Biology Test 2

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Biology Test 2
2015-07-19 23:56:35

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  1. Humans are both
    A) heterotrophs and consumers.
    B) heterotrophs and autotrophs.
    C) producers and consumers.
    D) autotrophs and producers
  2. Photosynthetic organisms are ______.
    A) producers that make all of their organic matter from organic molecules that they take in
    B) consumers that obtain organic molecules from other living organisms
    C) producers that make all their own organic matter from inorganic molecules
    D) decomposers that obtain nutrients from the soil
  3. A horse eating some hay is an example of ______.
    A) an autotroph eating a producer
    B) an autotroph eating a consumer
    C) a consumer eating a producer
    D) a consumer eating a heterotroph
  4. Plants use photosynthesis to
    A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy.
    B) store as well as harvest chemical energy.
    C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy.
    D) obtain carbon dioxide.
  5. The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.
    A) water only
    B) carbon dioxide only
    C) water and carbon dioxide
    D) water and glucose
  6. Plant cells ______.
    A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs
    B) have chloroplasts and mitochondria
    C) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen
    D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs
  7. The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.
    A) the sun
    B) producers
    C) ATP
    D) consumers
  8. An aerobic process requires ______.
    A) oxygen
    B) carbon dioxide
    C) ATP
    D) carbohydrates
  9. Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular
    respiration ______.
    A) produces ATP
    B) produces oxygen
    C) produces glucose
    D) uses carbon dioxide
  10. Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?
    A) glucose → lactic acid + energy
    B) energy + carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen + water
    C) glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy
    D) none of the above
  11. Which of the following are produced during cellular respiration?
    A) ATP and water
    B) carbon dioxide and ATP
    C) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
    D) oxygen and glucose
  12. During redox reactions, ______.
    A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction
    B) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized
    C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance
    D) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule
  13. During cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules. Which
    of the following is a true statement about this process?
    A) The electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another.
    B) Oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.
    C) The electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one
    electron acceptor to another.
    D) Glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.
  14. Which of the following statements is true?
    A) Oxygen is a product of cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis.
    B) Lactic acid is a product of aerobic respiration; ethyl alcohol is a product of fermentation.
    C) Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons.
    D) Glucose is a product of aerobic respiration; lactic acid is a product of anaerobic respiration.
  15. The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.
    A) CO2
    B) O2
    C) NAD+
    D) H2O
  16. The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.
    A) ATP
    B) oxygen
    C) lactic acid
    D) NAD
  17. Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
    A) cytoplasm
    B) ER
    C) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane
    D) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane
  18. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?
    A) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport
    B) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport
    C) citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis
    D) electron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle
  19. A product of glycolysis is ______.
    A) lactic acid
    B) ethyl alcohol
    C) O2
    D) pyruvic acid
  20. Which of the following is a result of glycolysis?
    A) production of CO2
    B) conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
    C) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule
    D) conversion of NADH to NAD+
  21. The second stage of aerobic respiration is ______.
    A) ATP production
    B) the citric acid cycle
    C) lactic acid fermentation
    D) glycolysis
  22. What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle?
    A) acetyl CoA
    B) lactic acid
    C) ethyl alcohol
    D) citric acid
  23. Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH?
    A) electron transport chain
    B) citric acid cycle
    C) glycolysis
    D) Calvin cycle
  24. Electron transport takes place in the ______.
    A) mitochondria
    B) chloroplasts
    C) cytoplasm
    D) ribosomes
  25. ATP synthase plays a role in ______.
    A) pulling electrons down the electron transport chain
    B) glycolysis
    C) pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane
    D) generating ATP
  26. Aerobic cellular respiration generates about ______ ATP from one glucose.
    A) 2
    B) 6
    C) 38
    D) The number generated depends on whether the end product of aerobic respiration is lactic
    acid or ethyl alcohol.
  27. In cellular respiration, most ATP is produced directly as a result of ______.
    A) the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane
    B) the citric acid cycle
    C) fermentation
    D) the electron transport chain
  28. Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to
    A) produce more ATP than is possible through aerobic respiration.
    B) produce ATP using the electron transport chain.
    C) regenerate NADH.
    D) produce ATP without O2.
  29. Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ______ ATP per glucose.
    A) 2
    B) 4
    C) 10
    D) 38
  30. Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of
    sugar breakdown?
    A) the citric acid cycle
    B) the electron transport chain
    C) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid
    D) glycolysis
  31. Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.
    A) taking in oxygen and making wood
    B) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates)
    C) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose
    D) converting sugar to oxygen and water
  32. Within the inner membrane of a chloroplast, interconnected sacs of membrane called ______ are
    suspended in a thick fluid called the ______.
    A) chlorophyll... thylakoid
    B) thylakoids... grana
    C) thylakoids... stroma
    D) grana... thylakoid
  33. What is the function of stomata?
    A) water absorption
    B) Calvin cycle
    C) location of photosystems
    D) gas exchange
  34. What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?
    A) stroma
    B) cristae
    C) thylakoids
    D) vesicles
  35. What are grana?
    A) thick fluids inside chloroplasts
    B) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane
    C) stacks of membranous sacs
    D) pigments found in chloroplasts
  36. Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?
    A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → C6H12O6
    B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2
    C) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O
    D) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O
  37. In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.
    A) O2... CO2
    B) C6H12O6... O2
    C) H2O... C6H12O6
    D) H2O... CO2
  38. Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis?
    A) O2
    B) CO2
    C) C6H12O6
    D) ADP
  39. The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ______.
    A) ATP and NADH
    B) ATP and NADPH
    C) RuBP and O2
    D) ATP and NADP+
  40. The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.
    A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigment
    B) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object
    C) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object
    D) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight
  41. The energy of wavelengths that appear ______ is least useful to photosynthesis.
    A) red
    B) green
    C) blue
    D) orange
  42. What is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of leaves in the fall?
    A) RuBP
    B) chlorophyll a
    C) carotenoids
    D) chlorophyll b
  43. What is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules, like chlorophyll b and
    A) to reflect more energy
    B) to absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot
    C) to give them different colors
    D) because plants cannot make enough chlorophyll a for all of their energy needs
  44. What name is given to a discrete packet of light?
    A) frequency
    B) wavelength
    C) photon
    D) quantum
  45. The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ______.
    A) less energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments
    B) redder the color
    C) more photons it contains
    D) greater the energy
  46. When a molecule absorbs a photon, one of its electrons is raised to the ______ state.
    A) energetic
    B) quantum
    C) higher
    D) excited
  47. Which of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon?
    A) heat
    B) fluorescence
    C) light
    D) all of the above
  48. Where are photosystems located?
    A) chlorophyll
    B) thylakoid membrane
    C) cristae
    D) stroma
  49. What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?
    A) chlorophyll b
    B) carotenoids
    C) phycobilins
    D) chlorophyll a
  50. The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ______.
    A) in the stroma
    B) on the cristae
    C) in the thylakoid membrane
    D) in the cytosol
  51. ______ is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem.
    A) H2O
    B) Chlorophyll a
    C) CO2
    D) C6H12O6
  52. Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of
    A) citric acid cycle
    B) glycolysis
    C) Calvin cycle
    D) electron transport chain
  53. In photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ______.
    A) thylakoid membrane
    B) outer chloroplast membrane
    C) endomembrane
    D) inner chloroplast membrane
  54. The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.
    A) light energy and CO2... sugar
    B) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar and O2
    C) light energy, CO2, and water... sugar and O2
    D) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar
  55. C4 plants conserve water by ______.
    A) shuttling CO2 from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem
    B) keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry
    C) growing very deep roots
    D) running the Calvin cycle at night
  56. Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical. This type of cell
    division is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT
    A) growth of a multicellular organism.
    B) cell replacement.
    C) production of sperm and eggs.
    D) asexual reproduction.
  57. Chromatin consists of ______.
    A) DNA and protein
    B) RNA and protein
    C) protein only
    D) DNA only
  58. A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
    A) centromeres
    B) centrosomes
    C) genomes
    D) sister chromatids
  59. Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
    A) centromere
    B) spindle
    C) centrosome
    D) centriole
  60. Which of the following occurs during interphase?
    A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.
    B) Chromosome duplication.
    C) Sister chromatids separate.
    D) The mitotic spindle forms.
  61. The cell cycle results in the production of ______.
    A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
    B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic
    C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic
    D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic
  62. Which of the following occurs during prophase?
    A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
    B) The nuclear envelope forms.
    C) Sister chromatids separate.
    D) The mitotic spindle begins to form.
  63. Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?
    A) cytokinesis
    B) telophase
    C) interphase
    D) DNA synthesis
  64. The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.
    A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
    B) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase
    C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
    D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
  65. During metaphase ______.
    A) the nuclear envelope breaks up
    B) sister chromatids separate
    C) centromeres divide
    D) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
  66. Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
    A) Sister chromatids separate.
    B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
    C) The nuclear envelope reappears.
    D) The nuclear envelope breaks up.
  67. During telophase ______.
    A) the events of prophase are reversed
    B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
    C) sister chromatids separate
    D) the nuclear envelope breaks up
  68. A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
    A) have less genetic material than it started with
    B) not have completed anaphase
    C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell
    D) have two nuclei
  69. Cytokinesis typically begins during the ______ stage of mitosis.
    A) telophase
    B) prophase
    C) metaphase
    D) anaphase
  70. Homologous chromosomes ______.
    A) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics
    B) include only the autosomes
    C) separate during mitosis
    D) carry the same versions of all genes
  71. What chromosomes belong to a normal human male?
    A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
    B) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
    C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
    D) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
  72. What chromosomes belong to a normal human female?
    A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
    B) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
    C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
    D) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes
  73. Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.
    A) homologous chromosomes
    B) nonhomologous chromosomes
    C) sex chromosomes
    D) autosomes
  74. In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II?
    A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid
    B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase
    II the chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell.
    C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during
    prophase II.
    D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are
  75. During metaphase I, ______.
    A) crossing over occurs
    B) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
    C) the nuclear envelope breaks up
    D) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles
  76. Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).
    A) four haploid
    B) two diploid
    C) two haploid
    D) one diploid
  77. Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II?
    A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.
    B) Spindle formation occurs.
    C) Chromosomes have been duplicated.
    D) Crossing over occurs.
  78. Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in mitotic anaphase ______.
    A) the cells are diploid... the cells are haploid
    B) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell... chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell
    C) crossing over occurs... crossing over does not occur
    D) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate... the cells are diploid and sister
    chromatids separate
  79. One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
    A) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not
    B) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis
    C) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells
    D) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells
  80. A ______ describes a site of crossing over.
    A) chiasma
    B) histone
    C) synapse
    D) centromere
  81. How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction?
    A) n + 1 or n - 1
    B) 2n + 1 or 2n - 1
    C) 2n - 1 only
    D) 2n + 1 or n - 1
  82. Nucleosomes are made of ______.
    A) RNA and protein
    B) DNA
    C) proteins
    D) DNA and histone proteins
  83. Plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ______.
    A) plant cells produce more daughter cells
    B) plant cells form a cell plate and animal cells do not
    C) animal cells produce more daughter cells
    D) animal cells form a cell plate and plant cells do not
  84. In the human life cycle ______.
    A) meiosis produces a diploid zygote
    B) meiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells
    C) fertilization produces a haploid zygote
    D) a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human
  85. The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ______.
    A) cannot be cross-fertilized
    B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent
    C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized
    D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring
  86. A mating between a purebred purple-flowered pea plant and a purebred white-flowered pea plant
    would produce a(n) ______.
    A) purebred variety
    B) hybrid
    C) P generation
    D) F2 generation
  87. Alleles are described as ______.
    A) homologous chromosomes
    B) environmental factors that affect gene expression
    C) alternate versions of a gene
    D) alternate phenotypes
  88. A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green
    seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
    A) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele.
    B) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow.
    C) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.
    D) The alleles are codominant.
  89. A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green
    seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the
    offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?
    A) 1:2:1
    B) 2:1
    C) 3:1
    D) 9:3:3:1
  90. According to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.
    A) two alleles segregate into each gamete
    B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive
    C) gametes have one copy
  91. Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual
    with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
    A) 2:1
    B) 1:1
    C) 1:2:1
    D) 3:1
  92. Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants, and all of the
    resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The offspring are all ______, and the allele for purple
    flowers is ______.
    A) heterozygotes... recessive
    B) heterozygotes... dominant
    C) homozygotes... recessive
    D) homozygotes... dominant
  93. Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with
    attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for
    free earlobes?
    A) 0%
    B) 25%
    C) 50%
    D) 75%
  94. In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the
    genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
    A) DD
    B) Dd
    C) dd
    D) DI
  95. An individual who is homozygous ______.
    A) expresses the dominant trait
    B) carries two different alleles for a gene
    C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
    D) expresses the recessive trait
  96. Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
    A) AA × aa
    B) AA × Aa
    C) Aa × Aa
    D) Aa × aa
  97. What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
    A) locus
    B) chiasma
    C) genotype
    D) allele
  98. Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green
    seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?
    A) 1:2:1
    B) 9:3:3:1
    C) 3:1
    D) 1:1:1:1
  99. DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
    A) nucleotide
    B) carbohydrate
    C) fatty acid
    D) amino acid
  100. The backbone of DNA consists of ______.
    A) nitrogenous bases
    B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern
    C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
    D) paired nucleotides
  101. Thymine and cytosine differ from adenine and guanine in that
    A) thymine and cytosine are single-ring structures, whereas adenine and guanine are
    double-ring structures.
    B) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are found in both
    DNA and RNA.
    C) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are only found in
    D) thymine and cytosine are larger nitrogenous bases.
  102. RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA.
    A) a deoxyribose sugar... a ribose sugar
    B) uracil... thymine
    C) uracil... guanine
    D) thymine... uracil
  103. If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanines?
    A) 60%
    B) 40%
    C) 20%
    D) 30%
  104. In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
    A) cytosine... thymine
    B) guanine... adenine
    C) thymine... cytosine
    D) uracil... cytosine
  105. If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other
  106. Who discovered the structure of DNA?
    A) Pauling
    B) Watson and Crick
    C) Franklin
    D) Hershey and Chase
  107. Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______.
    A) X-ray crystallography studies
    B) studies of disease-causing bacteria
    C) base rule studies
    D) bacteriophage studies
  108. What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
    A) ionic
    B) covalent
    C) hydrophilic
    D) hydrogen
  109. After replication, ______.
    A) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands
    B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand
    C) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands
    D) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix
    consists of two new strands
  110. DNA replication
    A) is a slow process that results in virtually no errors.
    B) requires DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase.
    C) is a very fast process that results in numerous errors.
    D) requires the cooperation of over a dozen enzymes and other proteins.
  111. The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their
    products is "one gene-one ______."
    A) enzyme
    B) RNA
    C) protein
    D) polypeptide
  112. What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
    A) holotype
    B) genotype
    C) phenotype
    D) morphology
  113. How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
    A) 10
    B) 20
    C) 30
    D) 100
  114. How many nucleotides make up a codon?
    A) two
    B) three
    C) four
    D) five
  115. The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.
    A) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth
    B) DNA replication is error-free
    C) all life shares a common ancestry
    D) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells
  116. Transcription is the ______.
    A) manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA
    B) manufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix
    C) modification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein
    D) manufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA
  117. If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n) ______.
    A) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
    B) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the
    complementary strand
    C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG
    D) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the
    complimentary strand
  118. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
    A) RNase
    B) RNA helicase
    C) RNA ligase
    D) RNA polymerase
  119. The region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______.
    A) start codon
    B) promoter
    C) initiator
    D) processor
  120. The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.
    A) splicing, capping, tailing
    B) initiation, elongation, termination
    C) tailing, capping, splicing
    D) elongation, initiation, termination
  121. The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ______.
    A) the creation of a virus
    B) a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail
    C) the production of a longer RNA molecule
    D) the production of a shorter RNA molecule
  122. What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?
    A) RNA splicing
    B) the removal of exons
    C) the lack of RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm
    D) a cap and tail
  123. The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.
    A) caps
    B) promoters
    C) exons
    D) introns
  124. Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.
    A) DNA... RNA
    B) RNA... a polypeptide
    C) DNA... a polypeptide
    D) RNA... DNA
  125. The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA.
    A) nuclear
    B) ribosomal
    C) transfer
    D) messenger
  126. Where is translation accomplished?
    A) lysosomes
    B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C) ribosomes
    D) nucleoli
  127. Peptide bonds form between ______.
    A) amino acids
    B) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon
    C) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying
    D) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit
  128. A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______.
    A) result in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one produced prior to the
    B) result in a shortened polypeptide chain
    C) change the location at which transcription of the next gene begins
    D) have the same effect as deleting a single nucleotide in the gene
  129. At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of
    these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play
    different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?
    A) gene expression
    B) regeneration
    C) carcinogenesis
    D) cellular differentiation
  130. The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______.
    A) phenogenesis
    B) transcription
    C) gene expression
    D) recombination
  131. Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?
    A) RNA polymerase
    B) repressor
    C) promoter
    D) lactose
  132. Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.
    A) promoters
    B) DNA polymerase
    C) the operon
    D) RNA polymerase
  133. What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?
    A) RNA splicing
    B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
    C) DNA packing and unpacking
    D) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences
  134. In eukaryotic cells, repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.
    A) silencers
    B) enhancers
    C) regulators
    D) operators
  135. Introns are ______.
    A) noncoding DNA sequences
    B) DNA sequences to which activators bind
    C) expressed DNA sequences
    D) the product of RNA splicing
  136. Cells communicate with one another via ______.
    A) cascades of gene activation
    B) the diffusion of RNA transcripts through adhesion junctions
    C) signal transduction pathways
    D) RNA splicing
  137. The "master control genes" that regulate other genes, which determine what body parts will develop
    in which locations, are called ______.
    A) enhancers
    B) homeotic genes
    C) oncogenes
    D) operons
  138. How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?
    A) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.
    B) Different chromosomes have been inactivated in different cells.
    C) The cells contain different genes.
    D) The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.
  139. Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.
    A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation
    B) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans
    C) restocking populations of endangered animals
    D) all of the above.
  140. What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
    A) The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells.
    B) Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.
    C) It is easier to enucleate embryonic stem cells.
    D) Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.
  141. What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?
    A) pathogene
    B) cancogene
    C) homeotic gene
    D) oncogene
  142. Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.
    A) cell growth
    B) cell suicide
    C) cell division
    D) cell repair
  143. Which risk factors are associated with cancer of the colon and rectum?
    A) tobacco
    B) viruses
    C) UV radiation
    D) dietary fat
  144. The initiation of transcription requires that enhancers bind to _____.
    A) DNA
    B) the promoter
    C) transcription factors
    D) RNA polymerase
  145. Consider the following figure, which outlines cloning by nuclear transplantation. Why does the
    clone not resemble the surrogate mother?

    A) The sperm came from a male donor, who would also pass some of his traits to the clone.
    B) The embryonic cells are adversely influenced by the surrogate.
    C) The clone would exhibit characteristics of the genetic donor, not the surrogate.
    D) The nuclear material from the egg would influence the appearance of the clone.
  146. In a typical colon cancer, the first step is ______.

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    A) the inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene
    B) the mutation of a tumor-suppressor gene, producing an oncogene
    C) the mutation of a proto-oncogene, producing an oncogene
    D) the conversion of an oncogene to a tumor-suppressor gene