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  1. Unintentional or incidental injury or damage to Persons or objects that would not be lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time. Damage is not unlawful so long as it is not excessive in light of the overall military advantage. What is this?
    Collateral Damage
  2. What is Collateral Damage Estimation?
    The holistic process of determining the potential for collateral damage resulting from target engagement.
  3. What is a body of joint standards, methods, techniques, and processes to conduct collateral damage analysis and produce collateral damage estimates?
    Collateral Damage Estimation Methodology
  4. Military Commanders are charged with the inherent responsibility to take all reasonable actions to ______ and _____ collateral effects.
    Minimize, mitigate
  5. Commanders minimize and mitigate collateral effects by ensuring it meets legal imperatives of being:
    • Distinction
    • Proportionality
    • Military Necessity
  6. US Military is concerned with collateral damage for the following reasons:
    • Required by LOW
    • Supports National Values
    • Reduces Global Criticism / Strategic risk
  7. What are the 3 Operational Imperatives that Commanders must balance within CDM?
    • Accomplishing mission objectives
    • Force protection
    • Collateral Damage mitigation
  8. What are the 3 Principal categories of risk that Commanders must balance within CDM?
    • Risk to Mission
    • Risk to force
    • Risk to collateral damage
  9. The CDM supports the employment of what type of munitions across the range of operations?
    Conventional Munitions
  10. The ______ _____ ____ ____ normally helps commanders evaluate and balance risk based on operational imperatives.
    Joint Operational Planning Process (JOPP)
  11. What strategic Consequences does Excessive Collateral Damage produce?
    • Reduced Support
    • More Restrictive ROE
    • Prolonged Post-Combat Reconstruction
    • Early Termination of Operations.
  12. CDM is applicable to Joint Targeting and Indirect Fires at what levels of war?
    • Strategic
    • Operational
    • Tactical
  13. LOW require ___________ ___________ to ensure only legitimate military objectives are targeted.
    reasonable precautions
  14. What are the 5 basic questions and at what CDE level do we answer those questions?
    • 1) Can I PID @CDE level 1
    • 2)Are there protected or collateral concerns non-combatant, human shields, CBR or environmental hazards within the effects range of the weapon i am using to attack the TGT @ CDE level 1
    • 3) Can I mitigate with another weapon and still accomplish the mission @ CDE levels 2,3,4
    • 4) What will be the number of civilian or NON-COMs injured or killed @ CDE level 5
    • 5) Is the effect of the attack excessive and do I need to elevate the decision to higher level of command @ CDE level 5
  15. CDM does _____ intend to limit or supersede a commander’s ability to respond to ____ ____ ___ or the inherent right of __________
    Not, Time Sensitive Targets (TST), self-defense
  16. What dictates decision authorities and collateral damage thresholds governing the reporting requirements and delegate CDE responsibilities of a given operation?
  17. CDM provides a _____ framework that describes and enables a process, supported by empirical _____ data, to estimate and mitigate collateral effects.
    logical, JMEM
  18. ____ or _____ _____ have the latitude to decide the manner of application of the CDM below the ______ level.
    Operational, Combatant Commanders, Operational
  19. Who develops HPAC estimates for CBR and plume hazards estimation ISO CDE evaluations?
  20. Who develops CHAMP estimates for environmental hazards ISO CDE evaluations?
    NCMI (national center for Medical Intelligence)
  21. What dictates supreme value placed on preservation of civilian life and emulated by Military forces?
    National Values
  22. What are the 5 levels within the CDE methodology?
    • CDE 1 - Target Validation / Initial Assessment
    • CDE 2 - General / MTS assessment
    • CDE 3 - Weaponeering Assessment
    • CDE 4 - Refined Assessment
    • CDE 5 - Casuality Estimate / Assessment
  23. CDM is needed because?
    • Supports identification and management of risk
    • Supports Decision making
    • Establishes policy guidance
    • Outputs support the STAR process
  24. What warrants the SECDEF or POTUS review and approval, a CDE 5 High unacceptable strategic risk, requires STAR process and exceed national threshold and are delineated in OPLAN/CONPLANS, OPORD, EXORD and ROE by combatant Commanders?
    Sensitive Targets
  25. Sensitive targets exceed national-level thresholds such as:
    • High collateral damage or collateral effects
    • adverse political ramifications
    • environmental harm/hazard
    • adverse public sentiment
  26. What doctrine covers Sensitive Target and Review (STAR) process?
    CJCSI 3122.06
  27. What doctrine covers CDE?
    CJCIS 3160.01B,
  28. Collateral persons/objects are __________ persons or objects defined by _______ and or ______ that are not ______ ________ ______ in the circumstances ruling at the time.
    Non-Combatants, LOW, ROE, lawful military targets
  29. The CDM codifies and standardizes the CDE process supporting commander’s evaluation of risk in the what?
  30. Who has the responsibility for the maintenance of the CDE technical data and automation tools?
  31. ____ ____ include both Traditional and non-traditional objects whose damage or destruction would produce a disproportionate effect on the Non-combatant population.
    No-strike Entities
  32. A list of all identified objects within a specified geographic area (country or AO) functionally characterized as Non-Combatant / Civilian in nature.
    No-Strike List (NSL)
  33. No-Strike guidance and policy task Combatant Commanders Shall identify No-Strike Objects and produce NSL for:
    • Each AOR Country
    • Joint Strategic Capabillities Plan (JSCP)
    • Guidance for employment of the force (GEF)
    • Each OPLAN/OPORD Area of Operations
  34. No-strife facilities are _____ _____ within the MIDB by ________.
    functionally identified , CATCODE
  35. No-Strike Entities located on military instillations must be:
    • Geospatially defined as distinct facilities
    • Treated as Collateral Objects
  36. No-Strike Entities nominated for targeting based on operational significance must:
    • Require ROE authorization
    • Reclassified as a valid TGT& removed from the NSL
  37. The NSL is a ______ and _______ list from the RSL.
    Separate, distinct
  38. ____ ____ are valid military targets which the Combatant Commander has restricted/ limited effects based on Operational, political, intelligence gain/loss, CDE or other considerations.
    Restricted Targets
  39. The COCOM limits or restricts effects for restricted targets based on what?
    • Operational, political, intelligence gain or loss
    • CDE
    • Other Considerations
  40. COCOMs are responsible to produce a restricted target list for each ______.
  41. _______ are those characterized as having both a military and civilian purpose.
    Dual-Use Targets
  42. Damage is not unlawful so long as it is not ____ in light of the overall _____ _____.
    Excessive, military advantage
  43. _____ Provides the authorizations and prohibitions regarding targeting dual-use facilities.
  44. LOW-protected facilities/structures occupied by Combatants are considered?
    Dual-use targets
  45. Requires CDE whereby all of the occupants of the Dual-Use Structures are characterized as _____ _____.
    Non-Combantant Casualities
  46. ____ are responsible to determine the Dual-Use nature of a target based on current intelligence, guided by or considering the current operational ROE.
  47. (Dual-Use targets) May consist of ____ protected facilities/structures occupied by combatants.
  48. LOW protected structures occupied by enemy combatants for the ____ __ ____ _____ objectives lose their LOW protection and are not classified as Dual-Use.
    purpose of advancing military
  49. ____ _____ are Non-Combatant personnel intentionally placed around a valid military target to hinder attack of that target.
    Human Shields
  50. What are the two classifications or human shields?
    • Involuntary
    • Voluntary
  51. Which type of Human Shields must be accounted for in Casualty Estimate?
    Involuntary, unwitted or status unknown
  52. If the status of human shields is ___ ____, then the more restrictive rule applies, and they are to be protected as protected persons/collateral objects.
    not known
  53. What are the primary causes of Collateral Damage?
    • PID (70%)
    • Weapon Malfunction (22%)
    • Conscious Decision (8%)
  54. What are the two components that establish PID?
    • Geo-spatially defined
    • Determine Function/activity/purpose/
    • location
  55. What factors affect Delivery accuracy?
    • TLE
    • CEP
  56. A radius defining a circle representing mean error (50%) between the actual and perceived target location.
    Target Location Error
  57. CDE methodology uses what level of TLE?
  58. TLE90 accuracy comes from two sources, what are they?
    • Acquisition system (Man or machine)
    • Geo-Spatial reference system
  59. A radius defining a circle within which 50% of weapons will impact. What level CE does CDE use?
    Circular Error Probable (CEP), CE90
  60. CEP size is based on what for PGM? ASUGM/SSBM?
    • PGM: weapon guidance system
    • ASUGM/SSBM: delivery system
  61. What TLE90 values are used in CER tables?
    • 20feet/6meters-PGM, ASUGM an SSBM predicted
    • 450feet/137 meters for FO w/laser for SSBM OA
  62. Range Error is normally _______ deflection error.
  63. Weapons have a tendency to impact _______ or _______of a target.
    long or short
  64. What are the primary Colateral Damage effects of warheads?
    • Frag
    • Blast
    • Debis / ejecta
    • Penetration
    • thermal
  65. What is the dominate hazard to personnel?
    Fragmentation / Debris (ejecta)
  66. What CER/MTS tables has Fragmentation vs standing personnel for a dominate hazard?
    1, 2A, 3A(U), 3B, 3C
  67. What CER/MTS tables has Debris/Ejecta vs standing personnel for a dominate hazard?
  68. What CER/MTS tables has Blast vs structure as a dominate hazard?
    4A, 4B, 4C
  69. What CER/MTS tables has TLE90 as a dominate hazard?
    2B, 2C Predicted
  70. What is the dominate hazard to structures?
  71. _____ + ______ = CER
    TE90, WCER
  72. What are the distances for predicted (P)?
    6m / 20ft
  73. What type of munition uses Observer Adjust and what are the distances?
    Surface-to-Surface Ballistic Munitions (SSBM) / 137m 450ft
  74. You can only provide 3 types for spreads for heading, what are they?
    030, 090, 180
  75. Mitigation techniques employed are conditional on ____ ____.
    Target presentation (environmental)
  76. Heading must start, end or bisect from a ______ direction
  77. Engagement zones require a ______ heading from a cardinal direction.
  78. Which 4 factors in CDE 1 will require a Casualty Estimate (CDE 5)?
    • involuntary/unwitted human shield
    • Dual-Use
    • Plume Hazard
    • Environmental Hazard
  79. What 2 things in CDE 1 may terminate the CDE Analysis?
    • failure to PID
    • target isn’t authorized by ROE .
  80. CDE 4 assumes the NCP changes from outdoor to indoor. What are we concerned with?
    Structure type
  81. What are the methods to determine collateral structure type?
    • Nearest CC
    • Weakest CC
    • Multiple CC
  82. ____ is a radius that defines a Collateral Hazard Area (CHA).
    Collateral Effects Radius (CER
  83. What tables cover the PGM CER? ASUGM CER MTS? SSBM CER/MTS?
    • PGM: 2A, 3A, 4A
    • ASUGM: 2B, 3B, 4B
    • SSBM: 2C, 3C, 4C
  84. _____ contains one CER value which is applied to all conventional weapons in the US inventory.
    CDE 1 CER reference table
  85. Under CDE 1, what are the 3 exception within the conventional weapons?
    • TLAM U/RGM-109D
    • M26A2 ER/MLRS at 1/2 range to max range
  86. Point targets are best serviced by what?
  87. Area targets are normally best serviced by which weapons class?
    • ASUGM
    • SSBM
  88. CER for PGMs should always be measured from what?
    Precision mensurated Aimpoint
  89. Where are CERs in the CDE 2A table taken from?
    largest CER in 3A table
  90. CDE 2A has two CER values, what are they?
    • PGM Unitary
    • PGM Cluster
  91. What are the 3 types of boundaries used for process of MTS with ASUGM and SSBM?
    • Rectangular Method
    • Circle Method
    • Segment Method
  92. CDE 3A tables are listed by _____ not weapon guidance.
  93. _____ means the warhead achieves 100% sub-surface warhead or internal detonation.
  94. CDE 3B are based on the combination of what?
    • Air to Surface Delivery Platform
    • unguided Warhead (Unmitigated / Cluster weapons)
  95. In cases where the MTS in not feasible, the CDM recommends what?
    Consider PGM only
  96. CDE 3C tables are listed by what?
    • Weapon System
    • Shell
    • Fuse
    • Method of Engagement (observer adjusted or predicted)
  97. Why is heading an important part of ASUGM CDE analysis?
    It specifies the orientation of the Engagement Zone for multipleweapons deliveries
  98. What tool is prescribed in the development of ASUGM Engagement Cone in CDE 3?
  99. CDE 4A values are determined by what?
    • Collateral Structure Type
    • Warhead
  100. CDE 4B are based on a combination of what?
    • Delivery Platform
    • Mitigated Warhead (Cluster weapons not supported)
  101. CDE 4C tables are based on what?
    • Weapon System
    • Shell
    • Fuse
    • Method of Engagement (OA or P)
    • No Collateral persons in the open
  102. What is the only time you will give a heading in a CDE 3 assessment?
    Multiple Warhead Deliveries (ASUGM)
  103. What are the 5 ways munitions effects are mitigated?
    • Delay fuzing/bomb burial
    • VT fuzing/ air burst
    • shielding
    • delivery heading
    • Aimpoint offset
  104. What are the 4 fragmentation mitigation techniques?
    • Delay fuzing/bomb burial
    • shielding
    • delivery heading
    • Aimpoint offset
  105. What are the 4 blast mitigation techniques?
    • Delay fuzing/bomb burial
    • VT fuzing/ air burst
    • shielding
    • Aimpoint offset
  106. What are the debris mitigation techniques?
    • VT fuzing/ air burst
    • shielding
    • Aimpoint offset
  107. CDE Methodology does not account for what three factors?
    • weapon malfunction
    • Unknown transient (non-combatant)
    • Secondary explosions
  108. The CERs in the CDE 3C CER reference tables are based on what weaponeering factors?
    • Weapon System
    • shell (warhead)
    • Fuze
    • Method of engagement
    • Gun-to-TGT Range relative to 1/2 the maximum gun-to-TGT range value
  109. What techniques or factors are used to differentiate between the mitigated and unmitigated cases for SSBM in 3C?
    • Unmitigated- OA
    • mitigated-Predicted
  110. What are the three types of sheaves in SSBM?
    • Circular (default) center point and radius
    • Linear -center point and Length and width
    • Converged - center point
  111. What is assumed during CDE level 4?
    Non-Combatants are indoors
  112. What is the first step during CDE 4 while performing a PGM analysis?
    Determine the nearest collateral structure type
  113. What weaponeering elements are required to determine PGM CER using the CDE 4A tables?
    • Warhead
    • nearest collateral structure type
  114. How must warheads be fuzed to employ the CERs in CDE 4A?
    • DF 100% in a structure
    • DF 100% below non-structure (100% burial)
  115. The CERs in the CDE 4C CER reference tables are based on what weaponeering factors?
    • Weapon System
    • shell (warhead)
    • Fuze
    • Method of engagement
    • Gun-to-TGT Range relative to 1/2 the maximum gin-to-TGT range value
  116. What element must be added to the evaluation for CDE 4A and CDE 4B?
    • Delivery Heading
    • (away from NCC-PGM)
    • (parallel for ASUGM)
  117. The CERs in the CDE 4B CER reference tables are based on the combination of what two factors?
    • Air-to-Surface delivery platform
    • Unguided warhead
  118. How must warheads be fuzed to employ the CERs in CDE 4B?
    DF to acieve 100% detonating below the grade or internal to structure
  119. What weaponeering exceptions are noted in CDE 4C?
    • Cluster / Improved conventional Munitions (ICM)
    • RAP and enhanced range munitions
  120. What does the values in the CDE 5 Population Density Reference Tables represent?
    Personnel per 1000 sq Feet
  121. Can PoL data be used instead of population density tables?
    Yes, Its more accurate
  122. What are the Casualty Factors use in CDE 5?
    1.0 and .25
  123. In what cases are the Casualty factors of .25 applied?
    Indoor CC within the outer annulus of the CHA
  124. What is determined first in CDE 5?
    Facility functionality
  125. Population density tables are only valid for what?
    Specific AORs
  126. In what cases are Casualty Factors of 1.0 applied?
    • All Dual Use
    • Outdoor CC
    • Indoor CC within the inner annulus of the CHA
  127. LOW requires WHAT to ensure only legitimate military objects are targeted.
    feasible precautions
  128. Who is responsible for publishing the NSL for assigned areas of operation?
    Geographic CCMDs with support from the IC
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2017-06-19 22:20:14

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