Biology Test 1

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  1. In what way(s) is the science of biology influencing and changing our culture?
    A) by helping us understand the relevance of evolution to human health
    B) by revealing how mutations in genes can lead to disease
    C) by providing new t
  2. What is biology?
    the scientific study of life
  3. Which of the following is not a property of life?
    A) Populations of organisms rarely change over time.
    B) Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.
    C) Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.
    D) Organisms reproduce their own kind.
  4. What are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?
    A) speciation and evolution
    B) nutrient recycling and energy flow
    C) climate change and ice caps melting
    D) DNA mutation and organism survival
  5. Which of the following is not recycled but is lost from ecosystems?
    A) nitrogen
    B) energy
    C) magnesium
    D) carbon
  6. Which of the following is a producer?
    A) oak tree
    B) earthworm
    C) sun
    D) cat
  7. 7) Humans are ______.
    A) producers
    B) producers and consumers
    C) consumers
    D) producers and decomposers
  8. Which of the following is not recycled but is lost from ecosystems?
    A) nitrogen
    B) energy
    C) magnesium
    D) carbon
  9. Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ______.
    A) larger and more complex
    B) smaller and simpler
    C) larger and equally complex
    D) smaller and more complex
  10. Humans are composed of ______ cells.
    A) bacterial
    B) eukaryotic
    C) plant
    D) prokaryotic
  11. What name is given to the functional compartments of a cell?
    A) genomes
    B) nuclei
    C) genes
    D) organelles
  12. The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.
    A) archaea
    B) nucleus
    C) prokaryotic cell
    D) insulin
  13. What are eukaryotic genes composed of?
    A) RNA
    B) organelles
    C) RNA and DNA
    D) DNA
  14. What is a gene?
    A) a type of eukaryotic cell
    B) an organelle that houses DNA
    C) a type of prokaryotic cell
    D) a unit of inheritance
  15. Taxonomy is the ______.
    A) study of cells
    B) naming and classifying of species
    C) study of organisms and their interaction with the environment
    D) study of genes
  16. How does taxonomy assist biologists?
    A) by providing easily remembered scientific names for organisms
    B) by categorizing diverse items into smaller and smaller numbers of groups
    C) by reducing life to its smallest common denominator, the cell
    D) all of the above
  17. Which domain(s) consist(s) of prokaryotic cells?
    A) Bacteria only
    B) Eukarya only
    C) Archaea and Eukarya
    D) Bacteria and Archaea
  18. Which kingdom of Eukarya consists primarily of unicellular organisms?
    A) Plantae
    B) Bacteria
    C) Fungi
    D) Protista
  19. A newly discovered multicellular organism obtains food by digesting dead organisms. Such an
    organism is most likely a member of the kingdom ______.
    A) Plantae
    B) Fungi
    C) Protista
    D) Animalia
  20. Members of the kingdom Plantae differ from members of the other kingdoms of Eukarya in that
    most members of the kingdom Plantae ______.
    A) are decomposers
    B) are unicellular
    C) are consumers
    D) produce their own food
  21. The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is ______.
    A) evolution
    B) microbiology
    C) taxonomy
    D) genetics
  22. Which of these is most closely associated with Darwin?
    A) energy flow
    B) ecosystem structure
    C) the three domains of life
    D) natural selection
  23. Science is ______.
    A) the inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature
    B) the search for truth
    C) an organized set of principles for how to ethically and morally behave
    D) all of the above
  24. What is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science?
    A) Discovery science "discovers" new knowledge, whereas hypothesis-driven science does not.
    B) Discovery science is based on deductive reasoning, whereas hypothesis-driven science is
    based on inductive reasoning.
    C) Discovery science is mostly about describing nature, whereas hypothesis-driven science tries
    to explain nature.
    D) Discovery science involves predictions about outcomes, whereas hypothesis-driven science
    involves tentative answers to specific questions.
  25. Discovery science is primarily based on ______.
    A) hypothesis testing
    B) deduction
    C) experimentation
    D) observation
  26. A hypothesis is a(n) ______.
    A) tentative answer to a question
    B) guess
    C) observation
    D) theory
  27. Which of the following are the proper components of the scientific method?
    A) experiment, conclusion, application
    B) question, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction
    C) observation, question, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, results, conclusion
    D) observation, question, opinion, conclusion, hypothesis
  28. In a scientific experiment, the control group ______.
    A) serves as a basis of comparison with the experimental group
    B) is subjected to the factor whose effect is being tested
    C) allows for the simultaneous testing of multiple variables
    D) is required for the validity of discovery science
  29. How do hypotheses differ from theories?
    A) Theories are more comprehensive than hypotheses.
    B) Theories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable.
    C) Hypotheses are educated guesses, and theories are tentative explanations.
    D) Hypotheses are derived from experimentation, whereas theories are derived from observation.
  30. ______ is an example of an element.
    A) Water
    B) Carbon
    C) Glucose
    D) Salt
  31. The four most common elements found in living things are
    A) nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, and carbon.
    B) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and hydrogen.
    C) carbon, oxygen, potassium, and calcium.
    D) oxygen, calcium, hydrogen, and carbon
  32. Which of the following elements, essential to life, is a trace element?
    A) phosphorus
    B) carbon
    C) iodine
    D) calcium
  33. An atom with a positive charge has ______.
    A) more protons than electrons
    B) more electrons than protons
    C) more neutrons than protons
    D) more protons than neutrons
  34. An atom's ______ are found in its nucleus.
    A) neutrons and protons
    B) protons only
    C) neutrons and electrons
    D) electrons, protons, and neutrons
  35. Beryllium's atomic mass is 9 and its atomic number is 4. How many neutrons are found in a beryllium
    A) 9
    B) 13
    C) 4
    D) 5
  36. Isotopes of an element have the same number of ______ and different numbers of ______.
    A) protons... neutrons
    B) protons... electrons
    C) neutrons... protons
    D) electrons... protons
  37. How do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes?
    A) Radioactive isotopes have more neutrons than do isotopes.
    B) Radioactive isotopes are stable; isotopes are unstable.
    C) Radioactive isotopes have fewer neutrons than do isotopes.
    D) Radioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable.
  38. The second electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______ electron(s).
    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 6
    D) 8
  39. Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7; therefore, it has ______ electrons in its outermost electron
    A) 10
    B) 18
    C) 5
    D) 2
  40. An atom with an electrical charge is a(n) ______.
    A) isotope
    B) molecule
    C) ion
    D) compound
  41. The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n) ______ bond.
    A) ionic
    B) polar
    C) hydrogen
    D) covalent
  42. In the following reaction, what type of bond is holding the two atoms together?
    K + Cl → K+ + Cl- → KCl
    A) hydrophilic
    B) ionic
    C) hydrophobic
    D) covalent
  43. What name is given to bonds that involve the sharing of electrons?
    A) covalent
    B) hydrogen
    C) ionic
    D) polar
  44. The hydrogens and oxygen of a water molecule are held together by ______ bonds.
    A) electron
    B) hydrogen
    C) covalent
    D) osmotic
  45. Why is water considered a polar molecule?
    A) The oxygen is found between the two hydrogens.
    B) The oxygen atom attracts the hydrogen atoms.
    C) The oxygen end of the molecule has a slight negative charge, and the hydrogen end has a
    slight positive charge.
    D) Both hydrogens are at one end of the molecule, and oxygen is at the other end.
  46. Adjacent water molecules are joined by ______ bonds.
    A) covalent only
    B) ionic
    C) polar and covalent
    D) hydrogen
  47. Adjacent water molecules are connected by the ______.
    A) sharing of electrons between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another
    water molecule
    B) electrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another
    water molecule
    C) sharing of electrons between adjacent oxygen molecules
    D) electrical attraction between the hydrogens of adjacent water molecules
  48. How many oxygen atoms are in the products of the following reaction?
    C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O
    A) 18
    B) 6
    C) 12
    D) 24
  49. What are the reactant(s) in the following chemical reaction?
    C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O
    A) CO2 and H2O
    B) C6H12O6, H2O, and O2
    C) O2 only
    D) C6H12O6, H2O, O2, CO2, and H2O
  50. Human body cells are approximately ______ water.
    A) 95—99%
    B) 25—35%
    C) 50—55%
    D) 70—95%
  51. The tendency of molecules of the same kind to stick together is called ______.
    A) bonding
    B) cohesion
    C) polarity
    D) adhesion
  52. Why (if you are careful) are you able to float a needle on the surface of water?
    A) Water has adhesive properties.
    B) The surface tension that is a result of water's cohesive properties makes this possible.
    C) The covalent bonds that hold a water molecule together are responsible for this ability.
    D) A single needle is less dense than water.
  53. Sweating cools your body by ______.
    A) cohesion
    B) radiation
    C) evaporative cooling
  54. As water freezes, ______.
    A) its molecules move farther apart
    B) it cools the surrounding environment
    C) its hydrogen bonds break apart
    D) it loses its polarity
  55. Sugar dissolves when stirred into water. The sugar is the ______, the water is the ______, and the
    sweetened water is the ______.
    A) solution... solvent... solute
    B) solute... solvent... solution
    C) solvent... solute... solution
    D) solution... solute... solvent
  56. Which of the following is an acid?
    A) NaOH
    B) NaCl
    C) HCl
    D) CH4
  57. The lower the pH of a solution, the ______.
    A) greater the number of oxygen atoms
    B) more acidic the solution
    C) less toxic the solution
    D) higher the OH— concentration
  58. What name is given to substances that resist changes in pH?
    A) buffers
    B) sugars
    C) salts
    D) bases
  59. A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ______ covalent bond(s).
    A) none; carbon only participates in ionic bonds
    B) 1
    C) 2
    D) 4
  60. The following molecule is best described as a ______.
    A) protein
    B) carbohydrate
    C) hydrocarbon
    D) lipid
  61. ______ is a hydroxyl group.
    A) —NH2
    B) —OH
    C) —COOH
    D) —H
  62. What name is given to the following reaction?
    galactose + glucose → lactose + water
    A) hydrolysis
    B) hydrogenation
    C) glycolysis
    D) dehydration reaction
  63. What name is given to the following reaction?
    sucrose + water → glucose + fructose
    A) glucogenesis
    B) hydrolysis
    C) denaturation
    D) dehydration reaction
  64. Carbohydrates typically include ______.
    A) an NH2 group
    B) C, H, and O atoms
    C) a hydrocarbon chain
    D) a PO4 group
  65. Complete the equation:
    monosaccharide + monosaccharide → ______ + water
    A) disaccharide
    B) polypeptide
    C) polysaccharide
    D) fat
  66. In the following equation, lactose is a ______.
    galactose + glucose → lactose + water
    A) nucleic acid
    B) fatty acid
    C) disaccharide
    D) dipeptide
  67. Table sugar is ______.
    A) glucose, a monosaccharide
    B) glucose, a disaccharide
    C) sucrose, a monosaccharide
    D) sucrose, a dissaccharide
  68. Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?
    A) glucose
    B) starch
    C) maltose
    D) sucrose
  69. Animals store carbohydrates as ______.
    A) cellulose
    B) glycogen
    C) starch
    D) maltose
  70. Cellulose is an example of ______.
    A) a polypeptide
    B) a steroid
    C) a polysaccharide fiber
    D) a fat
  71. Which of the following is hydrophilic?
    A) cellulose
    B) testosterone
    C) butter
    D) cholesterol
  72. Sometimes when I have my morning coffee, which I drink black with no sugar, I notice a thin film
    floating on top of the coffee. Since I have just read Chapter 3 of the text, I now realize the nature of this
    substance and so I run to my friend screaming, "Look at this ______ in my coffee!"
    A) hydrophilic substance
    B) hydrophobic substance
    C) glucose
    D) nucleotide
  73. A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ______.
    A) prostaglandin
    B) nucleic acid
    C) steroid
    D) fat
  74. What name is given to the following reaction?
    glycerol + 3 fatty acids → triglyceride + 3 water molecules
    A) denaturation
    B) hydrolysis
    C) hydrogenation
    D) dehydration reaction
  75. Saturated fats are saturated with ______.
    A) carbon
    B) nitrogen
    C) hydrogen
    D) oxygen
  76. By definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds?
    A) steroid
    B) triglyceride
    C) unsaturated
    D) saturated
  77. Which of the following is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats?
    A) increased blood flow
    B) decreased risk of atherosclerosis
    C) increased risk of heart attack
    D) decreased risk of stroke
  78. ______ is a steroid.
    A) Butter
    B) Sucrose
    C) Amino acid
    D) Estrogen
  79. Enzymes are ______.
    A) amino acids
    B) monosaccharides
    C) phospholipids
    D) proteins
  80. Proteins are polymers constructed from ______ monomers.
    A) hydrocarbon
    B) amino acid
    C) nucleotide
    D) fatty acid
  81. Amino acids include a side group as well as ______.
    A) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group
    B) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group
    C) a central hydrogen, a nitrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group
    D) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, an amino group, and a carbonyl group
  82. What is the name given to the reaction that breaks peptide bonds?
    A) dehydration reaction
    B) hydrogenation
    C) hydrolysis
    D) denaturation
  83. A pleated sheet is an example of protein ______ structure.
    A) tertiary
    B) quaternary
    C) secondary
    D) primary
  84. A protein's function is dependent on its ______.
    A) pH
    B) shape
    C) size
    D) weight
  85. Destruction of a protein's shape is called ______.
    A) hydrolysis
    B) denaturation
    C) a dehydration reaction
    D) hydrogenation
  86. Nucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers.
    A) monosaccharide
    B) fatty acid
    C) DNA
    D) nucleotide
  87. A specific stretch of DNA that programs the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is a ______.
    A) gene
    B) protein
    C) nucleic acid
    D) enzyme
  88. DNA nucleotides include ______.
    A) uracil, guanine, adenine, and cytosine
    B) thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine
    C) thymine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine
    D) thymine, guanine, adenine, and uracil
  89. Which of the following is true with regard to a DNA molecule?
    A) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal
    to the amount of cytosine.
    B) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal
    to the amount of thymine.
    C) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal
    to the amount of uracil.
    D) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal
    to the amount of cytosine.
  90. If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence AGTACTG, what will be the sequence of the
    other strand?
  91. How does RNA differ from DNA?
    A) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.
    B) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
    C) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.
    D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C.
  92. Which theory states that all living things are composed of cells?
    A) cell theory
    B) Hooke's rule
    C) evolutionary theory
    D) Mendel's law
  93. What type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma
    A) light microscope
    B) transmission electron microscope
    C) scanning electron microscope
    D) both a light microscope and an electron microscope
  94. Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells but not eukaryotic cells?
    A) lack of endomembranes
    B) cell wall
    C) flagella
    D) DNA
  95. When using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you
    notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.
    A) plant
    B) eukaryotic
    C) fungal
    D) prokaryotic
  96. One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ______ prokaryotic
    A) have DNA, which is lacking in
    B) have membrane-enclosed structures called organelles, which are lacking in
    C) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in
    D) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in
  97. In eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane?
    A) cytoplasm
    B) phospholipid bilayer
    C) nucleoid
    D) chloroplast
  98. You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall.
    Therefore, you conclude that it must be a ______ cell.
    A) prokaryotic
    B) animal
    C) bacterial
    D) plant
  99. Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?
    A) regulate the traffic of chemicals into and out of the cell
    B) protein synthesis
    C) lipid synthesis
    D) all fo the above
  100. _____ are the major lipids of plasma membranes.
    A) Steroids
    B) Fatty acids
    C) Mosaics
    D) Phospholipids
  101. When mixed with water, phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ______.
    A) have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails
    that avoid water
    B) have hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups
    that avoid water
    C) have hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails
    D) are both fluid and mosaic
  102. The concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ______.
    A) phospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
    B) phospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane
    C) most proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane
    D) carbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure
  103. The extracellular matrix of animal cells ______.
    A) protect and support cells
    B) provide avenues for the exchange of DNA
    C) are warehouses for the storage of extra lipids and carbohydrates
    D) are primarily sites of dead matter and waste materials
  104. _____ store the information necessary to produce proteins.
    A) Lysosomes
    B) Genes
    C) Ribosomes
    D) Carbohydrates
  105. The nuclear envelope is composed of ______.
    A) chromatin
    B) DNA
    C) a double phospholipid membrane
    D) carbohydrates
  106. The structural combination of DNA and protein forms ______.
    A) nucleoli
    B) nucleoplasm
    C) chromatin
    D) ribosomes
  107. Most human cells contain ______ chromosomes.
    A) 36
    B) 46
    C) 2
    D) 23
  108. Which of the following structures manufactures the components of ribosomes?
    A) nucleus
    B) cytoplasm
    C) endoplasmic reticulum
    D) nucleolus
  109. Some ribosomes are suspended in the cytosol of a cell, whereas other ribosomes _______.
    A) make proteins inside the nucleus
    B) are found on the plasma membrane
    C) are attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D) are attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum
  110. Where does protein synthesis take place?
    A) in the nucleolus
    B) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C) on ribosomes
    D) in the nucleus
  111. Information is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ______.
    A) mRNA
    B) rough endoplasmic reticulum
    C) DNA
    D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  112. The endomembrane system includes ______.
    A) ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
    B) Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
    C) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum
    D) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum
  113. A hormone that will be secreted from the cell is manufactured by ribosomes _____.
    A) attached to the endoplasmic reticulum
    B) attached to the Golgi apparatus
    C) attached to the plasma membrane
    D) inside the nucleus
  114. Based on its function in detoxifying drugs, you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in
    ______ cells.
    A) brain
    B) liver
    C) intestinal
    D) muscle
  115. Functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ______.
    A) steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification
    B) lipid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification
    C) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification
    D) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and protein synthesis
  116. What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus?
    A) transport proteins
    B) central vacuole
    C) transport vesicles
    D) nucleolus
  117. Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
    A) digestion of organic matter inside the cell
    B) protein modification
    C) drug detoxification
    D) protein synthesis
  118. Which of the following parts of a cell is (are) most like the shipping center of a company?
    A) the Golgi apparatus
    B) mitochondria
    C) chloroplasts
    D) the nucleolus
  119. Lysosomes are responsible for ______.
    A) lipid synthesis
    B) cellular respiration
    C) digestion of organic matter inside the cell
    D) protein synthesis
  120. If a cell's lysosomes burst, the cell would ______.
    A) shrivel
    B) divide into two cells
    C) digest itself
    D) need to manufacture more lysosomes
  121. Vacuoles are ______.
    A) membranous sacs
    B) manufactured by ribosomes
    C) composed of microtubules
    D) found only in plant cells
  122. In plant cells, ______ may contain organic nutrients, pigments, and poisons.
    A) mitochondria
    B) chloroplasts
    C) lysosomes
    D) central vacuoles
  123. Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ______.
    A) cell wall and contractile vacuole
    B) cell wall and central vacuole
    C) nucleus and cell wall
    D) nucleus and contractile vacuole
  124. Similar to the nucleus, chloroplasts and mitochondria are ______.
    A) surrounded by two membranes
    B) green
    C) manufactured by the nucleolus
    D) able to synthesize lipids
  125. Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?
    A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    B) mitochondrion
    C) ribosome
    D) chloroplast
  126. Microtubules are associated with ______.
    A) cilia
    B) flagella
    C) cell shape
    D) all of the above
  127. What is energy?
    A) the capacity to cause movement
    B) the capacity to cause change
    C) a measure of calories
    D) a measure of disorder
  128. An object at rest has no ______ energy, but it may have ______ energy resulting from its location or
    A) kinetic... potential
    B) kinetic... conserved
    C) potential... kinetic
    D) stored... potential
  129. The principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ______.
    A) interconversion
    B) conservation of energy
    C) conservation of heat
    D) entropy
  130. A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy.
    A) potential
    B) no
    C) kinetic
    D) conserved
  131. You are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows
    down and stops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped?
    A) It was returned to the bicycle.
    B) It was converted back to chemical energy.
    C) It was released as heat.
    D) It was used to chemically break down the tires.
  132. Which of the following is a measure of randomness in a system?
    A) entropy
    B) kinetic energy
    C) potential energy
    D) chemical energy
  133. Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the
    sperm are changing ______.
    A) chemical energy into kinetic energy
    B) chemical energy into potential energy
    C) kinetic energy into potential energy
    D) kinetic energy into chemical energy
  134. Ten kilocalories are equivalent to ______ calories.
    A) 1,000
    B) 10,000
    C) 0.1
    D) 100
  135. What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
    A) C6H12O6
    B) ATP
    C) DNA
    D) fat
  136. Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ______.
    A) adenosine
    B) heat unit
    C) photon
    D) phosphate group
  137. Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______.
    A) result in cell death
    B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy
    C) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy
    D) have no effect on the cell
  138. Usually, enzymes are ______.
    A) fats
    B) steroids
    C) chemical reactions
    D) proteins
  139. The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.
    A) summation
    B) cellular synthesis
    C) replication
    D) metabolism
  140. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ______.
    A) increasing the temperature of the substrates
    B) contributing electrons to the reaction
    C) decreasing activation energy
    D) changing the pH of the substrates
  141. Which one of the following is true?
    A) Enzymes are the products in a chemical reaction.
    B) Enzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction.
    C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.
    D) An enzyme's function requires inhibitors.
  142. An enzyme's function is dependent on its ______.
    A) pH
    B) temperature
    C) shape
    D) size
  143. Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme?
    sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose
    A) sucrose
    B) sucrase
    C) glucose
    D) fructose
  144. The region of an enzyme to which a substrate binds is called the ______ site.
    A) active
    B) substrate
    C) enzymatic
    D) conformational
  145. Which component of the following reaction is the substrate?
    sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose
    A) sucrose
    B) sucrase
    C) glucose
    D) fructose
  146. Which one of the following is true?
    A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
    B) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.
    C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
    D) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.
  147. Substances that block an enzyme's active site are ______.
    A) enzyme substrates
    B) enzyme inhibitors
    C) induced fit factors
    D) enzyme products
  148. Diffusion is an example of ______.
    A) phagocytosis
    B) active transport
    C) endocytosis
    D) passive transport
  149. Diffusion ______.
    A) is the result of the potential energy of atoms
    B) requires an input of cellular energy
    C) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they
    are more concentrated
    D) proceeds until equilibrium is reached
  150. Osmosis can be defined as ______.
    A) the diffusion of water
    B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules
    C) active transport
    D) the diffusion of a solute
  151. A balloon permeable to water but not to glucose contains a 10% glucose solution. A beaker contains
    a 5% glucose solution. Which of the following is true?
    A) The solution in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the solution in the balloon.
    B) The solution in the balloon is isotonic; the solution in the beaker is hypertonic.
    C) When placed in the beaker, the balloon will lose water by osmosis.
    D) The solution in the balloon is hypertonic relative to the solution in the beaker.
  152. When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively
    permeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will ______.
    A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration
    B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration
    C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration
    D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane
  153. A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution is ______.
    A) isotonic to its environment
    B) hypertonic to its environment
    C) hypotonic to its environment
    D) metabolically inactive
  154. Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate
    excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment ______.
    A) is isotonic to the protozoan
    B) is hypotonic to the protozoan
    C) is hypertonic to the protozoan
    D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan
  155. If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts
    for this difference?
    A) expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole
    B) the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water
    C) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water
    D) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
  156. In a hypotonic solution, a plant cell will ______.
    A) undergo plasmolysis
    B) become flaccid
    C) burst
    D) become turgid
  157. Which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the
    substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?
    A) active transport
    B) facilitated diffusion
    C) diffusion
    D) osmosis
  158. Active transport ______.
    A) uses ATP as an energy source
    B) can move solutes against their concentration gradient
    C) can involve the transport of ions
    D) all of the above
  159. Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach.
    This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?
    A) endocytosis
    B) exocytosis
    C) phagocytosis
    D) passive transport
  160. The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ______.
    Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc.
    A) osmosis
    B) diffusion
    C) exocytosis
    D) phagocytosis
  161. Relaying a message from a receptor protein to a molecule that performs a specific function within a
    cell is called ______.
    A) signal transduction
    B) inhibition
    C) self-recognition
    D) selective permeability
Card Set:
Biology Test 1
2015-06-29 02:59:02

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