Pollution PQS

The flashcards below were created by user CThomson on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

  1. National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan
    the federal government's blueprint for responding to both oil spills and hazardous substance releases. The NCP is the result of efforts to develop a national response capability and promote coordination among the hierarchy of responders and contingency plans.
  2. Hazardous waste is waste
    waste that is dangerous or potentially harmful to our health or the environment. Hazardous wastes can be liquids, solids, gases, or sludges. They can be discarded commercial products, like cleaning fluids or pesticides, or the by-products of manufacturing processes.
  3. Define: hazardous substance
    any substance that has one or more of the following intrinsic 'hazardous properties': Explosiveness. Flammability. Ability to oxidise (accelerate a fire) Human toxicity (acute or chronic)
  4. Define:  hazardous material
    as any substance or material could adversely affect the safety of the public, handlers or carriers during transportation. All DOT hazardous materials are listed in the DOT's Hazardous Material Table
  5. Define: Oil
    a viscous liquid derived from petroleum, especially for use as a fuel or lubricant.
  6. _____________ requires the "person in charge" of a facility or vessel, as soon as he or she has knowledge of a release of a hazardous substance in an amount equal to or greater than an RQ, to report the release immediately to the NRC
    • CERCLA
    • The CWA also requires you to report a spill of a harmful quantity of oil that causes a sheen or emulsion in the water, as well as the release of a reportable quantity of a hazardous substance to the National Response Center (NRC).
  7. CERCLA section 101(22) defines "release" as
    spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment (including the abandonment or discarding of barrels, containers, and other closed receptacles containing any hazardous substance or pollutant or contaminant
  8. CERCLA section 101(8) defines "environment" as
    the navigable waters, the waters of the contiguous zone, and the ocean waters of which the natural resources are under the exclusive management authority of the United States under the Fishery Conservation and Management Act of 1976, and (B) any other surface water, ground water, drinking water supply, land surface or subsurface strata, or ambient air within the United States or under the jurisdiction of the United States."
  9. EPA has stated that the period during which the person in charge must measure whether an RQ or more has been released is ______
    24 hours (50 FR13463, April 4, 1985)
  10. Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund (OSLTF)
    • The OSLTF was authorized under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA) to
    • pay for expeditious oil removal and uncompensated damages from oil spills. The
    • Coast Guard's National Pollution Funds Center (NPFC) is responsible for managing
    • and administering the Fund, including adjudicating claims.
  11. Define: responsible party (RP)
    • The responsible party of an incident is the person, business, or
    • entity that has been identified as owning the vessel or facility that caused the
    • spill. The term does not imply criminal negligence.
    • Not all incidents have a designated responsible party; these spills are
    • called mystery spills.
  12. substantial threat of a discharge
    • Not all oil incidents result in oil actually spilling; a threat of a
    • discharge refers to situations in which most likely oil will spill unless
    • someone tries to stop it. OPA allows you to submit claims for these situations
    • as well
  13. What is the National Response Canter's phone number?
  14. What gives the Coast Guard the legal authority to enter private property?
    The FWPCA(Federal Water Pollution Control Act) and CERCLA(Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act) give the basic authority allowing government officials the ability to respond and access private property for the purposes of investigating an oil discharge or hazardous material release. *MSM Vol.VI, Ports and Waterways Activities Ch 7.D (COMDTINST M16000.11(series))*
  15. What title CFR governs marine casualties?
    46 CFR Part 4 governs the investigation and reporting of marine casualties.
  16. What title CFR Governs the use of dispersants and other chemicals?
    40 CFR 300 Subpart J
  17. What is the number for API(American Petroleum Institute) Gravity?
    The *API gravity*(American Petroleum Institute Gravity)is a measure of how heavy or light petroleum liquid is compared to water. If its API gravity is greater than 10 it is lighter and floats on water; if it is less than 10 it is heavier and sinks. API gravity is an inverse measure of the relative density of a petroleum liquid and the density of water. It is also used to compare the relative densities of petroleum liquids. *American Petroleum Institute*
  18. What are the characteristics of Towing Boom?
    Towing boom is pulled by towboats in various configurations to contain and recover slicks. The boat speed is typically less than 1 knot (0.5m/sec).
  19. Describe U-Booming.
    Three vessels and a skimmer are used in a V configuration. A tie-in is usually required to maintain the V shape.
  20. Describe J-Booming.
    Two vessels and a skimmer are used in a J configuration, diverting the oil to allow simultaneous containment and recovery.
  21. Describe the characteristics of anchored boom
    Anchored physical protection booming techniques are used to control or contain floating oil slicks without the need of towing.
  22. Describe exclusion booming
    Boom is deployed across or around sensitive areas and anchored in place. Approaching oil is deflected or contained by the boom.
  23. Describe diversion booming.
    Boom is deployed at an angle to the approaching slick. Oil is diverted away from the sensitive area to a less sensitive location for recovery
  24. Describe containment booming.
    Boom is configured in a body of contaminated water for the purpose of holding or slowing the movement of contamination. The oil remains contained until the product can be removed by a skimmer.
  25. Describe deflection booming.
    Boom is placed in a body of water for the sole purpose of changing the course of the contamination.
  26. What are the 5 types of weir skimmers?
    Simple Weir Self-Leveling Weir Weir with Integral Screw Auger Advancing Weir Weir Boom
  27. Describe a Simple Weir Skimmer.
    Oil flows over a simple weir lip and is collected in a sump. Water is discharged through ports located below the weir. Some models have an onboard pump whereas others require a remote pump.
  28. Describe a Self-Leveling Weir.
    Skims a discrete layer towards the top of a fluid. Self-leveling weirs use a means of adjusting its height, as the pumping rate is increased or decreased and the fluid level in the sump changes.
  29. Describe a Weir with Integral Screw Auger.
    A simple weir skims the top layer of a fluid into a hopper directly connected to a reversible, horizontal or vertical screw auger pump. Some newer models use a self-leveling weir. The screw pump drives, and is cleared by, a rotating scraper. The tightly fitted scraper seals the screw and creates a positive head at the pump discharge. Note that a number of other skimmer types utilize a screw auger pump for transferring collected liquid and not as an integral part of the recovery mechanism.
  30. Describe an Advancing Weir.
    In most devices, an initial weir lip is advanced through a slick allowing water and oil to pass into a collection/separation chamber where oil is pumped from the surface. Water is discharged through ports below. Some models incorporate water jets to include the flow of over the weir lip. Other advancing weir skimmers use impellers or educators to draw in oil.
  31. Describe Weir Boom.
    The boom is towed in a catenary shape into a slick or anchored to allow oil to be carried into it by water current and wind. Skimming weirs (Horizontal Slots) are built into several sections of boom at the apex. Collected oil is pumped to a vessel for storage.
  32. List the 6 types of Oleophilic Surface Skimmers
    Drum, Disc, Rop Mop, Zero Relative Velocity Rope Mop, Sorbent lifting belt, Brush
  33. describe a disc skimmer.
    Banks of oleophilic disks are arranged in a linear, triangular, circular or square configuration. Each group of discs is rotated downward into the oil, driven by hydraulic, pneumatic or electric motors. PVS or aluminum scrapers remove oil adhering to the discs, and it flows down tubes or directly into a sump. Some smaller skimmers have external discharge pumps while other models have onboard pumps.
  34. Describe a zero relative velocity rope mop.
    The standard configuration of a "Zero Relative Velocity" rope mop skimmer consists of a series of oleophilic ropes mounted and pulled in between the hulls of a self-propelled catamaran vessel. The rope mops are operated so that they contact the oil/water surface at the same speed as the vessel encounters slicks, resulting in zero relative velocity between the rope mops and the oil. Therefore, "Zero Relative Velocity" rope mop skimmers are effective in high currents. Hydraulically-driven squeeze rollers wring out the oil-laden rope mops.
  35. Describe a drum skimmer.
    One or more oleophilic drums that are driven by hydraulic, pneumatic or electric motors are rotated downward into an oil slick. Recovered oil is then scraped off the drums into a trough and, in some models, a sump.
  36. Which act prohibits the discharge of virtually any material into the navigable waters of the U.S.
    The Refuse Act (1899)
  37. Which act is enforced by the Army Corp of Engineers (ACOE)?
    The Refuse Act (1899)
  38. Which act is codified in 33USC403?
    The Refuse Act (1899)
  39. Which act was enacted in order to attain a "safe" water quality level and to eliminate all water pollution by the year 1985?
    Federal Water Pollution Control Act
  40. Which act authorized the 1 billion dollar Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund & created the National Pollution Fund Center which administrates the OSLTF?
    Oil Pollution Act of 1990
  41. Which act increased OSC authority to designate responsible parties?
    Oil Pollution Act of 1990
  42. Which act enabled the OSC to issue administrative orders for control of discharges & oil spill cleanups?
    Oil Pollution Act of 1990
  43. Where is the information for assessing penalties under "Oil Pollution Act of 1990"
    Section 311(b)(6) of the FWPCA.
  44. Which act established Civil penalties at $25,000 per day, which has since increased to $40,000 per day?
    Oil Pollution Act of 1990
  45. Which act is managed by the EPA?
    Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Ac
  46. Which act deals with the release of hazardous, non-oil, substances on land, water and air?
    Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act
  47. Which act established the National Priorities List (40CFR300 Appendix B)?
    Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act
  48. Which act established the superfund ($1.6 billion)?
    Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act
  49. Which act has a Civil penalty of $32,500 per violation and $32,500 per day if the situation is referenced in the Civil Penalty Guide?
    Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act
  50. Which act provides Criminal Penalties up to 3 years in jail and a maximum fine of $500,000?
    Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act
  51. Which act amended the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act in 1986?
    Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act (SARA)
  52. Which act reauthorized the Super Fund & raised it to $8.5 billion
    Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act
  53. Which act redefined "response" to include enforcement activities?
    Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act
  54. Which act established the HAZ Com Standards (29CFR1910.1200).
    Superfund Amendment & Reauthorization Act
  55. Which act defines the characteristics of hazardous waste?
    Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
  56. Which act adopts the IMO regulations set forth in Marpol 73/78?
    Act to Prevent Pollution from Ships
  57. What constitutes a "Harmful Quantity"?
    Discharge of oil in such quantities that violate applicable water quality standards or cause a film, sheen or discoloration of the surface of the water or adjoining shoreline; or cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or adjoining shorelines.
  58. What table is used to determine a Reportable Quantity under Federal Water Pollution Control Act
    40CFR117.3 table
  59. What table is used to determine a Reportable Quantity under "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation & Liability Act" (CERCLA)
    40CFR302.4 table
  60. Define Responsible Party.
    Owner, operator, lease, charterer, licensee, permitee, holder of a right of use and easement granted of any vessel, facility, platform, deep water port or pipeline. 40CFR300.5
  61. Define Navigable Waterway.
    All waters that are currently used, were used or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters subject to the ebb and flow of the tide.
  62. What regulation gives the COTP authority to do anything on the water for the safety of the water?
    33 CFR 6.04-7
  63. When would a COTP order be issued?
    When it is necessary to prevent any hazard to people, the environment, or the port.
  64. What can a COTP order control?
    Movement and operations of either vessels or facilities.
  65. Who issues a COTP order and under what authority?
    The order can be issued by the District Commander or the COTP under authority of the Ports and Waterways Safety Act (33 CFR 160.113).
  66. Can a COTP order be issued to multiple vessels or facilities simultaneously?
  67. What is a Letter of Undertaking?
    A promissory note drawn up by a Sector approved lawyer that says an owner or operator of a foreign flagged vessel will pay any civil penalties incurred by the vessel will be paid before the vessel departs United States Waters. A cashier’s check or surety bond may be used.
  68. What is the purpose and use of an Administrative Order?
    It is an order that would give specific task direction to a person, vessel, or facility to do something prior to conducting further operations. It is typically used if the RP is not cleaning up their spill to the satisfaction of the "Federal On-Scene Coordinators Representative" The administrative order directs them in how they should proceed in the clean up.
  69. What is a transfer suspension order and what regulations gives us the authority to issue one?
    A suspension of transfer operations on a vessel or facility due to unsafe operations until otherwise noted (33 CFR 156.112).
  70. What is the purpose of a Notice of Federal Interest?
    It notifies any possible Responsible Party that they may be responsible for the spill. If the Responsible Party does not take action for the cleanup, the government assumes responsibility for the cleanup. The Responsible Party could be held liable for either $40,000 or up to three times the actual cost of the cleanup if found responsible for the spill. By signing a NOFI a person is not admitting guilt, but acknowledging receipt.
  71. What constitutes a Minor spill?
    Oil - Inland - 0 to 10,000 gallons.  Oil - Coastal - 10,000 to 100,000   Hazardous Materials - A quantity that poses minimal threat to public health or the welfare of the United States or the environment.
  72. What constitutes a Medium spill?
    Oil - Inland - 1,000 to 10,000 gallons.   Oil - Coastal - 10,000 to 100,000 gallons.     Hazardous Materials - Does not meet the criteria for classification as a minor or a major release.
  73. What constitutes a Major spill?
    Oil - Inland - Over 10,000 gallons.  Oil - Coastal - Over 100,000 gallons.   Hazardous Materials - A quantity that poses a substantial threat to public health or welfare of the United States or the environment or results in significant public concern.
  74. What cite has the differences between Discharge/Release sizes?
    40 CFR 300.5
  75. What is the applicability for 33 CFR 154?
    Each waterfront facility that is capable of transferring oil or hazardous materials in bulk, to or from a vessel, where the vessel has a total capacity, from a combination of all bulk products carried, of 250 barrels or more.
  76. What is the applicability for 33 CFR 155?
    Each ship that is operated under the authority of the United States and any ship under any other flag operating on the navigable waters of the United States except warships of those exempted by MARPOL.
  77. What is the applicability of 33 CFR 156?
    The transfer of oil or hazardous material on the navigable waters or Contiguous Zone of the United States to, from, or within each vessel with a capacity of 250 barrels or more, except within public vessels.
  78. What is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility and who is issued one?
    A "Certificate of Financial Responsibility" (COFR is to ensure that a vessel or company in charge of a vessel has sufficient funds to cover the cost of a spill should it occur (33 CFR 138.12/65).
  79. How long is a "Certificate of Financial Responsibility"  (COFR) valid for and who issues them?
    3 years and is issued by the National Pollution Funds Center.
  80. What is a Notice of Violation and when can it be issued?
    A "Notice of Violation" (NOV) is civil penalty which can be issued in the case of oil discharges of 1,000 gallons or less with a maximum fine of $10,000. A "Notice of Violation can only be issued when all five elements are present (COMDTINST M5582.1 / 33 CFR 1.07).
  81. What is a Report of Violation?
    A Civil penalty whose fines are updated through the federal register (33 CFR 1.07 / 33 CFR 27).
  82. What is the applicability of Marpol?
    Ships entitled to fly the flag of a Party to the Convention, ships not entitled to fly the flag of a party but which operates under the authority of a party.
  83. When should a pollution incident be reported and by who?
    Any person in charge of a vessel or of an on shore of offshore facility shall, as soon as they have knowledge of any discharge of oil or a hazardous substance from such vessel or facility violation of any U.S. applicable laws, immediately notify the National Response Center or the nearest pre-designated USCG or EPA OSC for the geographic area where the discharge occurs or the nearest USCG unit (33 CFR 153.203).
  84. What constitutes a harmful quantity of oil?
    Anything that creates a sheen, emulsion, discoloration, or sludge.
  85. Define Coastal Zone as it pertains to the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act"
    All United States waters subject to the tide, United States waters of the Great Lakes, specified ports and harbors on inland rivers, waters of the contiguous zone, other waters of the high seas subject to the National Contingency Plan, and the land surface or land substrata, ground waters, and ambient air proximal to those waters.
  86. Define Inland Zone as it pertains to "Federal Water Pollution Control Act"
    The environment inland of the coastal zone excluding the Great Lakes and specified ports and harbors on inland rivers.
  87. Define the term Coastal Waters as it applies to "Federal Water Pollution Control Act"
    For the purpose of classifying the size of discharges, means the waters of the coastal zone except for the Great Lakes and specified ports and harbors on inland rivers.
  88. Define the term Inland Waters as it applies to "Federal Water Pollution Control Act"
    For the purpose of classifying the size of discharges, means those waters of the United States in the inland zone, waters of the Great Lakes, and specified ports and harbors on inland rivers.
  89. Define Exclusive Economic Zone.
    It stretches from the seaward edge of the territorial sea out to 200 nautical miles from its coast.
  90. Define Territorial Sea.
    A state's territorial sea extends up to 12 nautical miles from its baseline.
  91. Define Contiguous Zone
    The zone of the high seas which is contiguous to the territorial sea and which extends nine miles outward from the outer limit of the territorial sea.
  92. What is the definition of Hazardous Substance?
    Hazardous substance as defined by section 101(14) of CERCLA, means: Any substance designated pursuant to section 311(b)(2)(A) of the CWA; any element, compound, mixture, solution, or substance designated pursuant to section 102 of CERCLA; any hazardous waste having the characteristics identified under or listed pursuant to section 3001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act (but not including any waste the regulation of which under the Solid Waste Disposal Act (42 U.S.C. 6901 et seq.) has been suspended by Act of Congress); any toxic pollutant listed under section 307(a) of the CWA; any hazardous air pollutant listed under section 112 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7521 et seq.); and any imminently hazardous chemical substance or mixture with respect to which the EPA Administrator has taken action pursuant to section 7 of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 U.S.C. 2601 et seq.). The term does not include petroleum, including crude oil or any fraction thereof which is not otherwise specifically listed or designated as a hazardous substance in the first sentence of this paragraph, and the term does not include natural gas, natural gas liquids, liquified natural gas, or synthetic gas usable for fuel (or mixtures of natural gas and such synthetic gas). *33 CFR 300.5*
Card Set:
Pollution PQS
2015-07-16 12:31:55
MST Marine Science Technician USCG Pollution PQS

My first set of cards, trying to make study material for MST Pollution PQS
Show Answers: