IFR INRAT QUESTIONS

Card Set Information

Author:
bharris
ID:
303830
Filename:
IFR INRAT QUESTIONS
Updated:
2015-06-11 20:56:27
Tags:
IFR INRAT aviation Canada instrumentrating
Folders:

Description:
Questions relating to the IFR INRAT exam in Canada.
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user bharris on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. A clearance or instruction is only valid...?
    After being acknowledged by the crew, and in controlled airspace.
  2. An IFR aircraft is being radar vectored. Who is responsible for collision avoidance and obstacle clearance?
    ATC
  3. Airborne weather radar best reflects...? Does the size matter?
    liquid water (rain) reflects best and large droplets reflect better than small droplets
  4. At a VOR checkpoint your aircrafts DME should be accurate to +/-...?
    0.5NM
  5. ATC should be advised when the TAS in cruise varies by more than __ from the flight planned speed.
    5%
  6. What is the lowest usable flight level when the altimeter setting is higher than 29.92?
    FL180
  7. When does the altimeter setting affect the lowest usable flight level?
    When the altimeter setting is lower than 29.92
  8. What are the dimensions of a low level airway with a VOR to NDB?
    width is 4.34NM on each side, splay is 5° and length to the splay is 49.66NM
  9. What are the dimensions of a low level airway with a VOR to VOR?
    width is 4NM on each side, splay is 4.5° and length to the splay is 50.8NM
  10. What height is RVSM?
    FL290 to FL410 inclusive
  11. NDBs are flight checked to an accuracy of at least __ degrees for approach and __ degrees for en-route navigation.
    5, 10
  12. When being radar vectored, is the PIC or ATC responsible for obstacle and terrain clearance?
    ATC
  13. A stable, very cold, dry air mass is...?
    Continental arctic
  14. Maximum speed below 10,000ASL?
    250kts
  15. Maximum speed below 3000 AGL within 10 NM of a controlled airport?
    200kts
  16. If an NBD or VOR station identification signal has been removed, it indicates what?
    The transmitter is undergoing calibration or maintenance
  17. What are the dimensions of the localizer coverage?
    10NM is 35° and 18NM is 10°
  18. The tolerance of published VOR airway radials is maintained by Nav Canada to within how many degrees?
    +/- 3°
  19. Tolerances for checking a VOR on the ground is __ and for the air __?
    +/- 4° on the ground and air.
  20. VOR is set to 360 with a to flag and needle deflected right, where are you?
    South West of the station
  21. VOR is set to 270 with a TO flag and needle right, where are you?
    South East of the station
  22. VOR set 270 with a FROM flag and needle left, where are you?
    North West of the station
  23. ADF night effect error is most pronounced with...?
    Higher frequency stations
  24. NDB systems are maintained by Nav Canada to an accuracy of at least __ for an approach and __ for en route navigation.
    +/- 5° for approach and +/- 10° for enroute
  25. ADF bearing accuracy can be affected by precipitation static, thunderstorm effect and night effect in the same way. Which error is common to all three?
    Causes the bearing pointer to fluctuate excessively
  26. Precipitation static is most pronounced in...?
    Snow and/or ice crystals
  27. ADF thunderstorm effect in addition to causing erratic fluctuations of the bearing pointer may cause...?
    The bearing indicator to point to a thunderstorm
  28. Costal refraction error is greatest when the wave signal being received by an offshore aircraft crosses the coastline at an angle of...?
    less than 30°
  29. ADF night effect is caused when...?
    Sky waves returning to the earth interfere with ground waves
  30. Can a civilian aircraft equipped with DME obtain distance information from a military TACAN station?
    Yes, by selecting the paired VOR frequency found on Canadian IFR charts
  31. A combined civilian/military VORTAC station can provide civilian aircraft with...?
    DME information & radials (bearing information)
  32. DME experiences the greatest slant range error when flying...?
    High altitude and short distance from the station.
  33. How does a DME operate?
    The measurement of the time difference between the transmission of an aircraft interrogating signal and the receipt of a matched pulse reply signal from a ground station (the 2 signals having difference frequencies)
  34. What is the formula for determining the time remaining to the station?
    time in seconds between radial change/degrees of radial change = time to station in minutes
  35. What is the VOR reception distance formula?
    1.23(√height above staion AGL) = reception distance
  36. CDI full scale deflection represents a total of how many degrees when referencing an ILS/Localizer signal?
    2.5°
  37. On an ILS localizer frequency, one dot equals how many degrees off?
    0.5°
  38. ILS glide paths are normally adjusted to an approach of __ degrees. The beam width or depth of the glide path is...?
    3° and beam width of 1.4°
  39. Can a RMI reference NDB? VOR?
    Can reference both
  40. GPS is a space-based navigation system which has the capability of providing...?
    Position, heading, ground speed and altitude information
  41. One key factor to GPS accuracy in providing a three-dimensional position is...?
    Having good satellites geometry
  42. A VORTAC-defined RNAV "waypoint" is...?
    A geographical position determined by a VOR radial and DME distance
  43. Which type of surveillance radar detects weather?
    Primary surveillance radar
  44. You are flying 160NM away from an ATC radar site, on initial contact a radar controller tells you that your aircraft is "radar identified". What type of radar transmitter is ATC using?
    SSR (secondary surveillance radar)
  45. How many GPS satellites are required to obtain a three dimensional position fix for an aircraft?
    4
  46. For a GNSS approach at an alternate, in addition to having a functioning traditional nav aid, what else is required?
    approach-level RAIM must be available at the alternate aerodrome at the expected time of arrival.
  47. To take credit for a GNSS based approach at an alternate, what must be met?
    Usable approach served by a functioning traditional nav aid, not more than 1 satellite outage is predicted for a period of 60 minutes before or after the ETA, for GPS units that are capable the RAIM must be checked at least once before the mid point.
  48. To operate IFR in class F airspace:
    The pilot must notify ATC that they have obtained permission from the user, and then clearance will be provided.
  49. An aircraft operated in IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow a propeller-driven aeroplane:
    Where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes; or where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes.
  50. Instrument approaches for general aviation are governed by what?
    RVR
  51. What is the minima to be approach banned in general aviation?
    RVR A only 1200, RVR A 1200 RVR B 600, RVR B only 1200
  52. The PIC of an IFR aircraft who intends to conduct an approach to or a landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall report
    • Five minutes before conducting the approach, stating estimated landing time when circling, and in the missed approach; and when passing the fix outbound; when passing the FAF or three minutes before the estimated
    • time of landing where no FAF exists, and on final
  53. Pilots may take credit for a GNSS (GPS or WAAS) approach at an alternate aerodrome, provided that:
    • •An approach completely independent of GNSS at the planned destination is expected to be available at the ETA.
    • •The published LNAV minima are the lowest landing limits for which credit may be taken when determining alternate aerodrome weather minima requirements. No credit may be taken for LNAV/VNAV or LPV minima;
    • •The pilot-in-command verifies that LNAV approach-level RAIM or WAAS integrity is expected to be available at the planned alternate ETA, taking into account predicted satellite outages; and
    • •For GPS TSO C129/C129a avionics, periodically during the flight, and at least once before the mid-point of the flight to the destination, the pilot-in-command verifies that approach-level RAIM is expected to be
    • available at the planned alternate ETA.
  54. What is the alternate minima for no IFR approach?
    Forecast weather must be no lower than 500ft above the minimum IFR altitude that would permit a VFR approach and landing.
  55. If only a GFA is available, what is the alternate minima?
    No cloud lower than 1000ft above the lowest usable HAT/HAA, no cumulonimbus and visibility must be at least 3 SM
  56. What is the alternate minima for aerodromes served by aerodrome advisory only?
    No cloud lower than 500ft above the lowest usable HAT/HAA and at least 3 SM visibility.
  57. Alternate minima for non precision approach only?
    800-2 or 300-1 above the lowest usable HAT/HAA
  58. The use of straight in minima is predicated on the pilot having what?
    Wind direction and speed and runway condition reports to conduct a safe landing.
  59. What are the approach ban exceptions?
    The report is received past the FAF or at interception of final approach coarse, on a training flight with the intention of going missed, RVR is varying above and below the minimum, RVR is reported below minimum but the ground visibility is reported at least 1/4 mile, conducting a precision approach to CAT III minima.
  60. What is the spec vis for each category?
    A 1SM, B 1 1/2SM, C 2SM, D 2SM
  61. On a standard departure, what performance is the aircraft expected to meet?
    Cross at least 35ft at the departure end of the runway, climb on runway heading to 400ft AAE before turning, maintain a climb gradient of at least 200ft per NM
  62. ATC may issue an IFR clearance for an aircraft to depart, climb or descend VFR until a specified time, altitude, or location provided:
    • The pilot requests it; the aircraft is outside Class A airspace; the aircraft is within Class B airspace at or below 12 500 ft ASL or within
    • Class C, D or E airspace; and the weather conditions permit.
  63. If an IFR departure is not assessed, can you take off in IMC?
    Yes, but it is up to the PIC to determine if the aircraft can maintain a climb gradient that will avoid all obstacles and terrain.
  64. TODA means:
    The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway
  65. When A SID requires a pilot to fly runway heading, is there wind correction to the heading flown?
    No
  66. How long before engine start should you contact ground for IFR clearance?
    Not more than 5 minutes
  67. What is the timing for a standard holding pattern?
    Below 14000 ASL 1 minute and above 14000 ASL 1 minute 30 seconds
  68. Are radar vectoring altitudes assigned by ATC cold weather corrected?
    Yes
  69. When altitude corrections are being applied to __, __ and __ pilots should advise ATC how much correction is being applied.
    FAF crossing altitude, procedure turn, missed approach altitude
  70. What is the maximum setting that most altimeters are capable of?
    31.00
  71. A summer/winter warm/cold front will produce the most turbulence?
    summer cold front
  72. Severe turbulence may extend up to __NM from a thunderstorm?
    20NM
  73. The probability of lightning strikes is greatest between what temperatures?
    -5° and +5°
  74. What 3 things do thunderstorms require to form?
    Steep lapse rate (unstable air), high moisture content and a lifting agent.
  75. In the three stages of a thunderstorm, where are there down/updrafts?
    Cumulus stage is updrafts, mature stage is updrafts and downdrafts, and dissipating stage is downddrafts
  76. The IFR OUTLOOK in a GFA is based on:
    • VFR - ceilings better than 3,000 feet AGL and more than 5 sm visibility.
    • MVFR - ceilings between 1,000 and 3,000 feet AGL or visibilities between 3 and 5 sm.
    • IFR - ceilings less than 1,000 feet AGL or visibility's less than 3 sm
  77. A pitot-static test on an IFR aircraft must be completed every:
    2 years
  78. What is gyroscopic precession?
    If a force is applied to the rotor, the force will act on the rotor 90 degrees to where it was applied, in the direction of rotation
  79. What is the reception range of the ILS localizer?
    10° at 18NM and 35° at 10NM
  80. When flying a GNSS approach and RAIM is not available:
    You may not continue beyond the final approach fix
  81. What is the transponder code for high level IFR? Low level IFR?
    2000 for high and 1000 for low
  82. What is the main advantage of Secondary Surveillance Radar over Primary Surveillance Radar?
    It eliminates ground and precipitation clutter
  83. The symptoms of hypoxia are:
    Dull headache and fatigue, drowsiness, eventual loss of consciousness
  84. Rime ice will form when:
    Small super-cooled water droplets freeze instantly upon striking an aircraft when temperatures are colder than 0°C
  85. What circumstances will have the most icing accumulation? (wing size, speed, droplets etc)
    Thin wing, fast airspeed, large droplets
  86. While conducting a SID procedure you are given vectors by ATC. Does this cancel the SID?
    No
  87. Flying south from the north pole at FL260 what is the first controlled airspace you encounter?
    Northern Control Area from FL230 and above
  88. What are the dimensions of the Arctic Control Area?
    FL270 to FL600
  89. What kind of airspace and what dimensions does a forest fire become?
    Becomes class F and it is 3000AGL within 5NM of the fire
  90. What class of airspace are low level air routes? Where do they start? Is there separation? Is it controlled?
    Class G, start at the surface, no separation, uncontrolled
  91. Can SVFR be requested for day departure? Night departure?
    Can be requested for day departure but not night departure. Arrival only at night.
  92. What are the types of notams?
    New, cancelling, replacing, RSC and query or response
  93. If aprox is issued for a time in a notam, what must be issued after?
    A replacing or cancelling notam
  94. Upper level charts are issued:
    Daily at 0000Z and 1200Z.
  95. You are planning an IFR flight through a forecast warm front where the air is unstable. You would expect to encounter:
    Nimbostratus and TCU at the front.
  96. Northerly turning error in a magnetic compass means that the compass will:
    Lag when turns are made from a heading of North
  97. Apparent precession in gyroscopes is:
    0 degrees at the equator and 15 degrees at the poles.
  98. What principle does the heading indicator use?
    Rigidity in space
  99. What causes the heading indicator to precess?
    Friction
  100. Differential GPS uses what to enhance accuracy of the system?
    Fixed ground based reference systems, WAAS, LAAS
  101. If the static port becomes blocked, the VSI will do what?
    Bleed to zero
  102. Secondary surveillance radar requires the use of what?
    Use of airborne transponders
  103. The most serious airframe icing can be expected where?
    Near the top of convective cloud above the freezing level.
  104. The symptoms of hyper ventilation include:
    Faster and/or deeper breathing, slight dizziness, feeling of coldness, sensation of a tight band around the head and pins and needles in the hands and feet.
  105. What is hypoxia?
    Lack of sufficient oxygen for the body to operate normally
  106. What is stagnant hypoxia?
    When not enough blood is pumped to the head. Can be caused by positive G's
  107. After non-decompression dives, flights up to __ASL should be avoided for __?
    8000ASL should be avoided for 12 hours
  108. For scuba diving with decompression stops, how long should any flight be avoided?
    24 hours
  109. For flights above 8000ASL regardless of decompression stops or non-decompression scuba dives, how long should flight be avoided?
    24 hours
  110. How long should flight be avoided for local anesthetic and general anesthetic? Blood donations?
    24 for local, until doctor says it's safe for general and 48 hours for blood donations.
  111. What are early signs of carbon monoxide poisoning? Severe signs?
    Early signs are headaches, sluggishness, warmness and dizziness. Severe signs are vomiting, convulsions, coma and death.
  112. Is a pilot-in-command who terminates an IFR flight at an aerodrome where there is an operating air traffic control unit or flight service station required to file an arrival report?
    Not required to file an arrival report.
  113. What are the requirements/expectations of a visual approach?
    Flying visually, clear of cloud, reported ceiling is at least 500ft above the minimum IFR altitude, ground visibility is at least 3 SM, pilot reports sighting the airport, pilot is responsible for separation from other aircraft, pilot is responsible for wake turbulence, is not an IFR approach, no missed approach instructions will be given, can be requested by pilot or controller.
  114. What are the requirements/expectations of a contact approach?
    Must remain clear of cloud, at least 1NM visibility, reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport, must be flown at least 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM, should be somewhat familiar with the airport, pilot must request it, must be a functioning instrument approach, GPS or GPS overlay for the airport, missed approach instructions will be given.
  115. If you lose communications with ATC during a radar vectored IFR approach, you should:
    Continue and carry out a straight-in approach if able, or carry out a procedure turn and land as soon as possible.
  116. When cleared for an approach the pilot must advise ATC of what?
    The intended approach and route.
  117. During a shuttle climb or descent in a holding pattern:
    The aircraft must not exceed 200 knots IAS, nor exceed one minute outbound still air time.
  118. You have been cleared for the ILS/DME 11
    at Calgary. Inbound on final at 7 DME your DME appears to have gone offline, what should you do?
    Initiate a missed approach and inform ATC of the malfunction.
  119. What happens when the pitot tube is blocked? Partially blocked?
    The airspeed indicator will act like an altimeter and will over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent. If it is a partial blockage, the airspeed will gradually decrease to zero.
  120. The amount of water vapor that air can hold is determined by what?
    Temperature
  121. Definition of relative humidity:
    The amount of moisture present in the air compared to the amount the air could hold at at that temperature and pressure
  122. What processes are primarily responsible for heating the lower atmosphere?
    Terrestrial radiation and conduction
  123. Which of the following is not a heat distribution process in the troposphere: Turbulence mixing, advection, convection, convergence?
    Convergence
  124. What is the average environmental lapse rate?
    2°C/1000ft
  125. The temperature of ascending saturated air will decrease at a lower rate than that of ascending unsaturated air because...?
    Release of latent heat during condensation of water vapor
  126. Which of the following is not a lifting process that causes cloud: mechanical turbulence, subsidence, convergence, convection?
    Subsidence
  127. One of the prime determinants of air stability is what?
    Environmental lapse rate
  128. Definition of station pressure:
    The weight of the column of air measured above an airport
  129. When flying towards an anticyclone, what kind of pressure would you expect?
    Increasing pressure
  130. During an ascent from the surface to 3000ft, the wind will normally do what?
    Veer and increase in speed
  131. If you were planning a flight from Montreal to Vancouver, where would you likely find the most favorable wind conditions?
    South of a high
  132. Air masses are huge bodies of air having uniform properties of what?
    Temperature and moisture in the horizontal
  133. A stable, very cold, dry air mass is called?
    Continental arctic
  134. In determining the names of frontal systems, the main factor is what?
    The direction of motion of the colder air mass
  135. What type of cold fronts are you most likely to find in Canada during the summer?
    Maritime arctic and maritime polar
  136. An “Arctic front” would be found between what?
    Continental arctic and maritime arctic air masses.
  137. What factors may be used to determine the position of a surface front?
    Temperature, dew point, pressure and wind
  138. Following the passage of a cold front, the surface wind change will always do what?
    Veer and increase in wind speed
  139. A trowel is defined as what?
    Trough of warm air aloft
  140. During flight in the overcast of a warm front, the precipitation encountered changes from steady rain to heavy showers. From this you should deduce that...?
    The warm air is moist and unstable
  141. The first sign of an active warm front approached from the cold air side would be the appearance of what type of cloud?
    Cirrus cloud
  142. The weather associated with a given cold front is determined by what?
    Stability of the warm air mass, moisture content of the warm air mass, speed of the front and the steepness of the frontal system
  143. Cloud formation associated with a low is due to:
    Convergence and ascending air
  144. Large supercooled water droplets are most often found in __?
    Lower levels of cumulus type clouds
  145. You would expect that rime ice rather than mixed or clear ice would more likely form when the rate of catch is:
    Low and the droplets are small
  146. With reference to aircraft icing the liquid water content in layer type cloud tends to:
    Increase with height and be maximum near the cloud top when temperatures are not far below freezing.
  147. While flying in the lower level towards a winter warm front, you encounter snow. What would you expect next?
    Ice pellets and freezing rain
  148. The presence of freezing rain is positive indication of __?
    Warm air aloft
  149. Freezing rain occurs when:
    Rain falls into a sub-freezing layer of air
  150. A requirement for the formation of all types of fog is:
    A high relative humidity
  151. Which of the following processes can produce both fog and cloud: divergence, convection, advection, subsidence?
    Advection
  152. When comparing advection fog and radiation fog, how does where they form compare to each other?
    Advection fog can form over both land and water, whereas radiation fog forms only over the land.
  153. The formation of upslope fog is due to what kind of cooling?
    Expansional cooling
  154. Extensive fogs which are found ahead of warm fronts (pre-frontal) result from:
    The cold air becoming saturated by evaporation of rain that falls from the warm air.
  155. What is pressure altitude?
    The altitude at which a given pressure is found in the standard atmosphere.
  156. What is altimeter setting?
    Station level pressure reduced to sea level assuming standard atmospheric conditions.
  157. When converting magnetic to true, add/subtract for easterly variation and add/subtract for westerly variation?
    Add for east and subtract for west
  158. How do you calculate pressure altitude?
    (29.92 - (altimeter setting))x 1000
  159. The roll cloud associated with a thunderstorm is found where?
    On the lead side near the base of the storm
  160. Severe icing in towering cumulus cloud may be encountered at temperatures as low as what?
    -25°C
  161. The greatest turbulence associated with an active thunderstorm will normally be found where?
    In the middle to upper levels of the cell
  162. On a GFA, what does solid green lined area versus a dashed green line area mean?
    Solid green lined area is continuous precipitation and a dashed green lined area is showery precipitation.
  163. The term OCNL CB represents what?
    Embedded thunderstorms which are well separated.
  164. The term FRQ CB represents what?
    An area of thunderstorms with little or no separation.
  165. What are the reporting procedures during non-precision approaches at uncontrolled airports?
    Five minutes prior to commencing approach procedure, upon passing the fix with intention of a procedure turn, upon passing the FAF or 3 minutes before estimated time of landing, upon commencing a circling procedure, when turning on to the final approach leg, in the event of a missed approach
  166. Is a minimum fuel advisory an emergency? What will happen if you let ATC know?
    Not an emergency, they will alert you of any situations that might create a delay, inform the next sector, be aware that an emergency situation might occur.

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview