BIO142

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Author:
tali
ID:
304878
Filename:
BIO142
Updated:
2015-07-07 03:43:25
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Respiratory Pharm
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final study set
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  1. Pentamidine is a(an)
    antiprotozoal agent
  2. inhaled pentamidine is indicated for
    prevention of pcp
  3. the trade name for aerosolized pentamidine is
    NebuPent
  4. Pentamidine can be administered by which of the following routes?
    • Inhaled aerosol
    • Intramuscular injection
    • Intravenously
  5. The approved dose of pentamidine by aerosol for prevention of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) is:
    300 mg, once every 4 wks
  6. Pentamidine is administered by aerosol with which nebulizer?
    Respirgard II
  7. The mode of action of pentamidine is:
    Unknown
  8. Local airway side effects of aerosolized pentamidine include which of the following?
    • Wheezing
    • Coughing 
    • shortness of breath
    • bad taste
    • spontaneous pneumothoraces
  9. Systemic side effects of aerosolized pentamidine can include which of the following?
    • Pancreatitis
    • Conjunctivitis
    • Neutropenia
    • Renal insufficiency
    • Rash
  10. Ribavirin is classified as a (an)
    Virostatic
  11. The trade name for ribavirin is
    Virazole
  12. Ribavirin is active against which of the following
    • influenza virus
    • rsv
    • herpes simplex virus
  13. The normal dose of ribavirin administration is
    20 mg/ml nebulized for 12 to 18 hrs per day, for 3 to 7 days
  14. the small particle aerosol generator (spag) unit operates on what principle?
    jet shearing
  15. The nebulizer used to aerosolize ribavirin is the
    SPAG
  16. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) can cause which of the following?
    • Bronchiolitis
    • pneumonia
  17. A drug that is used to prevent serious lower respiratory tract infections with RSV in children under 24 months of age is
    RespiGam
  18. RSV-IGIV would be used to
    Prevent RSV infections
  19. The disease that aerosolized antibiotics have been most consistently used for is:
    Cystic Fibrosis
  20. The aminoglycoside antibiotics are effective in treating:
    Gram-negative infections
  21. Relenza is an
    antiviral agent
  22. A patient with Pneumocystis pneumonia has been systemically treated for the infection, without success. You recommend aerosolizing:
    Pentamidine
  23. Which of the following drugs is available in a DPI
    Zanamivir
  24. Tobramycin is a member of which antibiotic group?
    Aminoglycosides
  25. The simplest and most common method of preparing bacteria for examination and indentification is
    The gram stain
  26. The most common pathogens responsible for community-acquired pneumonia include which of the following?
    • Haemophilus influenzae,
    • Chalmydis pneumoniae,
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae,
    • Legionella pneumophila,
    • mycoplasma pneumoniae
  27. A drug that inhibits the growth of bacteria is called
    bacteriostatic
  28. A bactericidal agent would
    kill bacteria
  29. MRSA and VRE are example of
    Resistant bacterial pathogens
  30. Penicillins exert their pharmacological activity by:
    Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
  31. Penicillins are
    Bactericidal
  32. The natural penicillins are primarily effective against
    Gram-positive bacteria and anaerobes
  33. The most common adverse reaction to penicillin is
    Hypersensitivity
  34. Aminoglycosides are used primarily for
    Gram-negative infections
  35. Ventiliator-associated pneumonias have been successfuly treated with:
    Gentamicin, Tobramycin
  36. Aminoglycosides, such as tobramycin, have been aerosolized specifically for the treatment of
    cystic fibrosis
  37. Tetracyclines are effective against which of the following?
    • Protozoa,
    • Mycoplasmas,
    • Rickettsiae,
    • Gram-positive microorganisms,
    • gram-negative microorganisms
  38. The antibiotic used to treat Pneumocystis carinii(jiroveci) infections is
    TMP-SMX
  39. Nosocomial transmission of tuberculosis can be prevented by:
    Placing patients in respiratory isolation
  40. Isoniazid would be indicated to treat
    tuberculosis
  41. The major adverse reaction to antimycobacterial agents such as isoniazid and rifamplin is
    hepatotoxicity
  42. The treatment of choice for pulmonary infections such as aspergillosis, histoplasmosis, and coccidioidomycosis is
    amphotericin B
  43. A major toxic effect of amphotericin B administration is
    renal impairment
  44. Which group of antibiotics is effective against P. aeruginosa lung infections in CF when take orally
    Aminoglycosides
  45. A patient with HIV has been diagnosed with PCP You are asked to recommend an antibiotic. You would suggest:
    Pentamidine
  46. All of the following are antimycobacterials used to treat TB except
    Gentamicin
  47. The term common cold refers to
    a nonbacterial infection of the upper respiratory tract
  48. In cold remedies sypathomimetics are use for their:
    vasoconstricting effects
  49. Repeated application of adrenergic agents by nasal spray can result in
    Rebound nasal congestion
  50. An important mediator of local inflammatory responses is:
    histamine
  51. A wheal and flare reaction is characterized by which of the following?
    Welt formation, local redness, local swelling
  52. H2 receptors
    regulate gastric acid secretions
  53. Receptors located on nerve endings, smooth muscle, and glandular cells that are involved in inflammation and allergic reactions are:
    H1 receptors
  54. The typical antihistamine found in common cold medications is a(n)
    H1-receptor antagonist
  55. Tagamet and Zantac are example of
    H2-receptor antagonists
  56. First generation antihistamines can cause which of the following?
    Drying of upper airway secretions, sedation, decrease rhinitis, decreased sneezing, drowsiness
  57. Agents that facilitate removal of mucus by lysing action are called
    mucolytic expectorants
  58. Expectorant agents that increase the production and clearance of mucus secretions are termed:
    stimulant
  59. Stimulant expectorants work by which of the following mechanisms?
    Vagal gastric reflux stimulation , direct stimulation of glands in the respiratory tract, topical stimulation
  60. Expectorants include which of the following?
    • Guaifenesin,
    • Robitussin,
    • Iodinated glycerol,
    • potassium iodide,
    • benadryl
  61. The active ingredient in Robitussin is
    Guaifenesin
  62. The defense mechanism to protect the upper airway from irritants is the
    cough
  63. Cough suppressants act by
    depressing the cough center in the medulla
  64. using OTC compounds to treat the common cold presents the risk of
    overuse and abuse
  65. Treatment of the common cold is basically
    symptomatic
  66. What type of drug do you use to dry up a runny nose in a common cold?
    antihistamine
  67. What receptor site would be targeted for the antihistamine ranitidine (Zantac)
    H2
  68. What type of drug could be used to help stimulate secretion removal in a common cold?
    expectorant
  69. A fellow student tells you that he has a dry hacking cough that keeps him up at night. You would recommend that he take a
    antitussive
  70. Which of the folowing is a stimulant expectorant
    Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
  71. Which of the following may be prescribed as a sleep aid?
    Diphenhydramine HCI (Benadryl)
  72. Which of the following should not be given to a patient who is coughing up copious amounts of sputum?
    Antitussive
  73. Zanamivir would be indicated for
    uncomplicated influenza

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