The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.
B)
Plant cells ______.
D)
The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.
C)
An aerobic process requires ______.
B)
Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular
respiration ______.
C)
Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?
C)
Which of the following are produced during cellular respiration?
C)
During redox reactions, ______.
D)
During cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules. Which
of the following is a true statement about this process?
electron acceptor to another.
D) Glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.
A)
Which of the following statements is true?
B)
The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.
D)
The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.
C)
Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
C)
Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?
C)
A product of glycolysis is ______.
A)
Which of the following is a result of glycolysis?
D)
The second stage of aerobic respiration is ______.
C)
What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle?
B)
Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH?
D)
Electron transport takes place in the ______.
A)
ATP synthase plays a role in ______.
C)
Aerobic cellular respiration generates about ______ ATP from one glucose.
acid or ethyl alcohol.
B)
In cellular respiration, most ATP is produced directly as a result of ______.
A)
Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to
B)
Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ______ ATP per glucose.
C)
Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of
sugar breakdown?
B)
Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.
A)
Within the inner membrane of a chloroplast, interconnected sacs of membrane called ______ are
suspended in a thick fluid called the ______.
D)
What is the function of stomata?
B)
What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?
B)
What are grana?
C)
Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?
A)
In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.
C)
Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis?
C)
The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ______.
D)
The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.
C)
The energy of wavelengths that appear ______ is least useful to photosynthesis.
C)
What is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of leaves in the fall?
D)
What is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules, like chlorophyll b and
carotenoids?
A)
What name is given to a discrete packet of light?
C)
The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ______.
B)
When a molecule absorbs a photon, one of its electrons is raised to the ______ state.
A)
Which of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon?
D)
Where are photosystems located?
D)
What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?
C)
The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ______.
C)
______ is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem.
C)
Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of
photosynthesis?
C)
In photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ______.
A)
The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.
C)
C4 plants conserve water by ______.
C)
Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical. This type of cell
division is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT
D)
Chromatin consists of ______.
C)
A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
D)
Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
B)
Which of the following occurs during interphase?
B)
The cell cycle results in the production of ______.
A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic
information
C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic
information
D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic
information
C
Which of the following occurs during prophase?
A)
Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?
A)
The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.
A)
During metaphase ______.
C)
Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
C)
During telophase ______.
B)
A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
C)
Cytokinesis typically begins during the ______ stage of mitosis.
B)
Homologous chromosomes ______.
A)
What chromosomes belong to a normal human male?
C)
What chromosomes belong to a normal human female?
D)
Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.
D)
In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II?
A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid
cells.
B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase
II the chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell.
C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during
prophase II.
D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are
separated.
A
During metaphase I, ______.
D)
Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).
A)
Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II?
A)
Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in mitotic anaphase ______.
chromatids separate
A)
One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
A)
A ______ describes a site of crossing over.
D)
How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction?
D)
Nucleosomes are made of ______.
B)
Plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ______.
C)
In the human life cycle ______.
A)
The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ______.
A)
A mating between a purebred purple-flowered pea plant and a purebred white-flowered pea plant
would produce a(n) ______.
D)
Alleles are described as ______.
B)
A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green
seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
D)
A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green
seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the
offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?
B)
According to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.
A) two alleles segregate into each gamete
B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive
allele
C) gametes have one copy
C
Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual
with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
D)
Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants, and all of the
resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The offspring are all ______, and the allele for purple
flowers is ______.
D)
Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with
attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for
free earlobes?
D)
In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the
genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
D)
An individual who is homozygous ______.
D)
Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
D)
What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A)
Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green
seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?
B)
DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
B)
The backbone of DNA consists of ______.
C)
Thymine and cytosine differ from adenine and guanine in that
A) thymine and cytosine are single-ring structures, whereas adenine and guanine are
double-ring structures.
B) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are found in both
DNA and RNA.
C) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are only found in
RNA.
D) thymine and cytosine are larger nitrogenous bases.
A
RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA.
A)
If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanines?
C)
In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
C)
If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other
strand?
C)
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
B)
Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______.
C)
What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
B)
After replication, ______.
consists of two new strands
D)
DNA replication
B)
The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their
products is "one gene-one ______."
B)
What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
D)
How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
A)
How many nucleotides make up a codon?
B)
The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.
B)
Transcription is the ______.
C)
If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n) ______.
A) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
B) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the
complementary strand
C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG
D) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the
complimentary strand
C
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
C)
The region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______.
D)
The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.
A)
The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ______.
D)
What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?
C)
The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.
A)
Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.
A)
The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA.
C)
Where is translation accomplished?
B)
Peptide bonds form between ______.
A)
A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______.
A) result in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one produced prior to the
mutation
B) result in a shortened polypeptide chain
C) change the location at which transcription of the next gene begins
D) have the same effect as deleting a single nucleotide in the gene
B
At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of
these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play
different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?
B)
The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______.
B)
Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?
A)
Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.
D)
What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?
B)
In eukaryotic cells, repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.
A)
Introns are ______.
B)
Cells communicate with one another via ______.
B)
The "master control genes" that regulate other genes, which determine what body parts will develop
in which locations, are called ______.
D)
How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?
C)
Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.
D)
What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
D)
What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?
A)
Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.
B)
Which risk factors are associated with cancer of the colon and rectum?
A)
The initiation of transcription requires that enhancers bind to _____.
B)
Consider the following figure, which outlines cloning by nuclear transplantation. Why does the
clone not resemble the surrogate mother?
D)
In a typical colon cancer, the first step is ______.
