STATE EXAM

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robledma
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306353
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STATE EXAM
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2015-12-30 11:19:27
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  1. Injured workers stopped qualifying for Voc Rehab Benefits when those benefits were eliminated. What is that date? Discuss the effect of the elimination of Voc Rehab on the injured worker. AND....Though the benefit was eliminated, injured workers that had qualified and were still eligible were able to come forward and collect Voc Rehab Benefits until the all the laws sunset. A). What date was that? B) What case law decision issued in June 2009, confirmed the sunsetting of Voc Rehab?
    Injured workers stopped qualifying for Voc Rehab, effective 01/01/04. Voc Rehab was a benefit that had no dollar limits before 1994 and a $16,000 cap after 1994. On or after 01/01/09, injuries that caused PD, if the injured worker did not return to work for the employer within 60 days of the end of TD, he/she would be eligible for a Supplemental Job Displacement Benefit (voucher) up to $10,000.00, which would be used for education-related retraining and/or skill enhancement; but no more than 10 percent was allowed to be used for Voc Rehab/return-to-work counseling. Effective 01/01/2009, Voc Rehab was deleted. The case of Weiner v. Ralphs Co., filed on 06/11/2009, confirmed the sunsetting of Voc Rehab.
  2. What is the 'interactive process' and what law requires documentation of same? AND... What are the possible ramifications to the employer if they do not document the interactive process.
    The interactive process simply means that the employee and employer work together. State law incorporates guidelines developed by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in defining an “interactive process” between the employer and the applicant or employee with a known disability. AND.... Once an accommodation request has been received, the employer should gather whatever information is necessary to process the request. The employer needs to know what limitations are interfering with job performance and what specific work tasks are at issue, otherwise, the employer may not have enough information to provide effective accommodations.
  3. SJDB became effective on 1/1/04 for all dates of injury on or after this same date. What are the 4 voucher values and how are they determined? AND... DO you feel this is an adequate replacement benefit for Vocational Rehabilitation?
    The 4 voucher values are: 1.) Up to $4,000.00 for Permanent Partial Disability awards of less than 15%. 2.) Up to $6,000.00 for Permanent Partial Disability awards between 15% and 25%. 3.) Up to $8,000.00 for Permanent Partial Disability awards between 26% and 49%. 4.) Up to $10,000.00 for Permanent Parial Disability awards between 50% and 99%. AND.....I feel that this is an adequate replacement benefit for Vocation Rehabilitation for both the employee and the employer. With the voucher, the employee may receive payment for educational supplies, re-training, skill enhancement,and return to work counceling, which is all they really need to return to work. It is an adequate replacement benefit for VR for the employer, because legislature ended the tenure of any “ghost statutes” by ending vocational rehabilitation itself.
  4. There is one form that is pivotal to both RTW and SJDB . Which form is it, and why do you think the administrative director chose to do this? AND....There is a new dispute resolution form for SJDB. What is the new designation/name/number of this form? Who is the responsible party designated to handles SJDB disputes?
    The form that is pivotal to both RTW and SJDB is form DWC-AD 10133.52 "Notice of Potential Right to Supplemental Job Displacement Benefit Form." The Administrative Director chose to do this, because the notice complies with the statute by informing the employee of his or her potential right to the SJDB and explaining how the amount of the voucher is determined and what it can be used for. The notice lets the injured employee know that if the injury causes PPD, which prevented them from returning to work within 60 days of the last payment of TD, and the claims administrator has not provided them with the form: DWC-AD 10133.53 "Notice of Offer of Modified or Alternative Work," he/she may be eligible for a SJDB in the form of a nontransferable voucher for education-related retraining and/or skill enhancement. It informs the employee that if there is a dispute, the employee or claims administrator may file a “Request for Dispute Resolution before the Administrative Director.” Also, previously, the cap on vocational rehabilitation was $16,000. Therefore, businesses may save as much as $6,000 to $12,000 on each case where the injured worker was previously entitled to vocational rehabilitation benefits, but is now entitled to SJDB. AND.... The new designation/name/number of this form is DWC-AD 10133.55 “Request for Dispute Resolution before the Administrative Director”. The Administrative Director is the person responsible for handling the dispute.
  5. What are the requirements for being an 'VRTW Counselor'? How does someone go about becoming a 'VRTW Counselor'? AND...Who is in charge of determining whether a candidate is qualified to be a VRTWC?
    You need..... 1.) To be capable of assisting a person with a disability. 2.) A Baccalaureate degree in any field 3.) Three or more years full-time experience in conducting vocational evaluations, counseling, and placement of disabled adults. To become a VRTW counselor, you will need to complete an application and mail it, along with the evidence of your experience and education. All applications will be reviewed to deterimine if education and experience requirements are met. Applications for appointment to the VRTWC list will be accepted at any time by the DWC. AND...The list will be reviewed and revised as deemed necessary by the DWC, but no later than the time specified in section 10133.59 of title 8 of the CA Code of Regulation. The DWC will establish and maintain a list in line with LC section 4658.5 and 10116.9 and section 10133.59 of title 8 of the CA Code of Regulation. The initial list is composed of individuals of members of the Independent Evaluator List authorized by LC sections 139.5 and 4635 (c). The responsible insurer or self-insured employer is required to pay for services.
  6. RTW rules provide incentives for an employer to retain injured employees once they have been released by their physicians to work. What are the two major financial incentives offered to employers? In your opinion, are these incentives enough? AND...If an employee is offered Regular, Modified or alternative work, even if they decline the offer, are they entitled to an 'SJDB voucher'?
    The two major financial incentives offered to employers are: a)If an employer serves the employee with a notice of offer of regual work, modified work, or alternative work for a period of at least 12 months, and in accordance with requirements, each payment of PPD remaining to be paid from the date the offer was served on the employee is to be paid in accordance with LC 4658(d)(1) and decreased by 15 percent, regardless of whether the employee accepts or rejects the offer; and b)if the claims administrator relies on a P&S date contained in a medical report prepared by the employee's PTP, QME, or AME, but there is a dispute as to an employee's P&S status, and there has been a notice of offer of work served on the employee, the claims administrator may withhold 15% from each payment of PPD remaining to be paid from the date the notice of offer was served on the employee until there has been a final judicial determination of the date that the employee is P&S persuant to LC 4062. The claims administrator is not required to reimburse PPD benefit payments that have been withheld pursuant to this provision during any period for which the employee is entitled to TD benefit payments. In my opinion, these incentives are enough. AND... The employer is not liable for the SJDB if: a) Within 30 days of the termination of TD indemnity payments, employer offers, and the employee rejects, or fails to accept, in the form and manner prescribed by the administrative director, modified work, accommodating the employee's work restrictions, lasting at least 12 months; or if b)Within 30 days of the termination of TD indemnity payments, employer offers, and the employee rejects, or fails to accept, in the form and manner prescribed by the administrative director, alternative work meeting certain conditions.
  7. Is the 15% PD amount increase/decrease a reasonable enticement? Why or why not? AND... Is the release of liability in providing an SJDB voucher by offering Alt/mod or regular work an adequate incentive to employers?
    I think it depends on wheather it's an increase or a decrease and if it's in the employer's favor or the injured employee's favor. For example, the 15% decrease applies on an employer offer of employment and is not dependent on the employee's acceptance of the offer. Also, the increase/decrease in payments begins at 60 days after P&S and is not retroactive. It's a financial incentive for employers who retain their injured employees in medically appropriate positions - and a disincentive for those who do not. AND...I think this is an adequate incentive to employers, because injured workers stopped qualifying for Voc Rehab, effective 01/01/04. Voc Rehab was a benefit that had no dollar limits before 1994 and a $16,000 cap after 1994. On or after 01/01/09, injuries that caused PD, if the injured worker did not return to work for the employer within 60 days of the end of TD, he/she would be eligible for an SJDB (voucher) up to $10,000.00.
  8. California Workers' Compensation entitlement to Vocational Rehabilitation Benefits were eliminated for all dates of injury on or after 1/1/04.
    TRUE or FALSE?
    TRUE
  9. California Workers Compensation Benefits for injured workers are provided in accordance with the labor code and as determined by their date of injury.
    TRUE or FALSE?
    TRUE
  10. Unfortunately, Workers' Compensation fraud can be, has been and is perpetrated by all participants; claims administrators, employers, injured workers, employees, legal professionals and medical professionals.
    TRUE or FALSE?
    TRUE
  11. The following is a complete list of all the benefits for dates of injury after 1/1/04, provided under the California Workers' Compensation system:
    a. Medical Treatment
    b. Temporary Disability Benefits
    c. Permanent Disability Benefits
    d. Vocational Rehabilitation
    e. Death Benefits
    TRUE or FALSE?
    FALSE
  12. Workers Comp Benefits guarantee Injured workers employment at the same salary, or better,than the salary they had made at the time of injury. 
    TRUE or FALSE?
    FALSE
  13. All Employers in the State of California may withhold fees from their employees wages for any Workers Comp benefits received by that employee.
    TRUE or FALSE?
    FALSE
  14. All injured workers who had been eligible for Vocational Rehabilitation benefits and had not claimed them prior to 1/1/09 lost all rights to any and all Voc Rehab Benefits forever as of 1/1/09.
    TRUE or FALSE?
    TRUE
  15. The 'parties' in a work comp case are the injured worker and their legal counsel, if any, and the insurer/claims administrator; and their legal counsel, if any, pursuant to administrative rule and labor code. All other participants are not 'parties' to the case.
    TRUE or FALSE?
    TRUE
  16. Effective 1/1/04, Supplemental Job Displacement Benefits replaced Vocational Rehabilitation Benefits for all dates of injury on or after January 1, 1999.
    TRUE or FALSE?
    FALSE
  17. FEHA stands for the Federal Equality Homestead Act.
    False
  18. CFRA is administered by the Federal Government.
    False
  19. The Americans with Disabilities Act offers Americans in the United States protection from discrimination based on any perceived difference or disability.
    True
  20. Vocational Rehabilitation benefits applied to all dates of injury between 1/1/75 thru 12/31/03 and permanently lost legal effectiveness as of 1/1/09
    True
  21. ADA (American's with Disabilities Act)deals with the employees right to take 12 weeks of unpaid leave for any personal reasons.
    False
  22. The Division Of Workers Comp has jurisdiction over all anti-discrimination laws, both state and federal.
    False
  23. Labor Code 3202 says that all laws are liberally interpreted for the protection of the injured employee.
    True
  24. HIPAA stands for 'Health Institute Privacy Adaptive Act'.
    False
  25. The Paid Family Leave Act is administered by the State of California Employment Development Department (EDD).
    True
  26. The State of California, Fair Employment and Housing Act bans employment discrimination on the bases of age (40 and over), ancestry, color, religious creed, disability (mental and physical) including HIV and AIDS, marital status, medical condition (cancer and genetic characteristics), national origin, race, sex, and sexual orientation. FEHA covers California employers with five or more employees. Only one employee is needed for a sexual harassment claim.
    True
  27. An Employer who has more than 50 employees may benefit greatly from returning employees to work as they would be entitled to the 25% pd decrease for each employee returned.
    False
  28. The claims administrator may reduce PD benefit payments to an the injured worker by a strict 25% ( of the amount of the payment) when the injured worker returns to the employer of injury in a Regular, Alternate or Modified position.
    False
  29. The Terms 'QIW' and 'QRR' are not relevant in the SJDB and Return to Work scheme.
    True
  30. The State Mandatory Return to Work Program is based on LC 139.47.
    True
  31. If an employee returns to Regular work, the employer must document the offer with the form DWC 10118.
    True
  32. The reimbursement portion of the RTW rules were eliminated from the system post 1/1 04 system
    True
  33. Damages in any FEHA claim won by the employee has no scheduled caps and would be based on Judges finding and or Jury award.
    True
  34. The PD increase/decrease applies to eligible employers as set forth (in the adminsitrative rules) provided all offers of work are properly documented in the form and manner prescribed.
    True
  35. Full-time employee means an employee who, during the period of his or her employment within the year preceding the injury, worked an average of 20 hours per week.
    False
  36. Modified Work means regular work modified so that the employee has the ability to perform all the functions of the job and that offers wages and compensation that are at least 85 percent of those paid to the employee at the time of injury, and located within a reasonable commuting distance of the employee's residence at the time of injury.
    True
  37. THE FAIR EMPLOYMENT AND HOUSING ACT ...
    Prohibits discrimination on the basis of age (40 and over), ancestry, color, religious creed, disability (mental and physical) including HIV and aids, marital status, medical condition (cancer and genetic characteristics), national origin, race, sex, and sexual orientation 
  38. THE HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT…..
    Prevents Employers from Discriminating, Denying Health Coverage Benefits, Against Employees with Pre-Existing Medical Conditions
  39. THE WIENER DECISION WAS UPHELD BY THE _________ _______ _______ IN AUGUST 2009.
    District Court of Appeals
  40. THE NAME OF THE ADMINISTRATIVE UNIT THAT IS IN CHARGE OF THE SJDB/RTW BENEFITS IS...
    • The Retraining and Return To Work Unit
  41. THERE ARE TWO CALIFORNIA LAWS SPECIFICALLY PROHIBITING DISCRIMINATION AGAINST INDIVIDUALS WITH DISABILITIES. PLEASE CHOOSE THEM FROM THE CHOICES BELOW.
    • * The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) 
    • *The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) 
  42. THE LIABILITY THRESHOLD FOR THE APPLICATION OF AMERICANS WITH DISABILITIES ACT IS CROSSED FOR ALL EMPLOYERS IN THE UNITED STATES WHEN THEY EMPLOY ---- OR MORE EMPLOYEES.
    15 or More Employees
  43. ISSUES RAISED UNDER ADA ARE HANDLED BY ________ COURTS AND DAMAGES ARE LIMITED TO___________
    *Federal

    *$300,000.00 
  44. THERE ARE TWO LAWS, ONE FEDERAL AND ONE CALIFORNIA STATE LAW, SPECIFICALLY PROHIBITING DISCRIMINATION AGAINST INDIVIDUALS WITH DISABILITIES IN THE EMPLOYMENT ARENA. PLEASE CHOOSE THEM FROM THE CHOICES BELOW (CHOOSE 2)
    • *The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
    • *Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA)
  45. THE DIVISION OF WORKERS COMP COURTS HAVE THE LEGAL AUTHORITY TO ENFORCE________(CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY)
  46. ???
  47. WHAT DATE DID GOVERNOR SCHWARZENEGGER SIGN SB 899?
    04/19/2004
  48. THE FAIR EMPLOYMENT AND HOUSING ACT IS CALIFORNIA’S MORE LIBERAL VERSION OF _____________
    The Americans with Disabilities Act
  49. THE LABOR CODES ARE THE STATUES/LAWS THAT DICTATE HOW CALIFORNIA WORKERS COMP BENEFITS ARE PROVIDED TO INJURED WORKERS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LABOR CODES SAYS THAT THE INJURED WORKER MAY HAVE UP TO 5 YEARS FROM THEIR DATE OF INJURY TO MAKE A CLAIM FOR WORKERS COMP BENEFITS?
    5410
  50. VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICE IN THE STATE OF CALIFORNIA BECAME MANDATORY ON _____________
    01/01/1975
  51. THE 1970'S FEDERAL LAW, THAT HAS BEEN UPDATED SINCE A FEW TIMES, THAT SPECIFICALLY PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION IN THE WORK PLACE AGAINST INDIVIDUALS WITH DISABILITIES IS....
    The American's With Disabilities Act (ADA) 
  52. WHO ARE THE 'PARTIES' LEGALLY RECOGNIZED BY THE DIVISION OF WORKERS COMP IN A WORKERS COMP CASE?
    • *The Injured worker and their attorney if any 
    • *The Employer, the claims administrator and their attorney(s), if any 
  53. INJURED WORKERS WHO HAVE NOT BEEN OFFERED ALTERNATIVE OR MODIFIED WORK BY THE EMPLOYER OF INJURY, AND DO NOT RETURN TO WORK; HAVE A PERMANENT DISABILITY,AND HAVE A DATE OF INJURY ON OR AFTER 1/1/04, MAY BE.... (Name 3)
    • *Protected Under ADA
    • *Protected Under FEHA
    • *Entitled to an SJDB Voucher
  54. LC 3202 states that the law...
    • shall be liberally construed by the courts with the purpose of extending their benefits for the protection of persons injured in the course of their employment.  
  55. SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS …
    Provide injured workers unable to return to work with an opportunity to obtain skill enhancement.
  56. THE FAMILY MEDICAL LEAVE ACT PROVIDES THE FOLLOWING BENEFIT… .
    Job protection for 12 weeks maximum unpaid leave every calendar year for verified medical conditions
  57. The Division Of Worker's Comp has 24 district offices throughout the state. In addition to clerical support staff, each office is complemented by...
    Workers comp administrative law judges, information and assistance officers, disability evaluation unit officers, and retraining and return to work consultants.
  58. VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION LAWS AND ALL RULES PERTAINING TO VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION 'SUNSET',ONCE AND FOREVER, EFFECTIVE:
    01/01/2009
  59. Between the following laws, which law prevails in California; Americans with Disability Act(ADA), the California Family Rights Act(CFRA), Fair Employment and Housing Act(FEHA), The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA),and The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA):
    Which ever laws offer the most protection to the disabled employee 
  60. SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS WERE LEGISLATED INTO EXISTENCE IN 2003 AND BECAME EFFECTIVE 1/1/04. THESE BENEFITS APPLY TO:
    The U.S. Dept of Labor
  61. HIPAA STANDS FOR …
    Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act
  62. WHO ARE THE PARTIES TO THE 'CASE' IN WORKERS COMP?
    *The injured worker and their attorney, if any

    *The claims administrator and their attorney(s), if any
  63. THE NEW DISPUTE RESOLUTION FORM IS THE DWC-AD__________.
    10133.55 
  64. FEHA PROTECTION APPLIES TO EMPLOYERS WITH________OR MORE EMPLOYEES?
  65. NAME THE FIVE BENEFITS PROVIDED UNDER THE CALIFORNIA WORKERS COMPENSATION SYSTEM FOR DATES OF INJURY ON OR AFTER 1/1/04:
    • *Medical Treatment 
    • *Temporary Disability 
    • *Permanent Disability 
    • *Death Benefits 
    • *Supplemental Job Displacement Benefits 
  66. THE HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCOUNTABIITY ACT…..
    Provides for the privacy of the employee’s medical records 
  67. LABOR CODE 3202 STATES THAT ...
    Work comp laws are liberally interpreted to protect the injured employee 
  68. IF A QUALIFYING EMPLOYER RETURNS AN INJURED WORKER TO REGULAR WORK, USING THE APPROPRIATE FORM AND METHOD, THEY MAY BE ENTITLED TO DECREASE WEEKLY PERMANENT DISABILITY PAYMENTS DUE THE INJURED, IF ANY, BY ___ .
    15% 
  69. THE RETRAINING AND RETURN TO WORK UNIT HANDLES SJDB AND RTW ISSUES THAT ARE SUBMITTED TO:
    The Administrative Director
  70. VOUCHER VALUES ARE TIED TO AN INDIVIDUALS PERMANENT DISABILITY RATING AND MAY EQUAL UP TO:
    $10,000
  71. THE DIVISION OF WORKERS COMP COURTS HAVE THE LEGAL AUTHORITY TO ENFORCE
    • A. The Americans with Disabilities Act 
    • B. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 
    • C. The Family Medical Leave Act 
    • D. None of the Above
  72. THE DECISION RELEASED IN JUNE ’09 BY THE WORKERS COMP APPEALS BOARD COMMISSIONERS THAT CLARIFIED THERE IS NO ENTITLEMENT TO REHAB BENEFITS POST 1/1/09 IS CALLED....
    The Weiner Decision 
  73. THE FAMILY MEDICAL LEAVE ACT PROVIDES THE FOLLOWING BENEFIT…
    Job protection for 12 weeks maximum unpaid leave every calendar year for verfied medical conditions 
  74. THE FORM USED BY THE INJURED WORKER TO OBTAIN SKILL ENHANCEMENT TRAINING IS THE...
    Supplemental Job Displacement Voucher 
  75. WHAT MINIMUM LEVEL OF EDUCATION IS REQUIRED TO PERFORM THE DUTIES OF A VRTWC, AS DEFINED UNDER ADMINISTRATIVE RULE 10133.50(A)15?
    Bachelors Degree
  76. WHAT WAS THE DATE THAT FORMER GOVERNOR SCHWARZENEGGER SIGNED SB 899,THE NEW WORKERS COMP LEGISLATION INTO LAW, THAT CREATED MPN'S AND THE NEW PD RATING SCHEDULE?
    04/19/2004
  77. AN OFFER OF REGULAR WORK IS A DWC AD_______.
    10118 
  78. THE ACRONYM VRTWC IS EXPLAINED AS:
    Vocational Return to Work Counselor
  79. WHICH ADMINISTRATIVE RULE IN SJDB REQUIRES THE CLAIMS ADMINISTRATOR TO SEND THE INJURED WORKER A 'NOTICE OF POTENTIAL RIGHT TO SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS'?
    10133.51 
  80. LABOR CODE 4658.6 LIMITS AN EMPLOYERS LIABILITY FOR JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS IF: (Name 3)
    • *The injured is offered alternate or modified work via the DWC AD 10133.53. 
    • *The injured returns to work without restrictions. 
    • *The injured worker rejects form DWC AD 10133.53
  81. SJDB IS THE NEW BENEFIT REPLACING VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION BENEFITS FOR DATES OF INJURY ON OR AFTER 1/01/04. WHAT DOES SJDB STAND FOR?
    Supplemental Job Displacement Benefit 
  82. THE 'REQUEST FOR REIMBURSEMENT OF ACCOMMODATION EXPENSES' IS FORM DWC-AD_____.
    IS NO LONGER IN USE 
  83. THE THRESHOLD FOR APPLICATIONS OF AMERICANS WITH DISABILITIES ACT BEGINS FOR ALL EMPLOYERS IN THE UNITED STATES WHEN THEY EMPLOY ____ OR MORE EMPLOYEES.
    15 or more employees 
  84. THE STATE RETURN TO WORK REIMBURSEMENT PROGRAM .....
    was eliminated effective 1/1/2011
  85. THE NAME OF THE ADMINISTRATIVE UNIT THAT IS IN CHARGE OF SJDB AND RTW BENEFITS IS:
    The Retraining and Return to Work Unit
  86. THE DEFINITIONS FOR 'REGULAR WORK', 'MODIFIED WORK', AND 'ALTERNATIVE WORK', WITH RESPECT TO SJDB AND RTW ARE FOUND IN LABOR CODE:
    4658.1 
  87. UNDER THE JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFIT INJURED WORKERS WILL RECEIVE A VOUCHER, IF QUALIFIED, THE VALUE OF WHICH IS BETWEEN:
    $4,000 to $10,000 
  88. THE AGENCY THAT HAS JURISDITION OVER ADA, FMLA, HIPAA IS....
    The U.S. Dept of Labor 
  89. Question 28 (Worth 2 points)THE LABOR CODES THAT GOVERN THE PROVISION OF SERVICES TO INJURED WORKERS WITH DATES OF INJURY PRIOR TO 1/1/04 'SUNSET' AND WERE REPEALED COMPLETELY, EFFECTIVE...
    01/01/2009
  90. THE SETTLEMENT OF SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS IS PERMISSIBLE ONLY WHEN THE FOLLOWING CONDITION IS MET/PRESENT:
    It is included in the C&R and approved by the Work Comp Judge
  91. THE FAIR EMPLOYMENT AND HOUSING ACT:
    Prohibits discrimination on the basis of age (40 and over), ancestry, color, religious creed, disability (mental and physical) including hiv and aids, marital status, medical condition (cancer and genetic characteristics), national origin, race, sex, and sexual orientation.
  92. EMPLOYEES WHO SUFFERED INDUSTRIAL INJURIES AFTER ___________, MAY BE ENTITLED TO SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS.
    01/01/2004
  93. THE WAGES OF A POSITION OFFERED TO AN EMPLOYEE AS ALTERNATIVE OR MODIFIED WORK MUST BE WITHIN ? OF THE WAGES THEY WERE MAKING AT THE TIME OF INJURY .
    85%
  94. THE POST 1/1/04 BENEFIT THAT REPLACES VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION IS CALLED
    SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFIT 
  95. SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS BECAME EFFECTIVE ON:
    01/01/2004
  96. WHICH CALIFORNIA LAW IS SIMILAR TO THE FEDERAL ADA LAW?
    FEHA 
  97. THE CLAIMS ADMINISTRATOR MUST PROVIDE THE INJURED WORKER WITH A NOTICE OF THEIR POTENTIAL RIGHT TO SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS WITHIN ___ DAYS OF THEIR LAST PAYMENT OF TEMPORARY DISABILITY BENEFITS..
    10 days
  98. THE FORMER GOVERNOR WHO IS CURRENTLY THE GOVERNOR OF THE STATE OF CALIFORNIA ONCE AGAIN IS....
    Jerry Brown
  99. THE LABOR CODE FOR THE JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFIT IS:
    4658.5 
  100. WHAT DOES CFRA STAND FOR AND WHO ADMINISTERS THIS BENEFIT?
    • *California Family Rights Act 
    • *The Dept of Fair Employment and Housing
  101. THE DWC FORM DWC AD 10133.53, OFFER OF ALTERNATE OR MODIFIED WORK, MAY BE USED BY THE EMPLOYER/CLAIMS ADMINISTRATOR TO DOCUMENT OFFERS OF EMPLOYMENT...
    only for DOI after 1/1/04 
  102. THE 5 YEAR STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS IS DEFINED IN LABOR CODE _________.
    5410
  103. THE FORM USED IN SJDB TO DOCUMENT AN OFFER ALTERNATE OR MODIFIED WORK BY THE EMPLOYER TO THE EMPLOYEE IS THE:
    DWC-AD 10133.53 
  104. LABOR CODE SECTION 139.5 WAS ________BY THE 2003 WORKERS COMPENSATION REFORM..
    Repealed
  105. THE SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT VOUCHER IS THE FORM DWC-AD_____.
    ???
  106. INJURED WORKERS WHO HAVE NOT BEEN OFFERED ALTERNATIVE OR MODIFIED WORK BY THE EMPLOYER OF INJURY, AND DO NOT RETURN TO WORK; HAVE A DATE OF INJURY ON OR AFTER 1/1/04; AND HAVE A PERMANENT DISABILITY, MAY BE; (choose 1 specific workers comp benefit)
    Entitled to an SJDB voucher
  107. THE AMOUNT OF THE INJURED'S JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFIT WILL BE TIED DIRECTLY TO:
    The injured’s permanent disability rating
  108. SUPPLEMENTAL JOB DISPLACEMENT BENEFITS WERE LEGISLATED INTO EXISTENCE IN 2002 AND BECAME EFFECTIVE 1/1/04. THESE BENEFITS APPLY TO:
    Injuries on or after 01/01/04
  109. THE LABOR CODE SECTION WHICH OUTLINES THE FUNCTIONING OF CALIFORNIA'S MANDATORY RETURN TO WORK PROGRAM ?
    3202
  110. AN APPEAL OF A DETERMINATION MADE BY THE RETRAINING AND RETURN TO WORK UNIT MUST BE FILED WITHIN 2O DAYS FILED AND SENT TO ___ ____ ____ ________ ____ _____ WITH COPIES TO ALL PARTIES:
    The Work Comp Administrative Law Judge Handling The Comp Portion Of The Case
  111. WHEN THE INJURED DISPUTES THE FINDINGS OF THE TREATING PHYSICIAN THEY HAVE THE OPTION OF REQUESTING A SECOND OPINION THROUGH THE USE OF A/AN _________.
    QME
  112. Permanent disability must commence:
    14 days after last Temporary Disability 
  113. One time treatment and any follow-up visits for observation of minor scratches, cuts burns or splinters is considered:
    first aid 
  114. True or False?
    The California State Constitution states that every employer with 10 or more employees must furnish benefits to injured employees, where it’s the employer’s fault the employee was injured.
    False
  115. Which California Supreme Court case declared the statue of limitations does not start running against an employee’s claim until an employer having knowledge of an injury informs the employee of his rights under work comp law?
    Reynolds 
  116. The Labor Code defines the term physician to include:
    • *Chiropractor 
    • *Acupuncturist 
    • *Medical Doctor 
  117. True or False?
    An illegal alien worker injured in the course of employment is not entitled to basic Workers’ Compensation benefits.
    False
  118. True or False?
    An employee may contribute or take a deduction from their earnings to pay for Workers’ Comp coverage.
    False
  119. The Administrative Director adopted a code of ethics for:
    Workers' Compensation Judges
  120. A 39 year old injured worker whose occupational varient is an “F” has injured his back. His work restrictions for his 2003 injury are no heavy lifting repeated bending and stooping. What is his percentage of disability? (do not need to include % in answer) His summary rating would be: 12.1-25-214F-25-25
    25
  121. What controls the benefits that an Injured worker is entitle to receive?
    Date of injury
  122. The U.S. government agreed the WCAB may enforce which Act:
    Long Shore & Harbor 
  123. Unless the employer has a Medical Provider Network, an injured worker has the right to select his own Dr. after how many days from the date injury reported to the employer?
    30
  124. True or False?
    An employee is not considered to be on the job for Workers Compensation benefits if he is injured while taking a coffee break.
    False
  125. Complaints of improper underwriting including payroll classification & premium determinations by an insurance carrier may be made in writing to?
    Workers' Compensation Insurance Rating Bureau 
  126. Who enforces requirements that Employer’s secure payment of Workers’ Compensation benefits as required by LC 3700?
    Labor Commissioner 
  127. The WCAB has authority to order a commutation if: (Name all three)
    • 1. It will not cause undue hardship on an employee 
    • 2. Injured worker is able to leave without periodic compensation payments 
    • 3. Money is needed to pay attorney fees 
  128. An injury occurring while an employee is housed by the employer would fall under what principle doctrine?
    Bunkhouse Rule 
  129. Which case law is used in determining earnings of a seasonal, intermittent or temporary employee?
    Montana 
  130. When an injured worker has reached maximum medical improvement and his condition is well stabilized and unlikely to changew, is known as:
    P&S
  131. True or False?
    All employments are subject to Workers’ Compensation laws except those expressly exempted by the Labor Code.
    True
  132. Gradual onset of damage to some body part caused by repeated activities occuring in the course of employment is known as:
    Repetitive trauma 
  133. An employee who travels to attend a conference or training at the employer’s direction is covered under what principle doctrine?
    Commercial Traveler 
  134. For injuries using the 2005 rating schedule, if 60 days pass after permanent and stationary status, an employer doesn’t offer regular, modified or alternate work for a period of at least 12 months, permanent disability is:
    increased by 15% 
  135. Who is responsible for managing and monitoring medical care of the Injured Worker and rendering opinions and reports on medical issues and extent of permanent disability?
    PTP
  136. True or False?
    If an employer reasonably expects or expressly implies that an employee is required to participate in a recreational activity outside work they will be covered under Workers Comp.
    True
  137. The weekly rate for death benefits is calculated as:
    TD
  138. How much of the voucher can be used for counseling?
    10%
  139. When requirements have been met, the non-transferable voucher must be sent ______ days from PD award
    25
  140. Statue of limitations for filing a death claim is one year from date of death or ______ from date of injury.
    240 weeks
  141. If an Injured Worker dies, any payments due and unpaid at the time of death are paid to:
    employee dependents 
  142. An Injured Worker who has 30% permanent disability and does not return to work may be eligible for a voucher in the amount of:
    $8,000
  143. For dates of injury after 1/1/04, an Injured Worker may be eligible for SJBD if all but one of the following are met:
    Injured Worker quits his job. 
  144. To be a qualified dependent a person must come with several categories except which one:
    neighbor 
  145. The burial expense allowance is a one time payment of:
    $5,000
  146. Dispute Resolutions for SJDB must be filed with who?
    Administrative Director 
  147. Medical providers who collect money directly from an Injured Worker may be liable for ___________ the amount.
    Three times
  148. For child support cases ______________ indemnity is included in the definition of earnings.
    TD
  149. Where the parties have included a settlement of vocational rehabilitation rights, a finding that there is a good faith issue that if decided against the claimant would preclude all workers’ compensation benefits is a:
    Thomas waiver 
  150. Labor Code 4903 states that a lien may be filed on any of the following obligations except for which one?
    Wages
  151. When a Compromise and Release is approved it settles ___________ matters relating to a particular injury.
    All
  152. An employer who is guilty of discrimination under Labor Code 132a may have an increase of an Injured Worker’s compensation increased by _________ not to exceed $10,000.
    50%
  153. Settlements that are set up on a periodic payment plan in lieu of a lump sum are known as a:
    Structured settlement 
  154. Possible penalties for illegal un-insurance may include: (Name 3)
    • *1 yr. in prison or $10000 fine 
    • *Attachment of property 
    • *Injunction stopping business 
  155. The law provides the employer is required to inform employees of their rights. If not, they may be penalized by the following except which one?
    Penalty paid to employees
  156. When payment of compensation has been unreasonably delayed a Workers’ Compensation Judge may order penalties to be paid at ________% or $10,000
    25%
  157. If the employee becomes confrontational during your initial contact; you've probably just hit a nerve and should back off.
    • False
  158. If an employee disagrees with the MPN physician, he/she can go outside the MPN and treat with anyone they want to.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Valdez v Demo Warehouse says you must use the internal appeal process built into the MPN if you don't like your MPN physician.
  159. In order to properly manage the medical benefit, it is important to know what our legal obligations are.
    • True
  160. If an injury is delayed, and the employee has returned the DWC-1 Employee Claim Form, what is the maximum in medical treatment the employer will pay before making a final decision on the claim?
    $10,000
  161. The cost of the treatment should always be our primary concern.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Our primary concern must be the quality of the treatment.
  162. Which level burn is characterized by blistering?
    Second degree burn
  163. If an employee is in the MPN and disagrees with the treatment recommendation of the MPN physician, the employee must go through the PQME process.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The PQME process is only once they are declared P&S
  164. Which Diagnostic test uses x-rays?
    CAT Scans
  165. If an employee lies about how old they are, this will qualify as fraud and bar the claim.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • In order for a lie to qualify as fraud, it must be the kind of lie that would change your decision about the employee being entitled to benefits.
  166. If the physician uses a wrist brace held in place with an ace bandage, this would still be a First Aid injury.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Use of s splint, brace or support bars the injury from remaining a First Aid claim. It must be at least a Medical Only claim.
  167. To which party do we have the greatest obligation?
    Employee/injured worker

    • Explain:
    • Our greatest obligation is to the employee. Once we have fulfilled this obligation, the employer comes next, and then the insurance carrier
  168. Which wound has the greatest chance of infection?
    Puncture 

    • Explain:
    • A puncture has the greatest danger of infection because it is hard to clean the wound since it is small and deep.
  169. Cardiology refers to the study of the nerves.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Cardiology refers to the study of the heart. Remember the deck of "cards" trick. Hearts are one of the suits in a deck of cards.
  170. If the worker is providing a benefit for the employer at the time he/she is injured, then the employee is considered to be in the course of employment.
    True
  171. A wound (laceration, incision, cut or puncture) will take between 7- 14 days to heal.
    True:
  172. Which term refers to something being higher than, excessive, or more than normal?
    Hyper
  173. "Credible" (as used for this exam) means:
    Believable


    • Explain:
    • We must use physicians who will tell us the truth, even if we don't want to hear it. By having a physician who is believable, you stand a greater chance of winning if you take the case to trial.
  174. Ectomy is the procedure of cutting something out or removing it surgically.
    True
  175. If you denied a claim before getting a medical opinion, you are still allowed to get a medical opinion later.
    • True:
    • .......Explain:
    • This is the Mendoza v Huntington Hospital decision. The employer has the right to a medical evaluation even after they have denied the claim for legal reasons.
  176. If an employee forgets that he went to a doctor before for a condition, this would still qualify as a lie under the Fraud Law.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The Fraud Law requires that the employee has to know that he/she is lying, for the lie to qualify under the Fraud Law.
  177. A diagnostic test that measures how long an electric shock moves down a nerve is:
    Nerve Conduction Study
  178. Which level burn could require skin grafts?
    Third Degree Burn

  179. You can call a PQME or an AME to discuss the facts of the case with him/her.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • That is ex parte communications and the Labor Code forbids it. The report will be struck and disallowed.
  180. What is allowed in treating a wound for a First Aid injury?
    A wound is still considered a First Aid claim if it can be treated with a band aid or a butterfly strip. If the physician uses sutures, skin glue or staples, it can no longer be classified as a First aid Injury.
  181. An X-Ray taken from the back to the front is:
    Anterior - Posterior [AP] 
  182. If I stumble at work, my glasses fall and break, but I am not injured,; the glasses are still covered by workers' compensation.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • In order for glasses and hearing aids to be covered by workers' compensation, they must have been damaged by an injury that produces disability.
  183. An employee is entitled to a medical-legal evaluation while the claim is on a delayed status.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • A delayed claim is not a contested claim. The employee is not entitled to a medical legal evaluation.
  184. To which party does the adjuster have the least obligation?
    • Insurance Company
    • Explain:
    • Even though the carrier signs the paychecks, our first obligation is to the employee, then to the employer, and then to the carrier.
  185. What term refers to rebuild something or make it better?
    Plasty

    Remember, "It's better with plastic" slogan. It makes things better. Plasty is the process of rebuilding something or making it better.
  186. Which is the most important qualification in selecting physicians?
    • Good Treatment Results. 
    • Explain:
    • If the physician gets the employee well, you won't need to worry about these other issues. Selecting a good treating physician should be your main concern.
  187. An MRI is best for:
    Soft Tissue Injuries 
  188. A burn that has redness and swelling, but no blisters is which kind of burn?
    First Degree
  189. Even though there is no Labor Code specifically requiring that we pay for interpreters for treatment, case law does find we must pay for interpreting services during treatment.
    True
  190. If the employee says he/she is still in pain or can't perform some function, and the physician says they should be well; we should always believe the physician - not the employee.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • You should always test to see who is telling the truth. A physician can be misrepresenting the medical condition, thinking you want to hear someone is well; even if they aren't. Since your primary goal is to provide benefits, you have to test the employee's and physician's statements before developing your next plan of action.
  191. If an employee stops going to the physician, you can assume they are well and just close the file.
    • False:
    • .......Explain:
    • Never assume. This is how problems develop.
  192. For treatment to be covered by workers' compensation, it must both cure and relieve from the effects of the industrial injury.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • In order for treatment to be covered by workers' compensation, it must do one or the other. If it cures [restores the function] but does not relieve [reduce the pain], it is still covered. If is relieves [stops the pain] but does not cure [restore the function] it is still covered. As long as it is doing one or the other, or both, the treatment is covered by workers' compensation.
  193. If you disagree with a request for spinal surgery, you can disagree and go directly to the Expedited Second Opinion Process.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Cervantez v WCAB has ruled that you can't go directly to the Expedited Second Opinion process. You must send the request through utilization review.
  194. Which soft tissue wound involves the skin being scraped?
    Abrasion 
  195. What is the first goal of treatment?
    Stop the pain 
  196. An employee is entitled to a medical-legal expense before the DWC-1 Claim Form is returned to the employer.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Labor Codes and case law requires the employee to return the DWC-1 Employee Claim Form to the employer before he/she is entitled to a medical-legal exam.
  197. An employee is allowed to change to any MPN physician after the initial visit.
    • True:
    • .......Explain:
    • An employee is free to change to any MPN physician they want, after the first visit, set by the employer.
  198. Where the is no extended medical control program, the employee can change to any physician he or she wants after two weeks.
    • False
    •  
  199. In order to qualify as a medical-legal expense, the issue causing the claim to be contested must be a medical issue the physician is capable to address/resolve.
    True
  200. If the employee is not in an extended medical control program and requests a change of physicians, how long does the employer have, to provide the change?
    5 working days

  201. If an employee has not selected a PQME physician off the list, the employer must wait thirty days before he/she can select a physician for him/her.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The employee has ten days to select a physician or the employer can select for the employee.
  202. It's not just the level of the burn that you need to consider, it's also what percentage of the body has been burned.
    • True
    • ......Explain:
    • Even though it might be a second degree burn, if it is covering 30% of the body or more, it is considered to be a critical burn.
  203. When measuring impairment for a carpal tunnel syndrome injury, we now use the Jamar Grip strength to see how strong our grip strength is.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The old method used the Jamar Grip Strength. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a nerve injury and so we use the Peripheral Nerve Defecit method to measure the impairment to the nerve.
  204. Which of the following descriptions of pain suggests a nerve involvement?
    On Fire


    • Explain:
    • The words: on fire, burning, electrical shock, electricity, pins and needles all suggest that a nerve has been traumatized.
  205. Which bone makes up the under side of the forearm?
    Ulna

    Remember: "U" for under and "U" for Ulna.
  206. The lamina is a small bone bridge between the spinous process and the facet joint.
    True
  207. If the medical-legal examination takes place before the DWC-1 was returned to the employer, the adjuster can object to the report.
    • True:
    • .......Explain:
    • Per LC 5400-5402, the employee must return the DWC-1 to the employer in order to be entitled to a medical-legal evaluation. This can be a reason to object to the report and the bill.
  208. Which motion refers to raising your hand as if asking to exit the room?
    External Rotation 
  209. If a physician uses the phrase: "dictated but not read" this is a proper certification that the report is the physician's medical testimony before the WCAB.
    • False
  210. The verified measurement identified with the (*) next to it, is the position that produces the least amount of impairment if that joint has to be fused.
    True
  211. Which of the follow refers to the vertebrae in the spine that are connected to the ribs?
    Thoracic
  212. Which set of vertebrae in the spine refers to the low back area?
    Lumbar
  213. Which motion refers to bending a joint?
    • Flexion 
  214. The DRE method is the default method for evaluating impairment for a spinal injury.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • The DRE is the default method. ROM is the exception. Corticospinal is the exception to the exception.
  215. All nerves perform two functions.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • All nerves provide two functions: sensory for feeling and motor/strength for motion.
  216. Which of the following refers to a "non-contained" disc injury?
    Herniation 

  217. Physicians have to sign their reports under penalty of perjury per Labor Code 4628.
    • True

  218. Extended periods of disability should never be given until the physician can see how the employee responds to conservative treatment.
    • True
  219. Range of motion is an objective finding.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Range of motion is not an objective finding because it is under the control of the employee.
  220. Where is the IP joint located?
    In the thumb 

    • Explain:
    • IP refers to a joint "inter-phalange" or in the finger. The name of the joint is a description of where it is located. Since the fingers have more than one joint in them, the IP joint is referring to the thumb which has only one joint in it.
  221. Which motion refers to rotating the palm of the hand so the palm is facing up?
    Supination


    Think of making a suplication to the king. You are asking for someting and you rotate the palm up, to receive it. Supination: rotating the palm up.
  222. When dealing with the Range of Motion method, the employee can keep trying until he gets three consecutive readings that are valid.
    • False
    • ........Explain:
    • The employee is given only 6 attempts to get three valid consecutive readings. If after six attempts there are not three valid consecutive readings, the physician must use the DRE method.
  223. If a party obtains a credible medical report, but does not follow proper procedures in obtaining it, the report is still admissible before the WCAB.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • You must follow proper procedures in getting your medical report, or it is not admissible before the WCAB, even if it is credible. 
  224. I I lost half of my thumb, what would be the level of impairment in hand scale impairment?
    20%


    • Explain:
    • The thumb is worth 40% of the function of the hand. One-half of that would be 20% and it would be listed in the hand scale. 
  225. If I lost my whole index finder, what level of impairment would that be in hand scale?
    20%


    • Explain:
    • The index finger performs 20% of the function of the hand. If all of the index finger was lost; that would be 20% impairment in the hand scale
  226. If someone has full range of motion in the spine, but has a pain level of one or two, it is best to go ahead and continue chiropractic/physical therapy treatment.
    • False
    • ........Explain:
    • We do not use pain to measure the need to passive therapy. We use the range of motion. Once passive therapy has restored the full range of motion, it is time to move to active therapy.
  227. Which of the following is the collar bone?
    Clavicle
  228. Which set of vertebrae make up the neck?
    Cervical
  229. When dealing with Table 15-5 for the cervical spine DRE method, the rule is 3+4=5. If you find an impairment in Category III and an impairment in Category IV, you move to Category V.
    • False
    • .....Explain:
    • The 3+4= 5 Rule only applies for the Tables 15-3 lumbar and 15-4 for thoracic. It does not apply to Table 15-5 cervical.
  230. Which procedure removes the disc in the spine and joins the two vertebrae together?
    Fusion
  231. When dealing with a Range of Motion method [ROM] there is a separate table used to identify the impairment based upon the diagnosis
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • The ROM method has its own Table 15-7 used to assign impairment, based upon the diagnosis.
  232. Finding of a 2-3mm disc bulge in the spine is proof that there was a work-related back injury.
    • False
    • ........Explain:
    • We now have come to realize that as a person gets older, disc bulges and even herniation is not evidence of injury; but simply evidence of the aging of the spine.
  233. Impairment rating for the spine is covered by which chapter of the AMA Guides, Fifth Edition?
    Chapter 15
  234. Physicians are allowed to speculate when presenting their medical opinion while the report is still admissible before the WCAB.
    • False
    • ........Explain:
    • A medical opinion cannot be based upon speculation, conjecture, or surmise. If they are, then they do not qualify as substantial medical evidence.
  235. In order for a report to be admissible, it cannot be based upon incorrect or incomplete information.
    • True
  236. Which AMA Guide Table is used for the DRE Method when the injury is located in the lumbar area?
    Table 15-3
  237. Which of the following structure, in the spine, keeps us from bending over backward?
    Facet Joints
  238. Which joint in the finger is closest to the body of the hand?
    PIP
  239. Which bones make up the “body” of the hand?
    Metacarpal
  240. When dealing with the DRE method, Category I always produces a 0% impairment.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Category I for the DRE method always refers to subjective complaints without objective findings. Therefore, it always produces a 0% impairment rating. 
  241. Unless there is a fracture or a need for surgery, there should not be extended periods of treatment awarded on the Doctor's First Report.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • You can never predict how a person will respond to treatment until they begin to treat. For this reason, extended period of treatment - except in cases of serious injury - should not be awarded on the Doctor's First Report. 
  242. The physician is required to start by using the lower impairment rating in each category and then justify, using a higher impairment rating.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • We always start with the lower level of impairment when using the DRE method. The physician can go higher, but he/she must justify the higher rating. 
  243. Which joint allows the thumb to fold across the palm of the hand?
    CMC

    Remember, the name of the joint tells us where it is located. CMC stands for Carpal/Metacarpal. This is where the carpal bone at the base of the hand joins with the metacarpal bone that makes up the body of the hand. When this is the joint for the thumb, it creates a hidden joint inside the hand that allows the thumb to fold across the palm of the hand. Don't be afraid to practice the motion and then track down where the motion took place to find the joint, then determine which bones where involved. 
  244. Which of the following is the shoulder blade?
    Scapula


    Remember: scapula and spatula. Both are wide, thin, and flat.
  245. When performing a ROM evaluation for the spine, the AMA Guide allows the physician to estimate the range of motion during the evaluation.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The AMA Guide requires very precise measurement of each motion performed during the ROM method. Therefore, the physician must use inclinometers to measure the exact motion in the joint, or the reading is invalid.
  246. Which term refers to the joint that is furthest or farthest away from the body of the hand?
    DIP
  247. It is possible to have a herniated disc in your back and not even know it.
    True
  248. If you have to have the two points touching your skin more than 15mm apart to tell that two points are touching you, this is a Total Sensory loss.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is the two point discrimination test. If you have 6mm or less to tell the two points apart, there is no sensory loss. 7 - 15mm is a Partial Sensory Loss. More than 15mm represents Total Sensory Loss in that nerve.
  249. All nerves perform two functions.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • All nerves perform both a sensory function and a motor function. Some, but not all nerves, may have a third function called "reflex."
  250. A peripheral sensory nerve deficit that has a Grade 5 has lost all feeling in the nerve.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • When grading sensory or motor deficit, a Grade 5 means that there is no impairment and that full function is present. 
  251. Which motion lowers the arm so it is resting alongside the body?
    Adduction


    Think of adding the width of the arm to the width of your body. Lowering the arm so it rests alongside of your body, adds to your body's shadow. Adduction lowering the arm so it adds to your shadow. 
  252. Which motion refers to rotating the palm of the hand down?
    Pronation


    Think of rotating the palm of the hand down and putting it between you and something that is spraying in your face. It is a protective motion. Protective sounds like Pronation. 
  253. In order to avoid litigation, it is best to only discuss the case with the injured worker, and not the family as a whole.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Although many company policies require that we only speak with the injured worker -even if some other family member calls- in order to avoid unnecessary litigation, you should get the employee's permission to discuss the case with other family members. If they feel we are not talking to them, they will pressure the employee to get an attorney. 
  254. So long as an injury is self-inflicted, it is barred by Statutory Defenses.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Many of our injuries are self-inflicted. It must be an intentional, self-inflicted injury to be barred.
  255. When you become a trier of fact you should be completely objective in looking at the evidence to see if it is admissible and credible.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Always be objective in looking at your case, and start with your legal authorities. If they do not support your position, this is not a case to take to trial.
  256. If an employee is struck by lightning in the parking lot, this would not be covered by workers' compensation.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Being struck by lightning is considered an act of God.  Acts of God are not covered by workers' compensation, even when they happen at work. There must be something that caused the lightning to strike the employee in order for this to be covered. However, our example did not suggest any other reason for the employee being hit other than blind luck.
  257. Admissibility issues deal with procedures and if someone followed proper procedures in obtaining evidence.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Keep in mind that if you do not follow the proper procedure in obtaining and submitting evidence, even the most convincing evidence will not be heard by the judge.
  258. If an employee hits a wall because he is angry, but didn't mean to break his hand, this [based upon recent case law] would still be covered.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • We cannot use negligence as a defense. Therefore the injury was covered by workers' compensation.
  259. We can deny a claim because the employee did something stupid and was injured because of it.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Labor Code 3600 says "without regard to negligence." We cannot use negligence [stupidity] as a reason to bar a claim.
  260. Preponderance of Evidence means:
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Preponderance of evidence mandates that the judge must rule, based upon the evidence that has the greater potential of being true.
  261. The Going and Coming Rule only applies where there are set hours of employment at a set location.
    True
  262. When analyzing the Labor Code, it is best to read it over several times and pull out the main information. The rest is just "legalese" and can be ignored.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • When analyzing a Labor Code we need to account for every word, phrase and portion that is part of the Labor Code.
    • This is the key to analyzing Labor Codes and Regulations. Details will make or break your case when you go to trial.
  263. There must be a proximate cause, or a direct connection, between the injury and the employment in order for the injury to be covered by workers' compensation insurance.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • If there are several events or contributing factors leading up to the injury, this can mean the injury may not be caused by employment.
  264. An issue is defined as:
    Disagreement

    Issues are points of disagreement that must be resolved in order for the case to be closed. Stipulations are those points where we do agree. 
  265. An injury will be covered by workers' compensation if it is either Arising Out of the Employment or if it takes place during the Course of Employment. Either one will make the claim covered.
    • False:
    • .......Explain:
    • It is important to realize how small details in a Labor Code can change your decision and affect the outcome of your case. The difference between using the word "and" versus using "or" can change the entire issue of coverage.
  266. There is a presumption that lawmakers said what they intended when they wrote the Labor Code.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Given the many readings, debates, and amendments of a Bill before it is signed, it is highly unlikely that the bill does not say exactly what they want it to say.
  267. When you are first investigating a claim, all issues will fall into either medical issues or legal issues.
    True
  268. In order to avoid litigation, it is best to use a "wash out" physician who will force and employee back to work as soon as possible.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Getting an employee well is the best way to avoid litigation.  A wash out doctor will only push them into the arms of an attorney.
  269. To which party do we have the greatest obligation?
    Employee


    • Explain:
    • We have the greatest obligation to the employee. Once we have fulfilled that obligation we move to the employer, and then the insurance carrier. 
  270. We can tell an employee not to get an attorney.
    False

    Remember the Bad Faith Claims Actions: 1) Misrepresenting the facts of the case, 2) Misrepresenting coverage, 3) Misrepresenting the value of the case, 4) Making an employee get an attorney to get benefits they are entitled to and 5) Telling employees not to get an attorney. You can be fined for any of these. Don't Do any of them!
  271. If an employee is intoxicated when injured, this will automatically bar the injury.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Just being intoxicated does not bar the claim. The intoxication must have contributed to the injury.
  272. Which word is a "legal imperative"?
    Shall
  273. If an employer intentionally, physically attacks an employee, they are only entitled to the benefits under Division 4 as compensation.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • This is one of the exceptions to the Exclusive Remedy Doctrine. If the employer intentionally, physically attacks an employee, the employee can sue the employer in civil court for additional compensation.
  274. Identifying and framing issues helps the adjuster research and prepare a case for trial.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • If you do not know where you disagree or why you are disagreeing, it is impossible to investigate a case; let alone prepare it for trial.
  275. Legal issues need to be referred to physicians to resolve.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Legal issues are resolve by investigation, negotiation and litigation.  It is important to know which type of issue you are dealing with so you can refer the questions to the correct people. 
  276. If an employer, knowingly, removes a safety device on a punch press machine and, as a result, an employee is injured and the employee can prove, specifically, who it was that ordered the removal, then the employee can sue his/her employer for additional compensation in civil court.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is the power/punch press exclusion under Labor Code 4558. If an employer, knowingly, fails to install or remove a safety device on a power/punch press and as a result an employee is injured; Labor Code 4558 allows additional compensation by suing the employer in civil court.
  277. When a case goes litigated, the over-all cost of the claim increases by how much:
    $10,000


    • Explain:
    • The over-all cost of the claim increases by $10,000. None of that goes to the injured worker. These are all "friction costs" :Attorney fees, depositions, medical exams, record copying and investigators. 
  278. You can have the most credible report ever, but if you did not follow procedures in obtaining it, it can be barred as evidence, and the WCAB will not consider it in making its decision.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is what issues of admissibility means. You must follow proper procedure in obtaining your evidence or the other side can object to it and seek to have it barred.
  279. If an employee is not "on the clock" or on the employer's property, but is providing a benefit to the employer, this can still be found to be in the course of employment
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Remember, to have an injury in the Course of Employment the employer either receives a benefit from the actions when injured, or has control over the employee at the time of injury. If the employee is providing a benefit - such as making a bank deposit on the way home - even though they are not being paid and are not on the employer's property, they are still in the course of employment.
  280. If an employee is an apartment manager, and falls down the stairs at the apartment complex at two o'clock in the morning; the injury would be barred because the office hours are only from 9:00 to 5:00.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • This is the bunkhouse rule. If you live where you work, you are covered 24/7, not just during the regular business hours. You are living where you work for the benefit of the owner.
  281. If the employer provides drinks at the company luncheon and someone is injured driving back to the office because they were drunk, the injury can be barred by the intoxication rule.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • If the employer provides the alcohol or is aware of the alcohol and does not bar its use; the employer is not allowed to raise intoxication as a defense.
  282. If an employee is at the company picnic on her day off, and is injured playing volleyball with her company’s clients at her boss’ request, this would still be covered under workers’ compensation.
    True

    The key here is that the activity must be voluntary, and it must be off duty. By entertaining a client, the employee went back on duty and provided a benefit to the employer.
  283. If I bump my knee on the desk and a week later it is fine without taking time off or going to the doctor, this would still be classified as an injury per case law decisions.
    • False
    • .......Explain
    • Case laws have given us the working definition of an injury as an incident that requires treatment to resolve or produces a disability. If there is no need for medical treatment to resolve the incident, and there is no disability; it is an incident, not an injury.
  284. Which of the following has the greatest legal authority:
    Labor Code


    This is the law passed by the lawmakers and signed by the governor. You need to know which legal authority has the greater authority as this can make a difference in taking your case to trial or settling out.
  285. If the boss asks you to bring your car to work so you can pick up the mail the next day, this creates an exception to the:
    • Going and Coming Rule
  286. If a lawnmower, built by your employer, but you bought it from Home Depot, malfunctions and injures you, you must file your claim through workers' compensation.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • This is the products liability exclusion to Exclusive Remedy. If you purchase a product from a third party and it injures you, you have the same protection and rights as any other consumer; even if the product was manufactured by your employer. You get to file in civil court.

  287. If you are injured in the Employer's Parking Lot, the injury is not covered by workers' compensation.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • This is the Parking Lot Rule. Coverage extends to the parking lot where the employer has a specific parking lot or structure where employees are required to park.
  288. The owner of the company is automatically covered for workers' compensation if injured on the job.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The owner is not an employee; therefore he/she is automatically excluded from workers' compensation coverage. The owner can purchase an endorsement adding himself/herself to the policy; but it is not automatic.
  289. We cannot use negligence as a defense for a work comp claim.
    • True
  290. There is a presumption that every word, phrase, and provision of a Labor Code serves a purpose
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is the ruling under Thomas v Sports Chalet.  Your skill at analyzing Labor Codes and Regulations will be the foundation upon which the rest of the classes this semester builds. This is the skill we really need to develop. 
  291. You can offer the employee less than your investigation shows the claim is worth.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • This is considered an act of Bad Faith per the Insurance Code. You must offer what your investigation shows the claim is worth.
  292. When discussing the case, it is best to use simple and easy to understand terms.
    • True
  293. An injury, that would otherwise be covered by workers' compensation, can be barred because it was not reported until after notice of lay off was given.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • If an injury is not reported before notice of lay off/termination or before the action of lay off/termination is barred by the Labor Code. Even if this would normally be covered, the Labor Code bars the claim.
  294. The first goal of the claims adjuster is to:
    Provide Benefits
  295. You should always use Liberal Construement as your first process in decision-making
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Liberal Construement should always be the last guide in your decision-making process. The meaning of the words is first, and legislative intent is second.
  296. When you are raising an issue, you should consider if it is worth the time, effort and cost to pursue.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Just because you disagree over a point does not mean it is cost-effective to fight it. Always consider the cost and the chance of success when you are raising issues.
  297. Initial Physical Aggressor is defined as the person who threw the first punch.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The initial physical aggressor is the party that moves the contfrontation from the verbal to the physical. This can mean "who threw the first punch" in some cases; but the courts are looking to see who made the other party feel threatened enough to respond with physical action. Remember Matthews v WCAB [David and Goliath].
  298. It is best to provide mileage only if the employee has an attorney.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • This will push an employee into litigation. We must provide all benefits owed even if he/she does not have an attorney
  299. If an employer is not self-insured and did not purchase workers' compensation insurance, the employee can sue the employer in civil court if injured on the job.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is one of the exceptions to Exclusive Remedy. The employee would get benefits under the Uninsured Employers' Fund, and could also sue the employer in civil court.
  300. Identifying the issues is determining why we disagree.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Identifying issues is identifying where we disagree. Framing issues identifies why we disagree.  We need to identify issues to know where we disagree, but then we need to frame them and understand why we disagree. 
  301. When using words in Labor Codes and Regulations, the usual and ordinary meaning of the word will apply.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is a presumption in interpreting law. Words will have their normal meaning.
  302. If an employer did not purchase workers' compensation insurance, and is not licensed to self-insure for workers' compensation, the employer can still pay for the treatment and time off to bar the employee from suing him/her in civil court.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Per Labor Code 3706, the employer must either have work comp insurance or be licensed to self-insured. Otherwise, the employee has the right to seek additional compensation for the injury through the civil court system.
  303. In order for a report to be admissible, it cannot be based upon incorrect or incomplete information.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • To have credibility, the physician must have correct information, and have all the information that would affect his/her medical opinion.
  304. For Dates of Injury on or after 1/1/2013, where an offer of regular work, modified work or alternative work is not provided, how much is the Supplemental Job Displacement voucher
    $6,000
  305. If you have a same sex relationship and one of the partners dies due to a work-related injury, the surviving partner does not get Death Benefits even through there is evidence the relationship was a permanent one.
    • False
  306. Average weekly earnings should never be calculated at an hourly rate greater than the hourly rate the employee was paid on the job where the injury occurred.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is why we add hours from multiple jobs and then multiply it by the hourly rate at the job where the injury took place if the employee was injured at the lower paying job.
  307. Even though the PD Rating Schedule simply requires the GAF to rate impairment for psychiatric injury, the Labor Code still requires the 5 Axis under the DSM III as the proper way to diagnose the condition.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • The PD Rating Schedule is a "Regulation" created by the Admin. Director. Labor Codes always have authority over them. The Labor Code still requires the DSM III standard to diagnose the disorder.
  308. In order to get credit for the disability payment, the employer must issue the check to the employee.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • If a check is made payable to some other party without an Order from the WCAB, the employer will not be credited for the payment and may have to pay the employee again.
  309. An adopted child is not entitled to death benefits
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • A child who has been adopted by the deceased employee has the same benefits as a child who was born the deceased employee.
  310. How long must the modified/alternate job last:
    12 months
  311. Physicians have to sign their reports under penalty of perjury per Labor Code 4628.
    • True
  312. Question 10 (Worth 6 points)When the employee submits the Voucher with all receipts and documentation, how long does the adjuster have to reimburse the employee?
    45 calendar Days 
  313. If a party obtains a credible medical report, but does not follow proper procedures in obtaining it, the report is still admissible before the WCAB.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • You must follow proper procedures in getting your medical report, or it is not admissible before the WCAB, even if it is credible.
  314. The _________ controls which workers' compensation system you are under and what benefits you are entitled to.
    date of injury
  315. In order for the spouse to be a total dependent, he/she must have made what amount or less in the 12 months prior to the date of death?
    • $30,000
  316. An employee has just come to work for the employer and after two weeks been injured. To calculate the Average Weekly Wage you would:
    • Only collect earning information going back to the date of hire with the new employer.
  317. If the delay in cashing the check is due to federal banking laws, this is no longer considered an unreasonable delay.
    • True
  318. It is the status of the relationship between spouses at the time of death that determines if the surviving spouse is entitled to benefits.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Per the Labor Code, the relationship between the husband and wife is the exception to the entitlement to benefits at the date of injury rule. It is their relationship at the time of death that determines compensability.
  319. What is disability?
    Deals with how an injury affects a person's ability to perform his/her job.
  320. If there are no total or partial dependents, you will need to pay:
    • The state.
  321. If the children are being raised by their natural parent, there is no need to have the WCAB appoint a Guardian Ad Litem.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • This is for your protection. If the parent spends the children's death benefits, and the WCAB did not appoint them the Guardian, the children can file for additional benefits when they turn 18. If a Guardian was appointed, it is between the WCAB and the children and you are protected.
  322. If a child is physically or mentally incapacitated from earning, you will pay death benefits until they turn 18, and then no further benefits are owed.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • If a child is mentally or physically incapacitated from earning, you will pay death benefits for that child's entire life.
  323. Impairment:
    Deals with how an injury affects a person's ability to perform one or more Activities of Daily Living.

  324. For a 1/1/2008 date of injury, what date starts the 104 week/five-year cap running?
    The date the injury takes place 

  325. Per the AMA Guides 5th Edition, work is one of the seven Activities of Daily Living.
    False

  326. If the Temporary Disability Rate changes two weeks after you are injured, you will get the new rate once it goes into effect.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • You are entitled to the rate in effect at the time of your injury. Even if it changes the very next day. You have to wait two years before you become entitled to any higher rates in effect at that time.

  327. The claims adjuster should include how much the employer is paying for group health insurance into the average weekly earnings calculation.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Remember that the group health payment does not come back to the employee so it is not included in the calculation for average weekly earning.
  328. If the parties agree, you can have the employee’s check direct deposited into his/her account.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • The lawmakers wanted to encourage electronic transfer, as this would speed up the benefit delivery process.
  329. Physicians are allowed to speculate when presenting their medical opinion and the report is still admissible before the WCAB.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Medical opinion cannot be based upon speculation, conjecture or surmise. If they are, then they do not qualify as substantial medical evidence.
  330. If an employee misrepresents his/her level of disability to the physician; and the physician believes the misrepresentation, this can raise an issue of credibility.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • The question is not if the physician believed the employee, but was the statement true. If the employee is misrepresenting the level of disability and succeeds in tricking the physician into believing him/her; it only destroys the credibility of the physician's medical opinion. This makes it an issue of credibility.
  331. If you have three total dependents on a death claim, you will issue a check to each dependent for maximum TTD rate.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • All three checks must total the maximum TTD rate. The only time a single check would be the maximum TTD rate is if you were only paying one total dependent
  332. The Labor Code does require us to be reasonable and fair when it comes to calculating the Average Weekly Wage.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Remember the fourth method of calculating AWW, "where any of the foregoing methods cannot reasonably and fairly be applied..."
  333. The first 14 days after the DWC-1 is returned to the employer, the employer is never subject to the Self-Imposed Penalties.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Any disability due prior to the return of the DWC-1 or within 14 days of returning the DWC-1 are always exempt with regards to Self-Imposed Penalties
  334. The Labor Code gives us very clear directions on how to compensate for lost wages on the date of injury.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • When it comes to how to compensate for lost wages on the date of injury or even if we should compensate for lost wages on the date of injury, the Labor Code is completely silent.
  335. If an employer is providing an apartment as part of the compensation for the job; then the claims adjuster must determine the market value of the apartment and include that in the average weekly earning calculation.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Board was specifically mentioned in the Labor Code. Rent/housing then needs to be identified and the market value of this compensation needs to be determined and the amount added to the average weekly earnings calculation.
  336. Which document/resource does the claims adjuster use to convert impairment into disability?
    The Schedule for Rating Permanent Disabilities 


    The claims adjuster takes the impairment provided by the physician and runs it through a "rating" process that uses the Schedule for Rating Permanent Disabilities to convert impairment into disability.
  337. The Labor Code requires that a disability payment be made in the form of a written instrument that is immediately negotiable and payable in cash, on demand, without discount some established place of business in the state.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This was created to ensure that there would be no delays in the employee getting his/her benefits.
  338. You will be allowed to bring your physician down to the WCAB to testify just to clear up any confusion in the report.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The WCAB requires medical testimony to be in the form of written reports - Administrative Rule 10606

  339. What percentage of the employee’s pervious salary must the modified/alternate job pay?
    85%

    The modified/alternate position being offered must pay at least 85% of the salary the employee was making when injured.
  340. The first two digits of the impairment code identify what information?
    The Chapter of the AMA Guides used to evaluate the Impairment 


    The impairment number is a code giving the following information: The chapter of the AMA Guides used, the body part involved, the method used to evaluate the impairment; and any additional information needed to rate the injury.
  341. Death Benefits are paid at the same rate and at the same amount as TTD benefits.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This means if the maximum TTD rate increases, and it is two years or more after the date of injury, you must recalculate and pay the higher rate until you are paying a straight 2/3s of the employees wages.
  342. If the employer offers a job at the location where the employee used to work, this is presumed to be a reasonable commute.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • If you bring the employee back to the same location where he/she worked when injured, they cannot object on the basis that the commute is not reasonable.
  343. If the medical-legal examination takes place before the DWC-1 was returned to the employer, the adjuster can object to the report.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Per LC 5400 - 5402, the employee must return the DWC-1 to the employer in order to be entitled to a medical-legal evaluation. This can be a reason to object to the report and the bill.
  344. In order to be entitled to Self Imposed Penalties, the employee must have returned the DWC-1 Claim Form to the employer/adjuster.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • This is one of three benefits the employee gets when returning the DWC-1 Claim Form. If the form is not returned, then no Self-Imposed penalties are owed.
  345. What is the "magic formula" for calculating disability benefits?
    2/3 of the Average Weekly Wage 


    We must use two-thirds of the average weekly wage to calculate disability benefits. Each benefit has a different maximum and minimum rate, but the process is still the same.
  346. It is the amount of the check being issued, not the amount that is late that is subject to the Self-Imposed Penalties.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • The Labor Code is very clear that it is only the amount of the disability payment that is late that is subject to the Self-Imposed Penalties.
  347. If the employee works for two employers when injured, and he was injured at the lower-paying job; you simply add the salaries together to get the Average Weekly Wage.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • If injured at the lower-paying job, you add the hours worked per week at both jobs and then multiply by the hourly rate at the lower-paying job where the employee was injured.
  348. If someone else signs the report for the physician, this is acceptable and the report will qualify as evidence before the WCAB.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • Labor Code 4628 mandates that a physician must sign each report under penalty of perjury. This means a pen-to-paper signature by the person making the declaration, and that person must be the physician who is claiming to have performed the evaluation.
  349. The initial temporary disability check must be made no later than 14 days from the date of knowledge of injury and disability.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • The "clock" begins to run with the date the employer is aware of the injury and the disability. We have "no later than 14 days" to issue the first payment of TTD.
  350. Where you have two total dependents in a death claim with a date of injury of 1/1/06, how much does a partial dependent get?
    Nothing 

    Where there are two or more Total Dependents, the partial dependents get nothing.

  351. If an employer knows about an injury, but does not know that it has produced a disability, then that does not qualify as a Date of Knowledge for temporary disability purposes.
    • True
    • .......Explain:
    • Both pieces of information must be present to start the "clock" running. The employer must know that there was an injury, and must know that the injury has produced disability. At that point, the clock begins to run to issue the first payment of TTD.
  352. If a physician uses the phrase: "dictated but not read" this is a proper certification that the report is the physician's medical testimony before the WCAB.
    • False
    • .......Explain:
    • How can a physician certify that the report is his/her medical testimony if he/she has not read it? A tape could have been switched at the transcription service and without reading the report the physiican will never know.
  353. These cases challenged the strict application of the AMA guides in addressing Permanent Impairment:
    Almaraz/Guzman 
  354. In order to assess the Diagnosis aspect of the spine impairments under the ROM method, the evaluator consults this Table.
    Table 15-7
  355. The two methods for evaluating spinal impairments are:
    ROM and DRE 
  356. Under the DRE Method, an injured who has had lumbar fusion surgery with unresolved radiculopathy will be assigned this category of impairment:
    V
  357. An injured had disc bulges at two levels. There was one sided radiculopathy on one level only. Strict application of the AMA guides dictate this case should be evaluated, using which method?
    DRE 
  358. A 32 year old warehouse worker injured her lumbar spine while lifting a 60 pound bag of dog food. MRI was positive for L4-5 disc herniation with pain and numbness radiating down left leg. Radicular symptoms resolved with conservative care. What DRE category should injured be placed in?
    Category II
  359. What is the occupational group for warehouseman?
    360
  360. Based on the injury and the assessment method used, what impairment number will you use in this case?
    15.03.01.00 
  361. The evaluator assigned the maximum value for the range and did not assign any pain add on. The WPI is:
    8
  362. After adjusting for FEC, Occupation and Age under the 2005 PDRS, the final permanent disability is:
    15%
  363. A 58 year old mobile home park manager was painting the ceiling of a unit when she felt pain in her neck. An MRI revealed disc herniation at C3-C4. EMG and NCV confirmed radiculopathy consistent with C4 nerve impingement bilaterally. She had a fusion surgery which resolved most of her symptoms. At maximum medical improvement, the doctor evaluated this case using the ROM method. Cervical flexion was 30 degrees. What is the whole person impairment for flexion?
    2
  364. The evaluator assigned the following impairments:
    ROM: 6%
    Diagnosis: 10%
    Nerve Deficit: 0 %
    What is the total whole person impairment for the cervical spine?
    15
  365. What is the occupational code for mobile home park manager?
    212
  366. Assuming a date of injury of 1/7/13 (with replacement of FEC with 1.4 modifier), what is the final PD?
    16
  367. If the DRE method were applicable, what DRE category would the injured be placed in?
    IV
  368. On 12/11/11, a 47 year old bricklayer slipped and fell suffering injuries to his cervical and thoracic spine. The doctors diagnosed him with compression fractures at T3 (26% compression of vertebrae)and C4 (22% compression of vertebrae). He returned to work and was considered permanent and stationary nine months later. What cervical DRE category would the injured be placed in?
    II
  369. What DRE category would the cervical spine be placed in?
    II
  370. For the cervical spine, the evaluator assigned the minimum value from the appropriate DRE category and did not provide any pain add on. The final permanent disability rating for the cervical spine after adjustment for FEC, Occupation and Age is?
    (Calculate the PD and enter only the number. Example 20 PD would be entered as 20)
    Answer: 10
  371. Assuming a psychiatric injury in the case with a psychiatric GAF of 65. What is psychiatric whole person impairment?
    Hint: Psychiatric impairment is found in section one of the PDRS.
    (Calculate the WP and enter only the number. Example 20 WP would be entered as 20)
    Answer: 8
  372. After adjustment for FEC, occupation and age, what is the psychiatric PD?
    (Calculate the PD and enter only the number. Example 20 PD would be entered as 20)
    Answer: 16
  373. Convert a 27% digit impairment of the index finger to whole person impairment.
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 WP impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint tables 16-1, 16-2 and 16-3 will assist in converting the impairment to whole person. First convert the digit impairment to hand impairment, then to upper extremity impairment, and then to whole person impairment.
    Answer: 3
  374. Convert to whole person and adjust the following to permanent disability:
    Date of injury: 7/12/09
    Occupation: Pipe Fitter
    Age at date of injury: 53
    Impairment: Left shoulder muscle strength: 17 UE
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 PD impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: Convert to whole person impairment before adjusting to disability
    Answer: 21
  375. What is the upper extremity impairment for 40 degrees of wrist flexion?
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 UE impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: Figure 16-28
    Answer: 3
  376. What is the maximum upper extremity motor deficit value for the ulnar nerve above mid-forearm?
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 UE impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: Table 16-15
    Answer: 46
  377. How many different methods are there to rate the lower extremities?
    • A. 5
    • B. 9
    • C. 13
    • D. 15
  378. Rate the following for permanent disability:
    DOI: 12/14/11
    Occupation: Taxi driver
    Age at date of injury: 27
    Impairment: Left knee arthritis cartilage interval 2 mm
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 WP impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: Table 17-31. The number in parentheses is the lower extremity impairment. You must convert to whole person impairment and adjust to permanent disability
    Answer: 8
  379. What is the lower extremity impairment for a total knee replacement with a 57 points?
    Hint: Table 17-33
    • A. 37
    • B. 50
    • C. 75
    • D. None of the above
  380. Rate the following for disability
    Date of Injury: 2/2/06
    Occupation: Lawyer
    Age at date of injury: 65
    Impairment: psychiatric GAF 55
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 PD impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: PDRS page 1-16
    Answer: 54
  381. What is the maximum WP add-on for pain for each date of injury?
    • A. None; pain is subjective
    • B. 1 WP
    • C. 3 WP
    • D. There is no maximum pain add-on
  382. What is the whole person impairment for an amputation of the thumb at the MP joint?
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 WP impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: Table 16-4
    Answer: 22
  383. Rate the following disability:
    DOI: 5/7/12
    Occupation: Telephone Operator
    Age: 42
    Impairment: 20% binaural hearing impairment
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 PD impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: Table 11-3
    Answer: 16
  384. What is the Visual Acuity Score for 20/80 vision?
    Hint: Table 12-2
    Answer: 70
  385. What is the primary method for rating the spine?
    • A. DRE
    • B. ROM
    • C. Corticospine
    • D. Pie Charts
  386. Combine the following at the upper extremity index and convert to whole person impairment:
    Left wrist instability: 8 UE
    Left wrist ROM: 12 UE
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 WP impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Hint: Combined values Chart in PDRS; Table 16-3 in AMA guides
    Answer: 11
  387. What AMA Guides table would be used to rate hypertensive cardiovascular disease?
    • A. Table 3-6a 
    • B. Table 3-11 
    • C. Table 4-2 
    • D. None of the above
  388. Which is not a pulmonary function test?
    • A. FVC (Forced Vital capacity) 
    • B. FEV1 (Forced expiratory Volume 1 Second) 
    • C. DCO (Diffusion carbon monoxide) 
    • D. Systolic blood pressure 
  389. Rate the following for disability:
    Date of injury 1/15/13
    Occupation: Manicurist
    Age: 20
    Impairment: wrist ROM: 9 WP
    (Make sure to show you answer only as a number. For example if you calculations yield 8 PD impairment, record your answer as 8)
    Answer: 13
  390. Which is not a SB 863 change?
    • A. No add-on for sleep arousal impairment 
    • B. No add-on for psychiatric impairment 
    • C. Increased PD rates 
    • D. Increased PD rates
  391. What DRE would verified lumbar radiculopathy resolved by fusion surgery be placed in?
    • A. DRE II 
    • B. DRE III
    • C. DRE IV
    • D. DRE V
  392. Range of motion impairments within the same joint are added.
    False

  393. Define: Appeals Board
    • Workers' Compensation Appeals Board.
    • The title of a member of the board is "commissioner"
  394. Define: Administrative Director
    Administrative Director of the Division of Workers' Compensation. 
  395. Define: Division
    Division of Workers' Compensation
  396. Define: Medical Director
    The physician appointed by the Administrative Director, pursuant to Section 122.
  397. Define: QME
    Physicians appointed by the Administrative Director, pursuant to Section 139.2.
  398. Define: Court Administrator
    The administrator of the workers' compensation adjudicatory process at the trial level.
  399. Define: Audits
    LC 129 gives the administrative director authority to audit insurers, self-insured employers, and third-party administrators to determine if they have met their obligations under the code and requires the Administrative Director to annually publish a report, detailing the results.
  400. What is the Penalty Assessment Against Insurers, Self-Insured Employers, or Third-Party Administrators?
    • The administrative director shall assess an administrative penalty against an insurer, self-insured employer, or third-party administrator for any of the following:
    • *  Failure to comply with the notice of assessment issued, pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 129 within 15 days of receipt
    • * Failure to pay when the undisputed portion of an indemnity payment, the reasonable cost of medical treatment of an injured worker, or a charge or cost of implementing an approved vocational rehabilitation plan.
    • * Failure to comply with any rule or regulation of the administrative director.
    • The administrative director shall promulgate regulations establishing a schedule of violations and the amount of the administrative penalty to be imposed for each type of violation.  The schedule shall provide for imposition of a penalty of up to one hundred dollars for each violation of the least serious type and for imposition of penalties in progressively higher amounts for more serious types of violations, with the penalty for the most serious types of violations to be set at up to five thousand dollars per violation.
  401. The administrative director is authorized to impose penalties, pursuant to rules and regulations, which give due consideration to the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the following factors:
    • A. The gravity of the violation
    • B. The Good Faith of the insurer
    • C. The history of previous violations
    • D. The frequency of the violations
  402. In addition to the penalty assessment permitted by subdivision (a), (b), and (c), the administrative director may assess a civil penalty, not to exceed one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), upon finding, after hearing, that an employer, insurer, or third-party administrator for an employer has knowingly committed and has performed with a frequency as to indicate a general business practice any of the following:
    • A. Induced employees to accept less than compensation due
    • B. Refused to comply with known and legally indisputable compensation obligations
    • C. Discharged or administered compensation obligations in a dishonest manner
    • D. Discharged or administered compensation obligations in a manner as to cause injury to the public
  403. If an employer forces injured workers to accept less money than they are due, the employer faces:
    • A. No civil pentalty because of the exclusive remedy rule
    • B. Civil penalty of up to $100
    • C. Civil penalty of up to $500
    • D. Civil penalty of up to $100,000
  404. An employer calls and tells you they fired an employee for reporting an industrial injury.  You should:
    • A. Advise them they may face on action for wrongful termination
    • B. Advise them the employee may file a 132a claim
    • C. Advise them the employee may file a claim in Superior Court for punitive damages
    • D. Advise them the employee may file a claim in Superior Court for general damages
  405. "Preponderance of the evidence" means:
    Evidence that, when weighed with that opposed to it, has more convincing force and the greater probability of truth.
  406. An employee has an injury in February 2000.  In July 2000, he has an aggravation of his injury.  You should:
    • A. Combine the two injuries in one file
    • B. Set up a separate file for the new injury
    • C. Apportion permanent disability
    • D. Close the file
  407. For a victim of a violent act, substantial cause means:
    • A. 10 to 20 percent
    • B. 20 to 30 percent
    • C. 35 to 40 percent
    • D. 40 to 50 percent of the causation from all sources combined
  408. "Damages" means:
    The recovery allowed in an action at law as contrasted with compensation
  409. List the Summary of LC 3212 presumptions:
    • Hernia
    • Heart trouble
    • Pneumonia
    • Cancer
    • Tuberculosis
    • Blood-borne Infectious Disease
    • Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
  410. What is the maximum amount a spouse can make in order to qualify for a presumption of total dependency?
    • A. $20,000 or less
    • B. Less than $30,000
    • C. $30,000 or less
    • D. Extent of dependency is subject to proof
  411. Mary and John Doe adopt their 8 year-old grandson, Joseph.  John dies in a work-related accident.  Mary is a dependent spouse.  How many dependents are there?
    • A. 2 total dependents
    • B. 1 total and 2 partial dependent
    • C. 2 partial dependents
    • D. 1 total and no partial dependents
  412. An employee, not paid for mileage, going to the bank on his lunch break to cash his paycheck, had an injury, the injury is:
    • A. Compensable because the personal comfort doctrine
    • B. Compensable because of the going and coming rule
    • C. Not compensable because of the personal comfort doctrine
    • D. Not compensable because it was solely a personal errand
  413. To whom do you apply for Certificate of Consent to Self-Insure?
    • A. The Manager of Self-Insurance Plans
    • B. The Director of Industrial Relations
    • C. The Director of the Division of Workers' Comp
    • D. The Director of Industrial Accidents
  414. What may the Director NOT accept as a deposit to secure incurred liabilities for the payment of compensation and the performance obligations of a self-insured employer?
    • Cash
    • Securities
    • Surety Bonds
    • Certificate of Deposit
    • Irrevocable Letter of Credit
  415. If the Director of Industrial Relations determines that a private self-insured employer has failed to pay workers' comp benefits, he/she may:
    • A. Utilize the self-insured security deposit if the Self-Insurer's Security Fund refuses to pay compensation benefits
    • B. Utilize the self-insured's security deposit to administer and pay the employer's compensation obligations
    • C. Refer the issue of non-payment of benefits to the WCAB
    • D. Refer the issue of non-payment of benefits to the Superior Court for a Writ of Mandate.
  416. A Certificate of Consent to Self-Insure may be revoked by the _______ at any time for good cause after a hearing.
    Director
  417. No person, firm, or corporation, other than an insurer admitted to transact workers' comp insurance in this state, shall conract to administer claims of self-insured employers as third-party administrator unless in possession of a certificate of consent to administer self-insured employers workers' comp claims.  As a condition of receiving a certificate of consent, all persons given discretion by a third-party administrator to deny, accept, or negotiate a workers' comp claim shall demonstrate their competency to the _________ by written examination or other methods approved by the _________.
    Director
  418. All self-insured employers shall file a self-insurer's annual report in a form prescribed by the __________.
    Director
  419. The director shall establish an audit program addressing the adequacy of estimates of future liability of claims for all private self-insured employers, and shall ensure that all private self-insured employers are audited within a _______-year cycle by the __________.
    • three
    • Office of Self Insurance Plans
  420. Private employers who have ceased to be self-insured employers shall discharge their continuing obligations to secure the payment of compensation which accrued during the period of self-insurance, for purposes of Sections 3700, 3700.5, 3706 and 3715, by compliance with all of the following obligations of current certificate holders:
    • * Filing annual reports
    • * Depositing and maintaining security deposit for accrued liability for the payment of any compensation which may become due
    • * Paying within 30 days all assessments of which notice is sent

  421. Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a private employer who has ceased to be self-insured may discharge its continuing obligations as a self-insurer by the purchase of a _________________.
    Special excess workers' comp insurance policy from an insurer authorized to transact workers' comp in this state.
  422. What is Excess Insurance?
    Aggregate excess insurance (stop loss).
  423. You fail to notify the excess carrier of a claim.  The excess carrier may:
    Refuse to pay the claim
  424. You fail to notify the excess carrier of a claim.  Which entity can impose a penalty?
    • A. The Administrative Director
    • B. The excess carrier
    • C. The Manager of Self-Insurance Plans
    • D. The Self-Insurer's Security Fund
  425. If any employer fails to secure the payment of compensation (not insured for liability), any injured employee or his dependents may bring an _____________ against such employer for damages, as if this division did not apply (Exclusive Remedy: Can sue in civil court)
    • Action at law
  426. What is Labor Code 3710-3732?
    • Uninsured Employers Fund
    • Explain: An employer's failure to secure the payment of compensation by either insuring or self-insuring as required by LC3700, is considered a willful failure (LC4554) and is not only against the public social policy of the state, but can subject the employer to business restraints and monetary penalties imposed by the Director.
  427. Self-Insurers' Security Fund:
    Article 2.5 establishes what?
    The self insurer's Security Fund (SISF) "......to provide for the continuation of work comp benefits delayed due to the failure of a private self-insured employer to meet its compensation obligations when the employer's security deposit is either inadequate or not immediately accessible for the payment of benefits." (LC 3740)
  428. Self-Insurers' Security Fund:
    What is the director's role?
    The director establishes the amount to be retained in the fund, which is funded by assessments against its members (LC3745)
  429. Who is The California Insurance Guarantee Association? (CIGA)
    CIGA provides a mechanism for the payment of covered property, casualty, and workers' comp claims of insolvent insurance companies.
  430. No employer shall extract or receive from any employee any contribution, or make or take any deduction from the earnings of any employee, either directly or indirectly, to cover the whole or any part of the cost of compensation under this division.  Violation of this subdivision is a ___________.
    misdemeanor
  431. Cost of compensation added in 1989:
    If an employee has filed a claim form, pursuant to Section 5401, a provider of medical services shall not (with actual knowledge that a claim is pending) collect money directly from the employee for services to cure or relieve the effect of the injury for which the claim form was filed; Unless the medical provider has received written notice that liability for the injury has been rejected by the employer and the medical provider has provided a copy of this notice to the employee.  Any medical provider who violates this subdivision shall be liable for three times the amount unlawfully collected, plus reasonable attorney's fees and costs.
  432. You reduce a medical provider's bill by $500, pursuant to the Official medical Fee Schedule.  The physician bills the applicant who pays and advises you.  What is the physician's responsibility?
    Three times the amount unlawfully collected.
  433. In a third party case, there is a $100,000 recovery from a negligent third party defendant.  The attorney's fees are $36,000 and there are costs of $4,000.  The workers' comp lien is $40,000.  What is the net recovery to the injured worker?
    • A. $  20,000
    • B. $  40,000
    • C. $  60,000
    • D. $100,000

    • Explain: Third Party Recovery $100,000
    •              Attorney's Fees       <$ 36,000>
    •              Costs                     <$   4,000>
    •              Subtotal                   $ 60,000
    •              WC Lien                 <$ 40,000>
    •              Net Recovery: $20,000
  434. The statute of limitations for subrogation claims is:
    • A. 1 year
    • B. 2 years
    • C. 3 years
    • D. 6 months
    • (California Code of Civil Procedure 335.1)
  435. An employer and employee file third party actions and obtain a recovery.  Who has first right of recovery?
    • A. The employee
    • B. The employer
    • C. The employer, if the lien does not 
    •      exceed the amount of the recovery
    • D. 1/3 to the employee, 1/3 to the employer,
    •     and 1/3 to the employer's attorney
  436. Can an employee bring his personal physician to a medical examination requested by his employer?
    • A. Yes
    • B. No
    • C. Yes, but he is responsible for the fees
    • D. Yes, and the employer must pay the fees
  437. If the employee objects to a decision made pursuant to Section 4610 to modify, delay, or deny a request for authorization of a medical treatment recommendation made by a treating physician, what is next?
    The objection shall be resolved only in accordance with the independent medical review process established in Section 4610.5
  438. What is Permanent total disability vs. Permanent partial disability?
    • PTD means a PD with a rating of 100% PD only.
    • PPD means a PD with a rating of less than 100% PD
  439. What are the five Special TD Issues?
    • 1. Dual Employment
    • 2. Public Safety Officers
    • 3. Seasonal Employees
    • 4. Earning Capacity
    • 5. Inmates
  440. For Indemnity Rates, how do you calculate the Statutory Maximum?
  441. What are the maximum & minimum TD Rates for 2009 through 2015?
    • 2009 - Max $   958.01   Min $ 143.70
    • 2010 - Max $   986.69   Min $ 148.00
    • 2011 - Max $   986.69   Min $ 148.00
    • 2012 - Max $1,010.50   Min $ 151.57
    • 2013 - Max $1,066.72   Min $ 160.00
    • 2014 - Max $1,074.64   Min $ 161.19
    • 2015 - Max $1,103.29   Min $ 165.49
  442. Where the employee is working for _____ or more employers at or about the time of the injury, the average weekly earnings shall be taken as the aggregate of these earnings from all employments computed in terms of one week
    two
  443. Explain irregular rate
    If the IW's earnings are at an irregular rate, such as a piecework, or on a commission basis, or are specified to be by week, month, or other period, then the average weekly earnings mentioned in the subdivision (a) shall be taken as the actual weekly earnings averaged for this period of time, not exceeding one year, as may conveniently be taken to determine an average weekly rate of pay.
  444. A nursing student working part-time 20 hours a week earns $10 per hour.  Upon graduation, her hours increase to 40 hours per week.  She is promised a raise to $1,000 per week after receiving her nursing certificate.  She has an injury in 2005 while working part-time, but graduates, completes, and passes the nursing exam and receives her nursing certificate.  Her temporary disability rate is:
    • A. $133.33 while part-time, $266.67 after she graduates, and $666.67 after receiving her nursing certificate
    • B. $200.00 while part-time, $266.67 after she graduates, and $666.67 after receiving her nursing certificate
    • C. Who cares
    • D. $200.00 while part-time and $266.67 after graduation.
  445. In determining average weekly earnings within the limits fixed in Section 4453, what shall be included?
    Overtime and the market value of board, lodging, fuel, and other advantages received by the injured employee, as part of his remuneration.
  446. A bartender with earnings of $600 per week averages tips of $250 and also receives one free meal per day from the employer.  The employer's cost of the meal is $15.  If the employee paid for the meal, it would cost $125 per week.  What are the employee's earnings for compensation purposes?
    • A. $600
    • B. $850
    • C. $925
    • D. $975 (x2/3 = $600)
  447. A 17 year old minor is injured and is minimum for TD.  What is the correct PD rate?
    • A. Minimum
    • B. Maximum
    • C. Average weekly earnings of $189
    • D. Probable earnings at ate 18
  448. Explain Active firefighter; average weekly earnings.
    If a member registered as an active firefighting member of any regularly organized volunteer fire department, as described in Section 3361, suffers injury or death while in the performance of his duty as fireman, or if a person engaged in fire suppression, as described in Section 3365, suffers injury or death while so engaged, then, irrespective of his remuneration from this or other employment or from both, his average weekly earnings for the purposes of determining TD indemnity and PD, shall be taken at the maximum fixed for each, respectively, in Section 4453.
  449. Explain Active police officer; average weekly earnings.
    If an active peace officer of any department, as described in Section 3362, suffers injury or death while in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer, or if any person engaged in the performance of active law enforcement service, as described in Section 3366, suffers injury or death while in the performance of that active law enforcement service, or if any person registered as a reserve police officer of any regularly organized police or sheriff's department , as described in Section 3362.5, suffers injury or death while in the performance of his or her duties as peace officer, then, irrespective of his or her remuneration from this or other employment or from both, his or her average weekly earnings for the purposes of determining TD indemnity and PD indemnity, shall be taken at the maximum fixed for each, respectively, in Section 4453.
  450. What is willful misconduct of an injured employee?
    • Where the injury is caused by the serious and willful misconduct of the injured employee, the compensation otherwise recoverable, therefore shall be reduced one-half, except:
    • a) Where the injury results in death
    • b) Where the injury results in a PD of 70% or over
    • c) Where the injury is caused by the failure of the employer to comply with any provision of law, or any safety order of the Division of Occupational Safety and Health, with reference to the safety of places of employment.
    • d) Where the injured employee is under 16 years of age at the time of injury.
  451. An employee is seriously injured as a result of his own serious and willful misconduct.  The employee's compensation is reduced by 50%, unless:
    • A. He is a minor
    • B. The injury results in death
    • C. The injury produces PD of 70% or greater
    • D. Both B and C
  452. A finding that the injuries resulted from the injured employee's serious and willful misconduct, means:
    • A. A 50% reduction in the applicant's indemnity benefits
    • B. The compensation otherwise payable shall be reduced by one-half.
    • C. A 10% reduction if the injury causes disability greater than 70%
    • D. No reduction if the employee is under 18 years of age at the time of injury
  453. A farm laborer age 15 years and 9 months is injured and there is serious and willful misconduct of the employee.  What is his PD rate?
    • A. Minimum
    • B. Maximum
    • C. Average weekly earnings of $189
    • D. Probable earnings at age 18
  454. Explain willful misconduct of the employer.
    • The amount of compensation otherwise recoverable, shall be increased one-half, together with costs and expenses not to exceed two hundred fifty dollars, where the employee is injured by reason of the serious and willful misconduct of any of the following:
    • a) The employer, or his managing representative
    • b) If the employer is a partnership, on the part of one of the partners or a managing representative or general superintendent thereof.
    • c) If the employer is a corporation, on the part of an executive, managing officer, or general superintendent thereof.
  455. If an employer is guilty of serious and willful misconduct, the employee's compensation is:
    • A. Increased by 10%
    • B. Increased by $250
    • C. Increased by one-half
    • D. Increased by one-half up to $10,000

    Note: We pay extra medical, TD & PD to IW.
  456. Explain the employer's willful failure to secure payment of compensation:
    In case of the willful failure by an employer to secure the payment of compensation, the amount of compensation otherwise recoverable for injury or death as provided in this division shall be increased 10%.  Failure of the employer to secure the payment of compensation as provided in Article 1 of Chapter 4 of Part 1 of this division is prima facie evidence of willfulness on his part.  LC 3700
  457. The penalty for failing to obtain workers' comp coverage is what percentage of the compensation paid?
    • A. 10%
    • B. 15%
    • C. 20%
    • D. 25%
  458. Explain the injury to illegally employed persons under the age of 16.
    Where the injury is to an employee under 16 years of age and illegally employed at the time of injury, the entire compensation otherwise recoverable shall be increased fifty percent, and such additional sum shall be paid by the employer at the same time and in the same manner as the normal compensation benefits.
  459. The employer is required to provide ________________, reasonably required to cure or relieve from the effects of injury.  Unless the employer has established ___________, the employee is entitled to choose a PTP after ____________ days.
    • provide.....all medical & hospital treatment
    • established.....an MPN
    • after.......30 days

  460. How many days does an employer or insurance carrier have, from the date of request, to provide an employee with a change of physician form?
    • A. 5 calendar days
    • B. 5 working days
    • C. 10 calendar days
    • D. 10 working days
  461. If the employer desires a change of physicians or chiropractor, he may petition the _______________ who, upon a showing of good cause by the employer, may order the employer to provide a panel of five physicians, or if requested by the employee, four physicians and one chiropractor competent to treat the particular case, from which the employee must select one.
    Administrative Director

    • (All others go to the WCAB)
  462. Notwithstanding the medical treatment utilization schedule, for injuries occurring on and after __________, an employee shall be entitled to no more than _____chiropractic, _____(#) occupational therapy, and ________ physical therapy visits, per industrial injury.
    • January 1, 2004
    • 24, 24, 24
  463. What is Utilization Review?
    Utilization management functions that prospectively, retrospectively, or concurrently review and approve, modify, delay, or deny, based in whole or in part on medical necessity, to cure and relieve treatment recommendations by physicians
  464. An employer has established a Utilization Review Department under labor Code 4610 and hired a nurse to approve or deny requests for medical treatment. This is:
    • A. Always permissible
    • B. Never permissible
    • C. Only a licensed physician may modify, delay, or deny requests for medical treatment
    • D. Ok of the nurse has met continuing education requirements.
  465. No person other than a _____________, who is competent to evaluate the specific clinical issues involved in the medical treatment services, when these services are within the scope of the Physician's practice, may modify, delay, or deny requests for authorization of medical treatment
    licensed physician
  466. The employer or insurance carrier shall submit a plan for the Medical Provider network to:
    • A. Medical Director
    • B. Manager of Self Insurance Plans
    • C. California Insurance Commissioner
    • D. Administrative Director
  467. Who can modify, delay and deny requests for medical treatment?
    • A. Certified physician
    • B. Licensed physician's assistant or nurse
    • C. Licenses medical provider in that specialty
    • D. Claims adjuster
  468. Except as provided in subdivision (c) and Sections 4061 and 4062, no comprehensive medical-legal evaluations, except those at the request of an employer, shall be performed during the first _____ days after the notice of claim has been filed, pursuant to Section 5401, and neither the employer nor the employee shall be liable for any expenses incurred for comprehensive medical-legal evaluations performed within the first ______ days after the notice of claim has been filed, pursuant to Section 5401.
    60/60
  469. All medical-legal expenses for which the employer is liable shall, upon receipt by the employer of all reports and documents required by the ______________incident to the services, be paid to whom the funds and expenses are due.
    administrative director
  470. You find a doctor's medical-legal bill in a claims file 62 days after the bill was date stamped, received.  You should:
    • A. Voluntarily add 10% plus 7% interest
    • B. Send an objection to the bill, immediately
    • C. Deny the bill
    • D. Wait until you are forced to pay the penalty
  471. Responsibilities of physician signing medical-legal report: Failure to comply with the requirements of this section, shall make the report _______________ and shall eliminate any liability for payment of any medical-legal expense incurred in connection with the report.  Knowing failure to comply with the requirements of this section, shall subject the physician to a civil penalty of up to $______for each violation to be assessed by a Work Comp Judge or _______________.
    • * inadmissible as evidence
    • * $1000
    • * the WCAB
  472. If a physician didn't perform a particular exam or prepare the report, you should:
    • A. Object to the report as inadmissible
    • B. Contact the physician's office and negotiate
    • C. Report the physician to the WCAB
    • D. Report the physician to the Fraud Bureau
  473. Vocational Rehabilitation may be settled where:
    • A. All parties are in agreement
    • B. The employee could lose the case
    • C. There is a good faith issue which, if resolved against the IW, would defeat the employee's rights to all benefits
    • D. Never
  474. If an injury causes TD, the first payment of TD indemnity shall be made:
    No later than 14 days after knowledge of the injury and disability.
  475. If the injury causes PD, the first payment shall be made within:
    14 days after the date of the last payment of TD indemnity
  476. Payment of TD or PD indemnity subsequent to the first payment, shall be made as due:
    every 2 weeks on the day designated with the first payment
  477. If any indemnity payment is not made timely, as required, what happens?
    The amount of the late payment shall be increased by 10% and shall be paid without application, to the EE, unless the employer continues the EE's wages, under a salary continuation plan.
  478. No disability indemnity payment shall be made by any written instrument, unless:
    it is immediately negotiable and payable in cash, on demand, without discount at some established place of business in the state
  479. An insurer issues indemnity payments on a California Work Comp claim, using an Ohio bank.  This is:
    • A. Acceptable
    • B. Unacceptable
    • C. Grounds for a 4650 penalty
    • D. Acceptable, if the checks are immediately negotiable at some established place of business in the state.
  480. For purposes of calculating the waiting period, the day of the injury shall be included unless:
    the employee was paid full wages for that day
  481. An employee is injured December 1, 2007 and the injury is report by a co-worker, December 2nd.  On December 3rd, the employee returns a completed DWC-1.  On December 6th, the employee is seen by a physician who takes him off work until December 16th.  When does the waiting period begin?
    • A. December 1
    • B. December 2
    • C. December 3
    • D. December 6
  482. Aggregate disability payments for a single injury occurring on or after 1/1/1979, and prior to the effective date of subdivision (c), causing TPD shall not extend for more than ______ compensable weeks within a period of five years from the DOI.
    240
  483. Aggregate disability payment for a single injury occurring on or after 4/19/2004, causing TD, shall not extend for more than _______compensable weeks within a period of ______ years from the date of commencement of TD payment.
    104
  484. For an employee who suffers from the following injuries, or conditions, aggregate disability payments for a single injury occurring on or after the effective date of this subdivision, causing TD, shall not extend for more than 240 compensable weeks within a period of five years from the date of the injury:
    • 1- Acute a chronic hepatitis B
    • 2- Acute and chronic hepatitis c
    • 3- Amputations
    • 4- Severe burns
    • 5- Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
    • 6- High-velocity eye injuries
    • 7- Chemical burns to the eyes
    • 8- Pulmonary fibrosis
    • 9- Chronic lung disease
  485. SJDB - This section shall apply to injuries occurring on or after ________ and before ________.
    • January 1, 2004
    • January 1, 2013
  486. Except as provided in Section 4658.6, if the injury causes PPD and the injured employee does not return to work for the employer within 60 days of the termination of TD, the injured employee shall be eligible for a SJDB in the form of a non-transferable voucher for education-related re-training or skill enhancement, or both, at state-approved or accredited schools, as follows:
    • 1- Up to $4,000 for PPD Awards of less than 15%
    • 2- Up to $6,000 for PPD Awards between 15%and 25%
    • 3- Up to $8,000 for PPD Awards between 26% and 49%
    • 4- Up to $10,000 for PPD Awards between 50% and 99%
  487. If an employee has 11% in PD, what is the amount of SJDB?
    • A. $4,000
    • B. $6,000
    • C. $8,000
    • D. $10,000
  488. What is the amount of SJDB due for an injury in 2004 that caused PD of 25%?
    • A. $4,000
    • B. $6,000
    • C. $8,000
    • D. $10,000
  489. When any TTD indemnity payment is made two years or more from the DOI.......
    The amount of this payment shall be computed in in accordance with the TD indemnity average weekly earnings amount in effect on the date each TTD payment is made, unless computing the payment on this basis produces a lower payment because of a reduction in the minimum average weekly earnings.
  490. Any of the following PDs shall be conclusively presumed to be total in character:
    • 1- Loss of both eyes or the sight thereof
    • 2- Loss of both hands or the use thereof
    • 3- An injury resulting in a practically total paralysis
    • 4- An injury to the brain resulting in incurable imbecility or insanity

    In all other cases, Permanent Total Disability shall be determined in accordance with the facts
  491. What is apportionment of PD based on?
    Causation
  492. What is causation?
    What apportionment of PD is based on
  493. The death of an injured employee does not affect the liability of the employer.  Neither Temporary nor permanent disability payments shall be made for any period of time subsequent to the death of the employee.  Any accrued and unpaid compensation shall be paid to the ___________, or, if there are not dependents, to the ___________ of the deceased employee or heirs or other persons entitled thereto, without administration.
    • dependents
    • personal representative
  494. If an injury causes death, either with or without disability, the employer shall be liable, in addition to any other benefits provided by this division, for all of the following:
    • Reasonable expenses of the employee's burial, in accordance with the following:
    • 1- Up to $2,000 for injuries occurring prior to January 1, 1991
    • 2- Up to $5,000 for injuries occurring after January 1, 1991 and prior to January 1, 2013
    • 3- Up to $10,000 for injuries occurring on or after January 1, 2013
    • A death benefit, to be allowed to the dependents when the employee leaves any person dependent upon him or her for support
  495. What is the amount of the burial expense for an injury in 2007 resulting in death?
    • A. $1,500
    • B. $2,000
    • C. $5,000
    • D. $7,500
  496. If there are 2 total dependents, the partial dependents are......
    Out of luck
  497. In the case of 1 or more totally dependent minor children, after payment of the amount specified, payment of death benefits shall continue until the youngest child attains age 18, in the same manner and amount as TD would have been paid to the employee. For injuries on or after _____________.
    01/01/1990
  498. A spouse to whom a deceased employee is married at the time of death shall be conclusively presumed to be wholly dependent for support upon the deceased employee if the surviving spouse earned $30,000 or less during the 12 months preceding the death.  For injuries on or after __________.
    01/01/1990
  499. Death benefits are payable in installments in the same manner and amounts as _______________.
    TD indemnity
  500. Death from injury on or after 07/01/1996 for no total and 1 or more partial dependents, what is the pay out?
    4 times the annual support not to exceed $125,000
  501. Death from injury on or after 01/01/2006 for no total and 1 or more partial dependents, what is the pay out?
    8 times the annual support not to exceed $250,000
  502. If there is any person wholly dependent for support upon a deceased employee, that person shall receive a _______________.
    full death benefit
  503. If there are 2 or more persons wholly dependent for support upon a deceased employee, those persons shall receive the death benefit and any person partially dependent shall receive _______________.
    No part thereof
  504. Death Case Example:  DOI: 07/21/2006 Earnings $1,500/week Dependents: Spouse & 2 minor children ages 5 & 8.  What happens?
    2/3 of $1,500 is $1,000.  Death Benefit amount is $320,000.  Death benefits payable at $840/week for 381 weeks. Beginning 07/21/2008, rate increases to $916.33.  On 01/01/2009, rate increases to $958.01....and so on.
  505. In the case of one or more totally dependent minor children, after payment and notwithstanding the maximum limitations, payment of death benefits shall continue until......
    The youngest child attains age 18.  (No payment shall be made at a weekly rate of less than $224)
  506. A Notice of Employee Death shall be filed with the Administrative Director within ________ days, where the employee leaves no surviving minor children.
    • A. 14 days
    • B. 20 days
    • C. 30 days
    • D. 60 days
  507. An employee injures his right eye in 2001, resulting in blindness in the eye, and an award of 25% in PD.  In 2004, the employee injures the other eye while working for another employer, resulting in vision of 20/200 in the injured eye.  How should you reserve for the 2004 injury?
    • A. 25%
    • B. 100%
    • C. 100% less 25%
    • D. Notifiy the excess carrier
  508. An attorney for an injured employee requests that payments be sent to his office.  You should:
    • A. Get it in writing/Make payable to EE
    • B. It is illegal
    • C. Tell the AA it is an unacceptable practice
    • D. Make payments to the employee
  509. For an injury in 2007, what invokes the jurisdiction of the WCAB?
    • A. DWC-1
    • B. Letter of Representation
    • C. Declaration of Readiness to Proceed
    • D. Application of Adjudication of Claim
  510. The employer shall provide the employee with a DWC-1 claim form within:
    • A. 1 calendar day
    • B. 1 working day
    • C. 3 calendar days
    • D. 3 working days
  511. An employee is injured on Friday, January 10, 1992.  The injury is reported to a supervisor by another employee on January 12, 1992.  A claim form is filed by the employee on January 15, 1992.  What is the employer's DOK for purposes of Labor Code Section 5400?
    • A. DOI: 01/10/1992
    • B. DOK: 01/12/1992
    • C. DON: 01/15/1992
    • D. DOK: 01/15/1992
  512. An injured worker files a claim on 09/03/2007 with a DOI of 08/29/2007.  There is no documentation to support the injury and the IW was terminated May 30, 2007.  You should:
    • A. Deny the claim
    • B. Accept the claim
    • C. Delay and investigate
    • D. Close the file
  513. A nurse gets an F&A in April of 2002 for HIV.  She dies in May 2007.  A death case may be filed within.....
    One year from date of death
  514. You investigate an employee's claim of injury and issue a denial.  Just before the one year anniversary of the alleged injury, the employee meets with an I&A Office who takes the case under submission.  The Statute of Limitations:
    • A. Is tolled indefinitely
    • B. Is not tolled
    • C. Is tolled for the period of time the matter is under consideration and for 60 days after issuance of an I&A Offer recommendation
    • D. Is tolled for one year
  515. A Petition for Reconsideration must be filed within how many days of service of an F&A by the Work Comp Appeals Board?
    • A. 10 days
    • B. 20 days
    • C. 30 days
    • D. 45 days
  516. A Petition for Writ of Review must be filed within how many days after a Petition for Reconsideration is denied?
    • A. 20 days
    • B. 30 days
    • C. 45 days
    • D. 60 days
  517. A Petition for Writ of Review must be filed within _______ days after a Petition for Reconsideration is denied or, if a petition is granted within ________ days after the filing of the order, decition or award?
    • A. 20 days
    • B. 30 days
    • C. 45 days
    • D. 60 days
  518. What pain is not ratable?
    Minimal
  519. A DIA Form 510 in a death case must be filed unless the employer has actual knowledge that:
    • A. The deceased employee left a surviving minor child
    • B. The employee left a totally dependent spouse
    • C. The employee left a partially dependent spouse
    • D. The employee left a former spouse
  520. A Notice of Employee Death shall be filed within the Administrative Director within _____ days, where the employee left no surviving minor child:
    • A. 14 days
    • B. 20 days
    • C. 30 days
    • D. 60 days
  521. The first payment of PD indemnity shall be considered late if not made within _______________ , or within ___________.
    • 14 days after the last payment of TD indemnity
    • 14 days of knowledge of the existence of PD, which ever last occurs.
  522. Adjusting Location is the office address designated in accordance with Section 15402 of these regulations where:
    • 1- The named administrator of the self insurer fulfills his/her function
    • 2- The original records called for in Article 9 of these regulations are maintained
  523. Who is the Administrative Director?
    The Administrative Director of the DWC within the DIR
  524. Who is the Independent Contractor?
    An independent contractor possesses a certificate to administer and designated by a self-insurer to be the administrative agency for all or a portion of its claims
  525. What is a partnership or corporation?
    Possesses a master certificate to self insure, which administers its own claims and the claims of other affiliate or subsidiary self insurers issued affiliate or subsidiary certificates to self insure under the same master certificate number
  526. What is a Joint Powers Authority?
    Possesses a master certificate to self insure, which self administers in whole or part of the claims of its affiliate public self insurers issued affiliate certificates to self insure under the same master certificate number of the joint powers authority
  527. What is a Claim File?
    A separate case file containing all pertinent documents and matters relating to a specific or companion work-injury claim.  The claim file contents are specified in Section 15400 of these regulations
  528. An injury occurs in late December, but it's not reported until January of the next year.  In which claim log is the injury recorded?
    • A. The year in which it occurred
    • B. The year in which it is reported
    • C. The fiscal year in which the injury occurred
    • D. The fiscal year in which the injury was reported
  529. What is a Claim Log?
    A manual or electronic listing of Work Comp claims maintained by the self insurer or administrative agency for the self insurer.  The claim log for private self insurers shall list each work injury claim by the calendar year, in which the claim was reported to the employer or the claims administrator, whichever first occurred.  The log for public self insurers shall list each work injury claim by the fiscal year in which the claim was reported. 
  530. What is an Indemnity Claim?
    • A work-injury case which has or may result in any of the following benefits:
    • 1- TD or salary in lieu thereof
    • 2- PD
    • 3- Life Pension
    • 4- Death Benefits
    • 5- Vocational Rehabilitation
  531. What is a Medical Only claim?
    A work-injury case which does not result in compensable lost time but results in medical treatment beyond first aid
  532. Who is Manager?
    The Manager, Office of Self-Insurance Plans, in the DIR
  533. A medical only claim is:
    • A. An injury requiring first aid treatment only
    • B. An injury requiring one doctor visit and one follow-up visit
    • C. An injury with no indemnity payments
    • D. An injury with no lost time beyond the DOI
  534. What is an Application?
    Application forms for individual Certificates of Consent to Self-Insure and other required self insurance forms are available on the website of the Office of Self Insurance Plans at sip.dir.ca.gov. Every employer desiring to procure an initial, individual private or public certificate to self insure its work comp liabilities shall make application on certain forms.
  535. Upon the receipt of a complete private individual employer application, the applicant will be notified within _____ days of the Director's decision to allow or deny self insurance or to advise that the application is deficient.
    45
  536. Upon receipt of a complete public entity application, the applicant will be notified within ____days of approval or denial of application.
    30
  537. How long does Self-Insurance Plans have to notify you that your application for self insurance is deficient?
    • A. 10 days
    • B. 14 days
    • C. 20 days
    • D. 30 days
  538. Each individual private self insurer holding an active or revoked Certificate of Consent to Self Insure, shall submit annually to Manager, two copies of the employer's ___________ complete with all notes and schedules.
    current, certified, independently audited financial statement
  539. After _________, all private individual employer applicants for a master Certificate of Consent to Self Insure, shall demonstrate and maintain a current net worth of at least $___________ and average net income for the preceding 5 years of at least $___________.
    • $5,000,000.00
    • $500,000
  540. You are applying for a master certificate after July 1, 1994.  What is the amount of net worth and net income needed to qualify for self-insurance?
    • A. 2,220,000 net worth and $220,000 earnings in the past year
    • B. $5,000,000 net worth and $500,000 earnings in the past year
    • C. $5,000,000 net worth and average net income for the past 5 years of at least $500,000
    • D. $7,500,000 net worth and $700,000 net income in the past year
  541. Once an employer has initiated a self-insurance program, the employer's certificate to self-insure is:
    • A. Irrevocable in California
    • B. Valid for other jurisdictions
    • C. Valid until revoked by the Director
    • D. Renewed annually by the Director
  542. The Certificate of Consent to Self Insure for a public or individual private employer shall be initially valid for ________ after the date of approval by the Director.  If the self insurer has not initiated its self insurance program within the initial _______ period, the approval of the certificate to self-insure shall be void and a new application shall be filed for approval.
    six months
  543. A public or individual private self insured employer shall notify the Manager in writing within ______days of any of the following actions:
    • 30 days
    • Any amendment to the self insurer's articles, charter, or agreement of incorporation, association, or co-partnership which changes its identity or business structure or ownership in a material manner from the status as it existed at the time of issuance of its Certificate of Consent to Self Insure or If the self insurer proposes to cease doing business entirely, proposes to cease doing business in California, or proposes to dispose of, by sale or otherwise, the controlling interest of the business for which the Certificate of Consent to Self Insure was issued.
  544. Reapplication to the Director for a Certificate of Consent to Self Insure is required if an employer:
    • A. Fails to initiate a self-insurance program within three months.
    • B. Fails to initiate a self-insurance program within six months
    • C. Fails to initiate a self-insurance program within nine months
    • D. File a late annual report
  545. You do not have to notify the Manager of a change in status where:
    • A. The self-insurer proposes to cease doing business in California
    • B. The self insurer changes ownership
    • C. The self-insurer has a change in minority shareholders
    • D. The self-insurer has a material change in management
  546. The minimum required security deposit for existing, private self insurers shall be equal to:
    135% of the individual private self insurer's estimated future liabilities for the payment of compensation for known claims and An amount posted in advance for liabilities of the current year, consisting of the average annual estimated future liability over the past five years reported on the Self Insurer's Annual Report
  547. The security deposit requirement of each individual private self insured employer shall be reviewed by the _____________ at least annually.  This deposit posting is due no later than _________ of each year.
    • Manager
    • May 1
  548. As part of the revocation of a Certificate to Self Insure, the Manager shall determine the need for a special revocation audit of the claims of any individual private self insurer and the need for ____________________.
    a deposit adjustment to secure future liabilities of the revoked private self insurer.
  549. Any public self insurer or individual private self insurer shall be permitted to insure _______part of its liability to secure the payment of compensation with a standard work comp insurance policy issued by a carrier. _______ coverage of a self insurer's work comp liability under a standard work comp insurance policy shall be _____________ for revocation of the certificate to self insure.
    • any
    • good cause
  550. All public self insurers and individual private self insurers shall provide the Manager with:
    Information on any standard work comp insurance policies, specific excess work comp insurance coverage, and any aggregate excess (stop loss) work comp insurance coverage carried.
  551. Any individual private self insurer who elects to purchase an aggregate work comp excess policy shall not be given any credit by the manager toward the security deposit to be posted due to:
    aggregate excess insurance coverage.
  552. The employer has an aggregate excess (stop loss) work comp policy.  Does the employer receive credit against the security deposit?
    • A. No
    • B. Yes
    • C. No, aggregate excess is not legal
    • D. Yes, aggregate excess is legal
  553. For allocation of the Security Deposit for Private Individual Self-Insurers, Section 189 of the California Corporations Code shall be used to define _______________and _____________.
    • Subsidiary Corporation
    • Holding Corporation
  554. The _______ may require certification or other proof of stock ownership of the self-insured subsidiary corporation or corporations before allowing a self insurer to be included in the deposit of another self insurer.
    Manager
  555. Where the manager has required an increase in a security deposit due to the impaired financial status of an individual private self insurer and the self insurer wishes to appeal the manager's decision, upon receipt of the written appeal, the Manager shall order a detailed, third-party financial evaluation of the self insurer in order to determine the employer's financial strength.  Such a third party financial evaluation shall include, but no be limited to a _________________.  The cost of the third party financial evaluation report shall be paid by the ______________.
    • Dun & Bradstreet Risk Assessment Report
    • Self-Insurer
  556. Securities issued by the self insurer or its subsidiaries, or its affiliated companies or parent companies, shall not
    be accepted for that particular self insurer's security deposit.
  557. The Manager shall value approved securities at __________ or __________ value, whichever is less.
    • par
    • market
  558. The Manager shall post the Annual Report form along with instructions for completing the form and showing the years to be reported on the website of the Office of Self Insurance Plans at sip.dir.ca.gov. Each self-insurer shall file a Self-Insurer's Annual Report on forms supplied by the Manager as follows:
    • * For private self insurers, individual or with a group, the report shall be filed on or before March 1 of each year and shall include:
    • 1- General Information
    •     a) Certificate to Self-Insure number, status of certificate, and period of report
    •     b) Name & address of master certificate holder, state of incorporation, federal tax ID number, and first 4 digits of North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)
    •     c) List of all subsidiaries or affiliate companies that are covered by the master certificate to self insure, their state of incorporation, and their subsidiary/affiliate certificate number.
    •     d) Notification of any reincorporation, merger, change in name or identity or any additions to the self-insurance program by the master certificate holder or any subsidiary/affiliate company during the reporting period
    •     e. Name & address of person to whom all correspondence related to self-insurance should be addressed
    •     f) Employment and wages paid in that calendar year as reported to EDD on the employer's Form DE-6 Quarterly Report
  559. A Liabilities by Reporting Location report shall be submitted by each claims administrator administering claims for the said self insurer and shall include:
    • 1- All claims  reported on or before December 31 of each of the five prior calendar years (Jan 1 through Dec 31), showing indemnity and medical payments grouped as incurred liability, paid to date and future liability.
    • 2- All open claims reported prior to the five years shall also be report, but in a single line entry
    • 3- For the reporting year of the annual report the total of indemnity and medical future liability, the total estimated future liability of claims, the total benefits paid, number of medical only cases reported; number of fatality cases, number of claims for which the employer or administrator was notified of representation by an attorney or legal representative in the reporting year, and a number of new applications for adjudication received for any claims that year.
    • 4- Total number of open indemnity cases in all years
    • 5- Name, address & Certificate to Administer number of the self insurer's claims administrator
    • 6- A certification by the qualified claims administrator that the report is true, correct, and complete with respect to the work cop liabilities incurred and paid
  560. Open Indemnity Claims Information is a list of all open indemnity claims by reporting location by year, and alphabetically within each year.  The list shall:
    • A- Show the name of each claimant, DOI, description of injury, amount of benefits paid-to-date in indemnity and medical payments and estimated future liability of claim for indemnity and medical benefits.
    • B- Show any open claim reported to the carrier of a specific excess insurance policy, and for which the carrier has not denied in writing the claim liability in whole or part above the retention level of the policy.
  561. Deposit Calculation Information-
    A Deposit Calculation which includes the estimated future liability from the Liabilities Report multiplied by the deposit rate factor to determine a minimum deposit required for known liabilities.  The specific excess credit shall not exceed $500,000 per occurrence unless the excess carrier or its parent company has, as of December 31 of the last year covered by the Self Insurer's Annual Report, an acceptable credit rating as set forth below:
    • 1- Standard and Poors Insurer Financial Strength Rating of A or better rating
    • or
    • 2- A.M. best Company, Financial Strength Rating of B+ or better rating.
  562. Company Officer Certification Information: For all public self insurers, whether or not a member of a joint powers authority, the report shall be filed by _______ of each year to cover liabilities  during the July 1 - June 30 fiscal year and shall include:
    • 1- General Information  
    •     a) Name and address of master certificate holder
    •     b) Agency name and certificate numbers of all of the joint powers authority's members
    •     c) A certification by the individual public agency or joint powers authority official that the report is true, correct and complete
    •     d) Notification of any reincorporation, merger, change in name or identity or any additions to the self-insurance program by the master certificate holder or any subsidiary/affiliate company during the reporting period, and identification of any employees not included in the self insurance program
    •     e) Name and address of person to whom all correspondence related to self insurance should be addressed
    •     f) Employment and wages paid in that fiscal year as reported to EDD on the employer's Form DE-6 Quarterly Report
    • 2- Liability Report and Administrator Information.  A Liabilities Report which shall include:
    •     a) All claims reported shall be on a fiscal year basis with all claims report on or before Jun 30 of each of the five prior fiscal years, showing indemnity and medical payments grouped as incurred liability, paid to date and future liability
    •     b) All open claims reported prior to the five years shall also be reported; but in a single line entry
    •     c) Each Joint Powers Authorities (JPA) shall report the consolidated liabilities of all members of the JPA on one Liabilities Report
    •     d) A Liabilities by Reporting Location Report shall be completed in full for each claims adjusting location in addition to the consolidated report totaling liabilities from all locations.
    •     e) For an JPA, one list of all open indemnity claims may be consolidated into a single listing for the entire JPA, as long as the individual JPA member is identified for each claim
    • 3- Claims Information for each year shall meet the requirements for subsection (b), except that no deposit calculation page shall be submitted as required for private self insurers
  563. The Manager may, for good cause, require any self-insurer to submit a Self Insurer's Annual Report covering a ________ interim period, in addition to the annual report
    six month
  564. For private self insurers, interim reports, when required, shall cover the period starting ________ through _______________ and shall be due on ____________ of each year.
    • Jan 1 - Dec 31
    • March 1
  565. Every self insurer must file a Self-Insurer's Annual Report on forms supplied by the Director.  The report is to be filed on or before:
    • A. January 1 for private self-insurers and July 1 for public self-insurers
    • B. March 1 for public self-insurers and October 1 for private self-insurers
    • C. March 1 for private self-insurers and October 1 for public self-insurers
    • D. None of the above
  566. What should be included on the Annual Report?
    • A. Fatalities
    • B. Closed medical only claims
    • C. Vocational Rehabilitation cases
    • D. Excess carrier claims
  567. The administrator shall set a realistic estimate of future liability for each indemnity claim listed on the self-insurer's annual report based on computations which reflect the probable total future cost of compensation and medical benefits due or that can reasonably expected to be due over the life of the claim.  Estimated future liabilities listed on the annual report must represent the ____________ for the injury or disease based in information documented as in possession of the administrator at the ending date of the period of time covered by the annual report.
    probable total future cost of compensation
  568. In estimating future PD costs, where there are conflicting PD ratings, the estimate shall be based on the higher rating, unless:
    there is sufficient evidence in the claim file to support a lower estimate
  569. In estimating FM costs where the IW's injury has not reached MMI or P&S status, the estimate shall be based on:
    projected costs for the total anticipated period of treatment throughout the life of the claim
  570. In estimating FM costs where the IW's injury has reach MMI or P&S status, the estimate shall be based on:
    the average costs over the past three years since the injury reached MMI or P&S
  571. Estimates of future liability shall not be decreased based on projected third-party recoveries or projected reimbursements from:
    aggregate excess insurance
  572. An IW incurred $600 in medical in 2004, $1,200 in 2005, and $800 in 2006.  How would you reserve for medical expense?
    • A. $   800 a year
    • B. $   870 a year
    • C. $1,000 a year
    • D. $1,200 a year
  573. Transfer of Claim Liabilities: Self-Insured work comp claim liabilities cannot be transferred to another entity without:
    first applying for and receiving permission from the Director
  574. For work injuries occurring prior to ______________, every self insurer shall keep a claim file, including those claims which were denied.  Said claim file shall contain (but not be limited to):
    • January 1, 1990
    • * Employer's Report of Occupation Injury
    • * Every report made to the Administrative Director
    • * Doctor's First Report of Occupational Injury or Illness
    • * Every subsequent relevant medical report
    • * All applicable orders of the WCAB
    • * A record of payment of compensation
  575. For injuries reported on or after ___________, each self-administering, self-insurer, and claims administrative agency shall maintain a claim file for each indemnity and medical-only claim, including denied claims, and shall ensure that each file is complete and current for each claim.  Contents of claim files may be in hard copy, in electronic form, or some combination of the two.  Files maintained in hard copy shall be:
    in chronological order with the most recently dated documents on top
  576. All claim files shall be kept and maintained for a period of ________ years from the date of _______ or from the date on which the last provision of compensation benefits occurred.
    • five
    • injury
  577. Claim files with awards for future benefits shall not be destroyed, but ________ years after the date of the last provision of Work Comp benefits, they may be converted to an inactive or closed status by the ________, but only of there is no:
    • * two
    • * administrator
    • * reasonable expectation that future benefits will be claimed or provided
  578. You have assumed the responsibilities of a third-party administrator.  While auditing the files, you discover that there are missing indemnity files.  You should:
    • A. Contact Self-Insurance Plans and ask for assistance
    • B. Contact the prior administrator and inform the employer
    • C. Contact the Administrative Director and request an audit
    • D. Contact the I&A Office and ask for assistance
  579. For expenses of out-of-state-audit, the audit of any self insurer shall be at the expense of the _________.
    self-insurer
  580. Certificate to Self-Insure or Certificate to Administer & Continuing Jurisdiction/Compliance with Statutes and Regulatory Requirements - Failure to comply with these statutes governing administration of self-insurance or with these regulations, may be good cause for:
    Revocation of a Certificate to Self-Insure or Certificate to Administer or other action by the Director
  581. Continuing Jurisdiction: After revocation of a certificate to self-insure, the Director's jurisdiction over work injuries sustained during the period of self-insurance, shall continue until:
    all liabilities and all responsibilities have been terminated in accordance with law.
  582. Certificate to Administer: A valid Certificate to Administer, issued by the _______, shall be in the possession of each claims administrator, whether a person, firm, corporation, joint powers authority, or self-insured employer, to administer or adjust work comp self-insurance claims.
    • Manager
  583. Each private self-insurer granted in initial, individual Certificate to Self-Insure work comp liabilities that has not been self-insured or previously self-insured for a total of 3 full years, shall:
    contract with a 3rd party claims administrator for the 1st 3 full calendar years of self-insurance.
  584. Each private group self-insurer, granted its initial Certificate to Self-Insure work comp liabilities, shall:
    contract with a third party administrator for the first 5 full calendar years of self-insurance
  585. Each self-insurer or third party administrative agency shall conduct the administration of each self-insurance program through the services of a competent person or persons located in California.  What are the exceptions?
    • 1- Upon a showing of good cause, the Manager may authorize administration from locations outside California by an administrator with staff who has demonstrated individual competence
    • 2- The Manager shall not authorize claims administration outside of the State of California for any private group self-insurer.
  586. Any person may demonstrate individual competence as an administrator for a self-administered self-insurer or an agency administered self-insurance program by:
    successfully passing the written examination designed to test technical knowledge of work comp law and claims administration
  587. For Notification of Willful Failure to Pay Benefits: The claims administrator shall:
    notify the Manager in writing within 3 days
  588. abduction
    Lateral movement of a part of the body, usually the shoulder or hip, away from the body
  589. acetabulum
    Hip socket
  590. adduction
    Movement of the hop toward the body
  591. aorta
    Largest artery of the body
  592. aphakia
    Loss of natural lens of the eye
  593. aphasia
    Inability to express, write, or understand once familiar language, terms, or objects
  594. artery, pulmonary
    The artery which carries blood from the heart to the lungs
  595. arthritis
    Inflammation of a joint
  596. arthrodesis
    Surgical fixation of a joint
  597. arthroplasty
    Surgical repair of a joint
  598. atrophy
    Wasting away due to lack of us
  599. bucket-handle tear
    Tear of the medical meniscus of the knee
  600. calcaneus
    Heel bone; also "os calcis"
  601. calcis
    "os calcis", calcaneus
  602. calf atrophy
    Two inches of calf atrophy is considered equivalent to disability resulting from a moderate instability of the ankle joint, using the 1997 PD Rating Schedule
  603. cardiovascular
    Pertaining to the heart
  604. carpal tunnel syndrome
    Numbness, weakness, and pain in the hand, due to compression of the median nerve at the wrist
  605. chronic
    Persisting for a long time
  606. clavicle
    Collarbone
  607. coccyx
    Tailbone
  608. coloboma
    An irregular pupil
  609. conjunctivitis
    Inflammation of the lining of the eye
  610. coronary
    Pertaining to the heart
  611. diplopia
    Double vision
  612. disc
    Disk; an intervertebral disk
  613. discectomy
    Removal of a disk
  614. distal
    Generally refers to a joint of the finger farthest from the point of attachment
  615. dorsal
    Thoracic; pertaining to the back
  616. Dupuytren's Contracture
    An involuntary flexion contracture of the fingers of the hand; usually the ring and little finger.  A sever case involves more fingers and more contracture
  617. dorsiflexion
    Backward flexion or bending of the foot or hand
  618. dsyspnea
    Labored or difficulty in bending foot
  619. ectropion
    The turning outward (eversion) of the eyelid
  620. edema
    Swelling caused by body tissues retaining an excessive amount of fluid
  621. entropion
    The turning inward (inversion) of the eyelid
  622. enucleation
    Loss of an eye
  623. eversion
    Turning outward; such as the ankle
  624. evisceration
    The surgical removal of the eye
  625. excise
    To remove surgically
  626. extenstion
    The stretching or straightening of a limb, which is contracted; opposite of flexion
  627. femur
    The thigh bone
  628. fibromyalgia
    Chronic widespread pain in muscles, soft tissues and secondary joints, accompanied by fatigue
  629. fibula
    The smaller of the two lower leg bones.  It bears relatively little of the body's weight
  630. flexion
    Act of bending or being bent; opposite of extension
  631. fusion
    Surgical fixation of two levels of the spine to limit motion
  632. ganglion cyst
    A knot; usually on the back of the wrist
  633. hearing loss
    Loss of 92 decibels at 500, 1000, 2000, & 3000 Hertz shall be considered total loss (1997 PD Rating Schedule)
  634. heart attack
    Term used to describe myocardial infarction
  635. himoptysis
    The expectoration of blood or blood-stained sputum
  636. humerus
    The bone of the upper arm
  637. Colles fracture
    Fracture of a distal end of the radius with outward displacement of the radius
  638. comminuted fracture
    Fracture in which the bone is broken or splintered in two or more pieces
  639. compound fracture
    Fracture in which the bone is broken and bone extends through the skin
  640. Doheny fracture
    multiple finger fracture
  641. fatigue fracture
    A fracture attributed to the strain of repetitive use or overuse
  642. greenstick fracture
    Incomplete fracture in which the bone is partly bent and partly broken
  643. impacted fracture
    Fracture in which one bone fragment is wedged into the interior of another fragment
  644. linear fracture
    A crack in a bone which does not break the bone into pieces
  645. longitudinal fracture
    Fracture in which the fracture line is lengthwise on the bone
  646. oblique fracture
    Fracture in which the fracture line slats across the bone
  647. Pott's fracture
    Fracture of the lower part of the fibula and tibia just above the ankle.  The most commonly  encountered fracture above the ankle
  648. simple fracture
    Fracture in which there is no external wound
  649. spiral fracture
    Fracture in which a bone is broken completely through, crosswise
  650. transverse fracture
    Fracture extending from side to side
  651. hyperextension
    Extreme or abnormal extension
  652. hypertension
    High blood pressure
  653. illum
    The hip bone
  654. (complete) immobility of the finger(s)
    Failure of the tip of the finger to touch the mid-palm on active flexion by 3 inches or more (1997 PD Rating Schedule, Footnote 25)
  655. lacrimal bone
    Smallest and most fragile bone of the face, near the eye
  656. lacrimation (chronic)
    Overflow of tears
  657. laminectomy
    Removal of a disc from the spine
  658. latissimus dorsi
    Large muscle of the back
  659. ligament
    Fibrous tissue that connects the joint ends of bones or cartilage, serving to support and strengthen joints
  660. lordosis
    Forward curvature of the spine
  661. loss of sight (complete)
    Reduction in vision to 20/200 or less, using the 1997 PD Schedule
  662. malocclusion
    Misalignment of the jaw
  663. mastication
    The process of chewing food prior to swallowing
  664. medial
    Pertaining to the middle of the body
  665. median nerve
    Nerve in the wrist associated with carpal tunnel syndrome
  666. metacarpus
    The five metacarpals are collectively known as the metacarpus
  667. matacarpals
    The five bones of the palm of the hand
  668. metatarsal
    The bones of the foot between the ankle and toes
  669. myocardial infarction
    Heart attack
  670. navicular
    One of the tarsal bones of the foot
  671. naviicular bone of the hand
    One of the carpal bones of the wrist (also scaphoid bone)
  672. neuritis
    Inflammation of a nerve
  673. nucleus pulposus
    Gelatinous like substance of an intervertebral disc
  674. olecranan
    The bony projection of the ulna at the elbow
  675. orthoscopy
    Examination of the eye with a scope
  676. os calcis
    Heel bone; calcaneus, calcis
  677. osteorarthritis
    The most common type of arthritis; degenerative arthritis; joint disease
  678. otitis media
    Inflammation of the middle ear
  679. palmarflexion of wrist
    Flexion (bending) of the wrist toward the palm
  680. parasthesia
    An abnormal touch sensation such as burning, prickling, or numbness
  681. patella
    The kneecap; loss of the patella is a 5% absolute in the 1997 PD Rating Schedule
  682. plantar flexion of ankle
    Flexion of the ankle toward the sole of the foot
  683. prebycusis
    Hearing loss due to aging
  684. To rotate the forearm so the palm is facing downward
  685. proximal
    Nearest the point of attachment; opposite of distal
  686. pulmonary
    Pertaining to the lungs
  687. radiculopathy
    Radiating pain to the part of the body served by that nerve, often arms or legs
  688. radius
    The outer bone of the forearm, on the side of the thumb
  689. radial deviation of the wrist
    Lateral movement of hand toward the radius (thumb)
  690. radial head
    End of the radius at the elbow; loss of the head of the radius is a 5% absolute using the 1997 PD Schedule
  691. scapula
    Shoulder blade
  692. scaphoid bone
    One of the carpal bones of the wrist; aka navicular bone of the hand
  693. sciatica
    Pain in the leg along the course of the sciatic nerve at the back of the thigh, down the inside of the leg
  694. sciatic nerve
    The largest nerve in the body; it originates in the spine and goes all the way down to the bottom of the foot
  695. scoliosis
    Curvature (lateral) of the spine
  696. silicosis
    A pulmonary injury resulting from inhalation of free silica dust
  697. spondylisis
    Degenerative osteoarthritis of the joints of the vertebrae
  698. sprain
    A tear, rupture, or marked stretching of a muscle or joint
  699. sternum
    The breastbone
  700. supination
    To rotate the forearm so the palm faces upward
  701. synovial
    Fluid found in a joint
  702. thigh atrophy
    Two inches of thigh atrophy is considered equivalent to a disability resulting from a moderate instability of the knee joint (1997 PD Rating Schedule, Footnote 43)
  703. tibia
    The weight-bearing and larger bone of the lower leg
  704. tinnitus
    Ringing in the ears
  705. trapezius
    Large muscle of the neck and upper back
  706. ulna
    The larger of the two bones of the forearm; the one on the side of the little finger
  707. ulnar deviation of wrist
    Lateral movement of the wrist toward the ulna (little finger)
  708. vetigo
    Dizziness
  709. vertebra
    The bony segments of the spinal column; there are 33 total vertebrae
  710. zygoma
    The cheek bone
  711. What is the rating for a 30 year old heavy furniture assembler with a soft tissue injury to the cervical spine, causing a loss of range of motion, resulting in an 8% impairment standard?
    • A. 9%
    • B. 11%
    • C. 15%
    • D. 19%
  712. What is the rating for a 40 year old forester with an elbow injury, resulting in loss of motion and a 50% UE impairment?
    • A. 25%
    • B. 28%
    • C. 31%
    • D. 40%
  713. A 47 year old actor has a chemical burn to an UE producing a cosmetic disfigurement, resulting in a 5% WPI. What is the rating?
    • A. 0%
    • B. 5%
    • C. 11%
    • D. 13%
  714. a 27 year old chemist has a chemical burn to the eye in 2010, producing a 14% WPI.  What is the rating?
    • A. 14%
    • B. 15%
    • C. 19%
    • D. 21%
  715. A 100% UE impairment is what percentage of a WPI?
    • A. 20%
    • B. 50%
    • C. 60%
    • D. 75%
  716. For an injury in 2005, what is the max permissible add-on for subjectives?
    • A. None
    • B. 3 percent
    • C. 5 percent
    • D. Whatever is called for by the examining physician
  717. In 2004, an employee becomes P&S for a bilateral loss of vision injury.  How is the disability rated?
    • A. Ratings are based on vision with best practicable correction
    • B. Whichever eye rates highest, is used
    • C. Ratings are based on uncorrected vision
    • D. The standard rating shall be based on disability found under reduction of vision plus half the difference between disabilities 2.4 and 2.3
  718. What is the least amount of loss of motion of a finger that is ratable, using the 1997 Schedule?
    • A. Barely touching
    • B. Half inch
    • C. One inch
    • D. 3 inches or more
  719. What is the rating for immobility of the hop where the arc of motion is 0 to 60 degrees?
    • A. 10%
    • B. 23%
    • C. 30%
    • D. 40%
  720. When both instability and thigh atrophy are present, what is the rating?
    • A. The rating for the instability
    • B. The rating for the thigh atrophy
    • C. All of the rating for the greatest disability and approximately one-half of the lesser disability
    • D. The disability producing the greater rating, only
  721. A cardiac condition, results in a preclusion from heaving lifting.  What is the scheduled rating?
    • A. 10%
    • B. 15%
    • C. 20%
    • D. 25%
  722. In 2004, the employee has an injury to the knee.  There is no loss for motion, no instability, and no thigh atrophy.  The employee has to wear a stretch knee brace.  What is the standard rating?
    • A. 0%
    • B. 7%
    • C. 10%
    • D. 15%
  723. An IW with dependents is incarcerated for an unrelated offense.  TD otherwise payable is:
    • A. Paid
    • B. Paid to the IW
    • C. Paid to the IW's dependents
    • D. Paid to the State Treasury to the credit of the Uninsured Employer's Fund
  724. What is the maximum TD rate for an injury in 2006?
    • A. $490
    • B. $602
    • C. $728
    • D. $840
  725. An IW works 40 hours/week and earns $16/hr.  He has a 2nd job working 20 hours/wk and earns $12/hr.  If he is unable to work both jobs, what is the TD rate for an injury in 2008 that occurs on the $16/hr job?
    • A. 426.67
    • B. 480.00
    • C. 586.67
    • D. 880.00
  726. What benefits should NOT be considered when calculating average weekly earnings?
    • A. Tips
    • B. Wages
    • C. Medical benefits
    • D. Overtime
  727. What is NOT considered indemnity?
    • A. Litigation expense
    • B. PD
    • C. Medical
    • D. Vocational Rehabilitation
  728. When is the first payment of TD due?
    • A. No later than 5 days after KOI and disability
    • B. No later than 7 days after KOI and disability
    • C. No later than 14 days after KOI and disability
    • D. No later than 21 days after KOI and disability
  729. What is the TD rate for a baker with earnings of $1,400/wk, for a DOI 05/01/2007?
    • A. $840.00
    • B. $881.66
    • C. $916.33
    • D. $933.33
  730. An employee is injured at work and sent home.  He is off the next day and sees a Dr. two days after the injury.  Three says after the injury, he is hospitalized.  When does the waiting period start?
    • A. 3 days after the injury
    • B. 2 days after the injury
    • C. 1 day after the injury
    • D. The date of the injury
  731. Aggregate disability payments for a single injury in 2006, causing TD, shall not extend for more than:
    • A. 104 weeks from the commencement of TD
    • B. 104 weeks from the DOI
    • C. 240 weeks from the commencement of TD
    • D. 240 weeks from the DOI
  732. A chef with average weekly earnings of $650 is injured on 05/16/200.  After a period of TD, he returns to work, part-time, earning $220 per week.  What is the correct TD rate?
    • A. $286.67
    • B. $336
    • C. $430
    • D. $490
  733. The IW is a maximum earner for an injury on 07/01/2005. You are making a payment of TD in August of 2007.  What is the correct TD rate?
    • A. Maximum TD for an injury in 2007
    • B. $840.00
    • C. Maximum TD for an injury in 2007
    • D. TD computed in accordance w/the TD rate in effect on the date of payment
  734. An employee breaks his leg while working in 2010 and has 10 weeks of TTD.  He is a maximum earner, recovers fully, and has no PD.  How do you reserve this claim?
    • A. $6,000
    • B. $7,500
    • C. $9,900
    • D. $16,000
  735. You receive an Employer's First Report of Injury (5020), but accurate weekly wages can NOT be determined.  How do you determine the TD rate?
    • A. Pay minimum TD
    • B. Pay maximum TD
    • C. Delay payment of TD and request a Wage Statement
    • D. Average actual weekly earnings and pay TD accordingly.
  736. The examiner received a phone call from the treating doctor's office, advising the IW is released to RTW on June 3.  The examiner failed to document the file, but cut off TD.  The employee does not RTW until June 14.  The examiner subsequently receives a call from the IW's supervisor, wanting to know why the IW has not been paid through June 14.  You should:
    • A. Call the doctor's office and verify the RTW date
    • B. Pay the amount due with a SII penalty of 10%
    • C. Begin paying at the correct rate
    • D. Begin paying at the correct rate plus 10%, for the unreasonable delay
  737. A seasonal employee works six months a year and is a maximum earner.  While not working, he is a minimum earner.  What is the TD rate out-of-season?
    • A. Minimum
    • B. Maximum
    • C. Two-thirds of average weekly earnings
    • D. Two-thirds of average annual earnings from all  employment
  738. The employer provides a Wage Statement for the IW, showing irregular earnings.  What is the correct TD rate?
    • A. Two-thirds of earnings the week of injury
    • B. Minimum TD
    • C. Maximum TD
    • D. Actual weekly earnings averaged for this period of time, times two-thirds
  739. A nursing student working part-time, 20 hours/wk, earns $10/hr.  Upon graduation, her hours increase to 40 hours/wk.  She is promised a raise to $1,000/wk after receiving her nursing certificate.  She has an injury in 2005, while working part-time, but graduates, completes, and passes the exam.  She receives her nursing certificate.  Her TD rate is:
    • A. $133.33 while part-time, $266.67 after she graduates, and $666.67 after receiving her nursing certificate
    • B. $200 while part-time, $266.67 after she graduates, and $666.67 after receiving her nursing certificate
    • C. Who cares
    • D. $200 while part-time and $266.67 after graduation
  740. The IW contracts Hepatitis C from a blood transfusion during surgery, for a work related injury.  You are responsible for additional:
    • A. TD and PD
    • B. Nothing, the Hepatitis C is not work related
    • C. Medical treatment for the Hepatitis C
    • D. The compensable consequences of the Hepatitis C
  741. The IW earns $2,000/wk, working 6 months per year and collects EDD benefits the rest of the year.  He returns to work and is injured on his first day back.  The correct TTD rate is:
    • A. $840
    • B. $881.66
    • C. Max TTD
    • D. Max TD during the season and $666.67 out of season
  742. An employee's husband comes to where she works and shoots her, as a result of a marital dispute.  The injury is:
    • A. Not compensable because it didn't arise out of the employment
    • B. Not compensable because it did not occur in the course of employment
    • C. Compensable because it arose out of the employment
    • D. Compensable because it occurred in the course of employment
  743. An employee whose diabetes is out of control, clocks out at 3pm.  Before leaving, the company parking lot, he faints and falls, fracturing his elbow.  You should:
    • A. Pay for the treatment for the fracture and pay for the treatment for the diabetes so that the fracture can heal
    • B. Pay just for the fracture
    • C. Deny the claim because it occurred after work
    • D. Deny the claim because it is not work-related
  744. What is the role of the investigator assigned to pursue issues of compensability?
    • A. Determine all the facts
    • B. Determine proof of claim being fraudulent
    • C. Determine compensability from all facts gathered
    • D. Determine if benefits are due to the IW
  745. An accountant took work home for an annual report.  The IW left work at the normally appointed hour and was not reimbursed for mileage.  The IW was injured in an automobile accident at an intersection, one block from home.  His supervisor calls to tell you they found paperwork for the end-of-the-year report in his briefcase, in the car.  You should:
    • A. Accept as an exception to the going and coming rule
    • B. Delay and investigate
    • C. Deny
    • D. Close the case
  746. An employee is injured at the place of employment, when he burns himself in the kitchen, while cleaning up after a meeting with other employees and his supervisor.  The injury would not have happened if the IW had not been drinking with other employees during the meeting.
    • A. The injury is compensable because the drinking was condoned by the employee's supervisor
    • B. The injury is not compensable because attendance at the meeting was voluntary
    • C. The injury is compensable because attendance at the meeting was not voluntary
    • D. The injury is compensable because the consumption of alcohol occurred during working hours
  747. An employee is in the break room, drinking vodka.  A conveyor falls, seriously hurting him and the Dr. at the hospital says the IW was intoxicated.  You should:
    • A. Accept the claim
    • B. Deny the claim
    • C. Obtain a copy of the blood alcohol report and deny the claim
    • D. Deny the claim due to intoxication
  748. A high school teacher is leaving for the day. The school district provides parking for her in a district-owned lot.  The school is located in a bad neighborhood.  The teacher pulls out of the school lot, onto the city street.  Approximately two blocks from the school, while stopped at a red light, a man forces his way into her car, assaults her, and steals her purse.
    • A. The injury is not compensable because of the going and coming rule
    • B. The injury is not compensable because it did not occur in the school district's lot or on their property
    • C. The injury is not compensable because it does not fall within any of the recognized exceptions to Labor Code 3600
    • D. The injury is compensable because the employment subjected the employee to a "special risk"
  749. The employee, while hospitalized for a work-related spinal fusion, contracts hepatitis as a result of a blood transfusion, during surgery.  The employer is:
    • A. Responsible for the medical care, TD, and PD for the back
    • B. Responsible for the medical care, TD, and PD relating to the surgery and hepatitis
    • C. Not responsible for the medical care and PD for the hepatitis
    • D. Not responsible for the medical care, TD, and PD caused by the surgery and hepatitis
  750. An employee who does not receive mileage reimbursement for use of his car, while on an unpaid lunch hour, is injured while on his way back to cash his paycheck.  You should:
    • A. Deny due to a personal errand
    • B. Deny due to a personal errand not related to work
    • C. Accept because of the personal comfort doctrine
    • D. Delay and investigate
  751. The employee is receiving salary continuation from the employer in lieu of TD.  Is a DWC notice required?
    • A. No, separate notice is not required
    • B. Yes, a regular DWC notice
    • C. Yes, a DWC notice with an explanation of the salary continuation plan with the initial notice
    • D. No, but an explanation of the salary continuation plan is required
  752. An employee is at home for a work comp injury, receiving TD.  He contracts the measles from one of his children.  What are you liable for?
    • A. Medical and indemnity
    • B. Medical treatment for both maladies
    • C. Medical treatment and indemnity for the industrial injury only
    • D. Medical treatment for the measles pursuant to the compensable consequences doctrine
  753. You are in the process of stipulating to a PD Award with the IW, when you receive a call from a furniture company, who says the employee owes them $2,000.  You should:
    • A. Pay the furniture company debt from the F&A
    • B. Don't pay, because the debt is not a valid lien, under the Labor Code
    • C. Refer the furniture company to the WCAB
    • D. Tell the furniture company to file a lien with the WCAB
  754. While on a scheduled break with the boss and co-workers, at their usual place, the employee has an injury.  You subsequently receive a call from an AA asking why you haven't paid benefits to the EE.  You call the employer and they say they did not report it, because they did not think it was compensable.
    • A. The employer should have reported it, because the EE reported the claim
    • B. The employer should have reported it, because any injury is compensable
    • C. The employer should have reported it, because the EE was receiving wages during the break
    • D. The employer should have reported it, because the off-premises breaks were customary and had the approval of the employer
  755. The employer encourages employees to carpool and provides vans for employees.  An injury that occurs while commuting is:
    • A. Non-compensable
    • B. Non-compensable because of the going and coming rule
    • C. Compensable
    • D. Compensable as an exception to the going and coming rule
  756. An employee is traveling on business at the request of his employer and while stopped for lunch at a restaurant, the employee is injured.  The claim would be:
    • A. Non-compensable because of the going and coming rule
    • B. Non-compensable because the employee was on a lunch break
    • C. Compensable due to the Bunkhouse Rule
    • D. Compensable due to the Commercial Traveler Rule
  757. A volunteer nurse's aid for a non-profit hospital injures his back while lifting a patient.  The injury is:
    • A. Non-compensable
    • B. Non-compensable due to volunteer status
    • C. Compensable because as a volunteer, he received free lunches
    • D. Compensable if the Board of Directors declares volunteers be deemed employees in writing, prior to the injury
  758. When can in injured worker not attend a QME/AME exam?
    • A. When mileage is paid before the exam
    • B. When mileage is NOT paid before the exam
    • C. When you do not notify them 5 days before the exam
    • D. There are no consequences for missing the appointment
  759. A foreman and co-workers are drinking on the loading dock after work, at 5pm.  A co-worker is injured when he backs his truck into something while leaving, because he was intoxicated.  Is the injury compensable?
    • A. Yes, because of the compensable consequences rule
    • B. Yes, because the drinking was authorized by the foreman
    • C. No, because the alcohol was a proximate cause of the injury
    • D. No, because the injury was caused by the intoxication of the employee
  760. A twenty year old employee is injured at work, but does not report it, as required by work procedures.  The employer finds out, investigates, determines it is not work-related, and denies it; but does not report it to the Third Party Administrator.  The TPA gets a Notice to Pay Benefits from the WCAB.  What should the TPA do?
    • A. Deny benefits
    • B. Report to the WCAB
    • C. Report to the Administrative Director
    • D. Pay benefits in accordance with the Labor Code
  761. The best description for a comminuted fracture is:
    • A. A bone that is broken or crushed into small pieces
    • B. Multiple fractures of the bone
    • C. An incomplete fracture
    • D. A bone that breaks the skin
  762. The olecranon is located in the:
    • A. hand
    • B. foot
    • C. shoulder
    • D. elbow
  763. Zygoma involves what part of the body?
    • A. hip
    • B. back
    • C. face
    • D. arm
  764. What does synovial mean?
    Fluid in a joint
  765. The two most common fingers involved in Dupuytren's Contracture are:
    • A. Little and ring fingers
    • B. Index and thumb
    • C. Ring and middle fingers
    • D. Index and little finger
  766. Otitis media involves what part of the body?
    • A. ear
    • B. mouth
    • C. knee
    • D. ankle
  767. Which part of the following does NOT involve the lungs?
    • A. Hemoptysis
    • B. Lordosis
    • C. Dyspnea
    • D. Silicosis
  768. What are the two weight-bearing bones of the leg?
    • A. Tibia and femur
    • B. Tibia and fibula
    • C. Femur and humerus
    • D. Fibula and femur
  769. The head of the femur fits the:
    • A. shoulder
    • B. wrist
    • C. knee
    • D. Acetabulum
  770. There are _____ cervical vertabrae
    • A. 5
    • B. 7
    • C. 9
    • D. 14
  771. How many vertebrae are there?
    33
  772. Where is the lacrimal bone located?
    face
  773. What doesn't have to be included in the Claim Log?
    • A. Applicant's name
    • B. DOI
    • C. SSN
    • D. Description of the injury
  774. To whom do you apply for a Certificate of Consent to Self-Insure?
    The Director of Industrial Relations
  775. An injury occurs in late December, but is not reported until January of the next year.  In which Claim Log is the injury recorded?
    The year in which it was reported
  776. You do not have to notify the Manager of a change in status, where:
    The self-insurer has a change in minority shareholders
  777. A self-insured employer has not adequately funded their trust account, preventing you from making payments on claims.  You are required to report it to the Manager within:
    3 days
  778. Every self-insurer must file a Self-Insurer's Annual Report on or before:
    March 1 for private self-insurers and October 1 for public self-insurers
  779. Reapplication to the Director for a Certificate of Consent to Self-Insure is required if an employer:
    Fails to initiate a self-insurance program within six months
  780. Do you include medical only claims on the Annual Report?
    Yes, but only for the reporting year of the annual report
  781. A self-insured employer has been reviewing their reserves and calls about a claim involving a knee injury with a preclusion from heavy work and the need for anti-inflammatory medication, with indemnity reserves of $17,000 and medical reserves of $5,000.  There is no PD rating and the employer asks you to reduce the reserves.  You should:
    Retain the reserves as they are
  782. Once an employer has initiated a self-insurance program, the employer's Certificate of Self-Insure is:
    Valid until revoked by the Director
  783. If the Director of Industrial Relations determines that a private self-insured employer has failed to pay required work comp benefits, he/she may:
    Utilize the self-insured's security deposit to administer and pay the employer's compensation obligations
  784. When can you close a claims file?
    When all benefits that are due and payable have been paid
  785. As a self-insured administrator, how long do you have to maintain the claims file?
    Five years from the DOI or from the date on which the last provision of compensation benefits occurred, whichever is later
  786. When a self-insured license has been revoked, the Director retains jurisdiction for what period of time?
    Until claim liability has been exhausted pursuant to the law
  787. The employer has an aggregate stop loss excess insurance policy.  It is:
    Legal, but the employer receives no credit against the security deposit
  788. As an out-of-state self-insurer, where must the claims files be kept and maintained?
    In California, unless the Manager has given written approval to administer from a location outside of California
  789. You are applying for a master certification after July 1, 1994.  What is the amount of net worth and net income needed to qualify for self-insurance?
    $5,000,000.00 net worth and average net income for the past 5 years, of at least $500,000.00
  790. Future liabilities on the Annual Report are estimated as follows:
    The probable total future cost of compensation for the injury or disease
  791. A self-insured employer has denied a claim, but the file does not properly document the reason for the denial.  What is the amount of penalty?
    $5,000
  792. You have assumed the responsibilities of a third party administrator.  While auditing the files, you discover that there are missing indemnity files.  You should:
    Contact the prior administrator and inform the employer
  793. For a Notice Denying Liability and/or a Notice of Delay, when is a POS necessary?
    Notice Denying Liability only
  794. What is the amount of burial expense for an injury resulting in death in 2007?
    $5,000
  795. When can the employer request a second opinion, under Labor Code 4062(b)?
    Where there is a dispute about the need for spinal surgery
  796. An employee is considered a covered employee in the MPN when the employer:
    Provide the employee with an implementation notice, containing information about the MPN and how to access care
  797. An employee has an admitted injury, resulting in a PD of 72%.  The employee is also guilty of serious & willful misconduct.  What should the court award?
    72%
  798. The employee is guilty of serious & willful misconduct.  His PD is 50%.  You should:
    Obtain an Order from the court before reducing
  799. The treating physician, providing continuing medical treatment, is required to provide you with a medical report within how many days?
    45
  800. The penalty for failing to obtain work comp coverage is what percentage of the compensation paid?
    10%
  801. An employee is seriously injured as a result of his own serious & willful misconduct.  The employee's compensation is reduced by 50%, unless:
    • * The injury results in death.......or
    • * The Injury produces PD of 70% or over
  802. You fail to notify the excess carrier of a claim.  Who can impose a penalty?
    The excess carrier
  803. An employee is terminated, following an industrial injury, because he filed a claim for compensation benefits.  The employee is entitled to:
    The employee's compensation shall be increased by one-half, up to $10,000, plus reinstatement and reimbursement for lost wages and work benefits
  804. A finding that the injuries resulted from the injured employee's serious & willful misconduct, means:
    The compensation otherwise payable, shall be reduced one-half
  805. How many days does a physician have to submit a Doctor's First Report of Occupational Injury or Illness?
    5 days
  806. An employee suffers an injury in 1992 resulting in a PD Award of $69,782.00.  The court finds the injury was a result of the employee's serious & willful misconduct.  The employee's compensation otherwise recoverable may be reduced by:
    No reduction
  807. You do not agree with the AME's findings.  You should:
    Send a letter to the AME, requesting a clarification, with a copy to the attorney for the injured employee
  808. If a physician didn't perform a particular exam or prepare the report, you should:
    Object to the report as inadmissible
  809. Formal rating determinations shall be deemed to constitute evidence:
    Only as to the relationship between the disability described and the percentage of PD
  810. Two employees get into an altercation about something they have to do at work.  A hits B.  Who is entitled to work comp benefits?
    B
  811. When is a document considered filed with the court?
    Date it is received
  812. The employer hires an employee with pre-existing arthritis and the employer wants the employee to sign a waiver that they are not responsible for the pre-existing condition.  You should tell the employer:
    This is not enforceable
  813. The employer is forcing employees to receive work comp at a lower rate.  What is the employers liability?
    $100,000
  814. The employee arrived a work early.  While in the company parking lot, the employee is hit by a passerby.  The injury is:
    Compensable
  815. A DEU Rater with a report that apportions PD for an unrepresented worker must send the report to:
    The judge
  816. As an examiner handling a third party case, your primary concern should be:
    Maximizing the employer's recovery
  817. Complete immobility of the big toe, takes what standard rating?
    8%
  818. The employee has an injury resulting in a PD of 15%.  The employer calls and wants you to compromise and release the claim for $12,500, if the employee voluntarily resigns.  You should:
    Advise the employer it is against public policy
  819. For injuries on and after 01/01/1990, a qualified rehabilitation representative (QRR) must be assigned after:
    90 days of aggregate TD
  820. Which PD is presumed to be total in character?
    Loss of the use of both hands
  821. Unless there is an Order of Credit, estimates of future liability may:
    Never be educed by the amount of third party recoveries
  822. The employer is guilty of serious & willful misconduct and, as a result of the injury, the employee has lost both hands.  What percentage should you increase reserves by, because of the serious & willful misconduct?
    50%
  823. You receive an evaluation from a QME that finds more PD than you anticipated.  You should:
    Pay PD and file an application
  824. Wishing to close vocational rehabilitation, you send the employee a Notice of Termination of Rehabilitation Services.  How many days does the employee have to object before rehabilitation is presumed closed?
    20 days
  825. A 21 year old baker has a Colles fracture of the wrist in his dominant hand in 2000, resulting in grip strength readings of 65, 55, 60 / 107, 106, 105.  What is the PD?
    13%
  826. The employee's right major index finger fails to clear the mid-palm on active flexion by 3/4.  The employee also has a 25% weighted grip loss.  What is the percentage of PD?
    5%
  827. A 39 year old baker, Group 420, has in injury to his knee, resulting in a slight instability, and is precluded from heaving lifting.  What is the level of PD?
    22%
  828. Prior to an injury, an unrepresented employee completed a number of college courses.  You assign a QRR, but because of her education level, she doesn't need the QRR.  You can agree to a waiver of rehabilitation:
    If the employee so desires and the Rehabilitation Unit approves
  829. You submit for closure of rehabilitation case.  When is the case considered closed, if there is no response?
    20 days
  830. You assign a QRR in 1995 for vocational rehabilitation for a 1994 injury.  Are the counseling fees of $_____________ included in the cap for vocational rehabilitation?
    $4,500; included in the $16,000 cap
  831. The employee disputes medical eligibility for vocational rehabilitation.  The employee prevails in the dispute before the Rehabilitation Unit, then what happens?
    If the employee prevails, the benefits are payable, retroactively
  832. Who draws up the Rehabilitation Plan for an injury in 1994, if there is no modified or alternate work with the employer?
    QRR and employee
  833. For an injury occurring in 2001, does the Rehabilitation Plan have to be sent in for approval?
    Only where the applicant is unrepresented
  834. How many weeks of Vocational Rehabilitation Maintenance Allowance should you reserve for a Rehabilitation Plan?
    26
  835. What are the three basic elements of rating for knee disability?
    Limitation of flexion and extension, instability, and thigh atrophy
  836. Where an injury causes both grip loss and atrophy, what does the IW get?
    Both the grip loss and the atrophy
  837. Rehabilitation benefits can be settled:
    Where there is a good faith issue, which, if resolved against the IW, would defeat the employee's right to all benefits
  838. A knee injury produces no objective disability or work restrictions; but the physician prescribes a stretch knee brace.  What is the rating for the knee?
    10%
  839. A knee injury produces no objective disability or work restriction; but the physician prescribes a long leg brace.  What is the standard rating for the knee?
    40%
  840. What is the standard rating for someone with moderate vertigo?
    50%
  841. A 39 year old auto mechanic has a slight instability of the knee, no atrophy, and a preclusion from heaving lifting.  What is the level of PD?
    22%
  842. Which of the following does not produce ratable disability?
    • A. Occasional slight
    • B. Occasional moderate
    • C. Constant minimal
    • D. Constant slight
  843. If there are 3 persons wholly dependent for support on a deceased employee, and additional partial dependents, the partial dependents would receive:
    Nothing
  844. Loss of the radial head is a ______% absolute
    5%
  845. You have a report from a QME and you want the DEU to prepare a Summary Rating.  What documentation is required?
    Request for Summary Rating Determination of QME's Report
  846. Which DWC notice requires a POS?
    DWC 500-E
  847. Who is responsible for enforcing benefit notices and timeliness of payments?
    Administrative Director
  848. An employee who has not been preciously identified as medically eligible for vocational rehabilitation, shall be presumed medically eligible where aggregate total disability exceeds:
    365 days
  849. Because the employer does not have a plant nurse, the employee is sent to a physician for removal of a foreign object from her eye.  The physician removes the object and recommends one follow-up visit.  You should:
    Treat the incident as first aid and do not set up a claim
  850. A 47 year old electrician has a knee injury in 2000, resulting in a preclusion from squatting and kneeling.  Flexion is 130/140 and there is a 10 degree loss of extension and a loss of the patella.  PD is:
    16%
  851. The employer and employee file a third party action and obtain a recovery.  Who has the first right of recovery?
    Employer, if the lien doesn't exceed the amount of the recovery
  852. How many days do you have to respond to a request for medical treatment?
    7 days
  853. An IW goes to the doctor and is told he has an aphakic eye with vision of 20/50 correctable to 20/25.  What is the correct standard rating?
    20%
  854. A 20 year old employee with a back injury is sent to a middle-of-the-road physician who says the employee is going to have PD.  You are responsible for:
    Medical, PD, TD, and vocational rehabilitation, if applicable
  855. Which specialist would you refer the employee to for a herniated disc?
    Orthopedic surgeon
  856. A Petition for Reconsideration must be filed within how many days of service of a Findings & Award by the court?
    20 days
  857. To protect your right to recover work comp payments from a negligent third part, you should file:
    A Complaint in Intervention
  858. The Applicant Attorney files for Adjudication of Claim.  You choose not to be represented.  What documents do you file with the court?
    Original medical reports
  859. An employer calls and directs you to deny a claim you know is compensable.  You should:
    Pay benefits, if they are due
  860. When an insurer knows or reasonably believes that a fraudulent act has been committed in connection with a work comp claim, the appropriate authorities shall be notified within:
    60 days
  861. What is the maximum amount a person can make in order to qualify for total dependency?
    $30,000 or less
  862. A medical only claim is one in which:
    No indemnity payment have been made
  863. An employer desiring a change of employee-selected physician can petition the :
    Administrative Director
  864. A retired employee working as a reserve police officer is injured and has TD & PD.  You should pay TD and PD at what rate?
    Maximum for both
  865. A ____________ pain could be tolerated, but would cause a marked handicap in the performance of the activity precipitating the pain.
    moderate
  866. The PD is 27 % for an injury of 06/17/2005.  What is the weekly PD rate?
    $220
  867. For a 1999 injury, who may request a DEU rating?
    Both represented and unrepresented employees
  868. When can you proceed with a civil action against a co-worker for an injury as well as receive work comp benefits?
    Co-worker intoxicated and is also the initial, physical aggressor
  869. The employer's insurance carrier file an Application for Adjudication of Claim against the employee.  Later, the employee becomes represented.  When the case is settled, who has to pay the attorney fees?
    The insurance carrier
  870. Ratable PD shall not be increased if the subjective disability is described as:
    Minimal
  871. Occasional, severe back pain takes what standard rating?
    25%
  872. When an occupation occurs, which is not listed in the schedule, you should:
    Determine the basic functions and activities and relate it to a scheduled occupation
  873. A finger injury rates 4:1%.  You have advanced 2:1% and the IW calls and wants the remainder.  You should:
    Submit to the DEU
  874. A 46 year old Electric Arc Furnace Operator is restricted to light work as a result of silicosis.  What is the level of PD?
    58%
  875. Hoarseness takes what standard rating?
    10%
  876. For an injury to the knee on 01/15/2000 to a cook 38 years of age, after you adjust for occupation, what does the rating do for age?
    0%
  877. An employee is injured on 03/02/2001, but doesn't tell the employer until 03/04/2011.  the employee goes to the doctor that day, and is taken off work.  The Claim Form is returned on 03/07/2001.  When does disability begin?
    March 4, 2001
  878. An injured employee who is temporarily disabled is incarcerated for an unrelated crime.  You should:
    Continue to pay TD
  879. The dominant hand is different from the non-dominant hand:
    10% stronger
  880. The employee's treating physician releases him to RTW after removal of his patella and indicates his condition is P&S.  You should:
    Cut of TTD and begin advancing PD
  881. A knee injury produces no objective disability or work restrictions, but the physician prescribes a local knee brace.  What is the standard rating for the knee?
    20%
  882. Reduction of vision to _____ / ______ or less is considered complete loss of sight in an eye.
    20/200
  883. Entropian means:
    Inversion of the eyelid
  884. Ectropian means:
    Eversion of the eyelid
  885. Leg braces, when prescribed, may be used:
    As an index to the degree of instability
  886. What is not an Activity of Daily Living?
    Education
  887. Under AMA Guides apportionment is based on:
    Causation
  888. For an injury on or after 01/01/2005, the maximum WPI under AMA Guides is:
    100%
  889. What is the standard rating for an injury in 1997, involving an amputation of the major thumb at the carpal joint?
    16%
  890. A disability is considered P&S when:
    The employee has reached MMI under AMA Guides
  891. Within how many days is the employer or insurance carrier supposed to receive the report of an evaluating physician?
    45 days
  892. The employer does not have a MPN.  How long does an IW have to wait before h/she can go to their own doctor?
    30 days
  893. An Employer's First Report of Occupational Injury or Illness must be filed within:
    5 days
  894. How many days does an IW have to object to the report of a PTP?
    20 days
  895. An IW unreasonably fails or refuses to get medical treatment for his injuries.  You should:
    Continue payment of work comp benefits and Petition the court to Suspend the payment of benefits for unreasonable refusal of treatment
  896. You are paying TD pursuant to an Award.  How long do you have to file a Petition to Terminate Liability for continuing payments after terminating payments?
    10 days
  897. An employee injured in 2000, dies in 2006 from his injuries.  What is the amount of the death benefit?
    $0
  898. TD rate for 2009
    • Min $143.70
    • Max $958.01
  899. TD rate for 2010
    • Min $148.00
    • Max $986.69
  900. TD rate for 2011
    • Min $148.00
    • Max $986.69
  901. TD rate for 2012
    • Min $151.57
    • Max $1,010.50
  902. TD rate for 2013
    • Min $160.00
    • Max $1,066.72
  903. TD rate for 2014
    • Min $161.19
    • Max $1,074.64
  904. TD rate for 2015
    • Min $165.49
    • Max $1,103.29

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