 4. C: It will decrease by a factor of 4. It will decrease by a factor of 4.
    D
  53. In a certain equilibrium process, the activation energy of the forward reaction is greater than the activation energy of the reverse reaction. this reaction is? A: Endothermic, B: exothermic, C: Spontaneous D: Non spontaneous
    D
  54. A reactant in a second-order reaction at a certain temperature is increased by a factor of 4. By how much is the rate of the reaction altered? A: It is unchanged B: it is increased by a factor of 4 C: It is increased by a factor of 16. D: It cannot be determined from the information given.
    D
  55. The concentrations of all reactants in a zero-order reaction are increased twofold. What is the new rate of the reaction? A: It is unchanged B: It is decreased by a factor of 2 C: It is increased by a factor of 2 D: It cannot be determined from the information given.
    A.
  56. Which of the following experimental methods should never affect the rate of a reaction? A: Placing an exothermic reaction in an ice bath B: Increasing the pressure of a reactant in a closed container. C: Putting the reactants into an aqueous solution. D: Removing the product of an irreversible reaction.
    D
  57. What would increasing the concentration of reactions accomplish in a solution containing the saturated catalyst? AL It would increase the rate of constant but nor the reaction rate. B: It would decrease the rate constant but increase the reaction rate. C: It would increase the rate constant and increase the reaction rate. D: The reaction rate would be unaffected.
    D
  58. A certain chemical reaction has the following rate law: rate = k[NO2][Br2]. Which of the following statements necessarily describes the kinetics of this reaction? I. The reaction is second order. II. The amount of NO2 consumed is equal to the amount of Br2 consumed. III. The rate will not be affected by the addition of a compound other than NO2 and Br2.. A: I only B: I and II only C: II and III only D: I and II and III.
    A
  59. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a catalyst? A: Catalysts are used up in the reaction, increasing reaction efficiency. B: Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction by lowering the activation energy. C: Catalysts alert the thermodynamics of the reaction to facilitate the formation of products or reactants. D: Catalysts stabilize the transition state by bringing it to a higher energy.
    B.
  60. If the rate law for a reaction is: rate=k[A]^0[B]^2[C]^1. What is the overall order of the reaction? A: 0 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4
    C
  61. A reaction is found to stop just before all reactants are converted to products. Which of the following could be true about this reaction? A: The reaction is irreversible, and the forward rate is greater than the reverse rate. B: The reaction is irreversible, and the reverse rate is too large for products to form. C: The reaction is reversible, and the forward rate is equal to the reverse rate. D: The reaction is reversible, and the reverse rate is greater than the forward rate.
    C
  62. Carbonated beverages are produced by dissolving carbon dioxide in water to produce carbonic acid: CO2(g) + H2O(l) <---> H2CO3(aq) When a bottle containing carbonated water is opened, the fast of the beverage gradual changed as the carbon is lost. Which of the soloing statement best describes this phenomenon? A: The change in pressure and volume causes the reaction to shift to the left, thereby decreasing the amount of aq carbonic acid. B: The change in pressure and volume causes the rxn to shift to the R, thereby decreasing the amount of gaseous carbon dioxide. C: Carbonic acid reacts with the environmental oxygen and nitrogen. D: Carbon dioxide reacts with environmental oxygen and nitrogen.
    A
  63. If Kc >>1: A: The equilibrium mixture will favor products over reactants. B: the equilibrium mixture will favor reactants over products. C: The equilibrium concentrations of reactants and products are equal. D: The run is essential irreversible.
    A
  64. Acetic acid dissociated in solution according to the following equation: CH3COOH <--> CH3COO- + H+, If sodium acetate is added to a solution of acetic acid in excess water, which of the following effects would be observed in the solution? A: Decreased pH B: Increased pH, C: Decreased pKeq (pKa) D: Increased pKeq (pKa)
    B
  65. Which of the following actions does NOT affect the equilibrium position of a reaction? A: Adding or subtracting heat B: Adding or removing catalyst C: Increasing or decreasing concentrations of reactants. D: Increasing or decreasing volumes of reactants.
    B
  66. In a sealed aL container, 1 mole of nitrogen gas reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen fas to form 0.05moles of NH3 at equilibrium. Which of the following is closest to the Kc of the reaction? A: 0.0001 B: 0.001 C: 0.01 D: 0.1
    A
  67. Increasing temperature can alter the Keq of a rxn. Why might increasing temperature indefinitely be unfavorable for changing reaction conditions? A: The equilibrium constant has a definite limit that cannot be surpassed. B: The products or reactants can decompose at high temps. C: Increasing temperature would decrease pressure, which may or may not alter reaction conditions. D: If a reaction is irreversible, its Keq ill resist changes in temperature.
  68. Which of the following is true of equilibrium? I. An increase in K_1 results in a decrease in K_-1. II. As the concentration of products increases, the concentrations of reactants decreases. III. The equilibrium constant is altered by changes in temp. A: I only B: II and III only. C: I and III only, D: I and II and III
    B
  69. Compound A has a K_a (equilibrium constant of acid dissociation) of approximately 10^-4. which of the following compounds is most likely to react with a solution of compound A? A: HNO3 B: NO2 C: NH3 D: N2O5
    C

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