Card Set Information

2015-11-04 19:31:04
Show Answers:

  1. What is the time or number of arming vane revolutions needed for the firing train to align after a bomb is released?
    Arming time
  2. What means is used to initiate an electrical fuze?
    Electrical impulse
  3. What mechanical time fuze is used with dispenser weapons?
    Mk 339 Mod 1
  4. The primary and option functioning delay of the Mk 339 fuze is set at the factory.
    What means can be used to change the settings for tactical requirements?
    By adjusting the primary and option time-setting dials
  5. How can you tell if the Mk 339 fuze has shifted from the primary to the option delay?
    By checking the time setting observation window of the fuze
  6. An FMU-143/B tail fuze is used with which weapon?
  7. What electronic bomb fuze is used in Mk 80/BLU 100 (series) general purpose bombs—including laser-quided bombs?
  8. What electronic bomb fuze is used for retarded delivery of the Mk 80/BLU 100
    (series) bomb?
  9. What type of bomb is used in most routine bombing operations?
    General-purpose (GP) bombs—currently the Mk 80/BLU 100 (series)
  10. Identification of BLU-110/111/117A/B bombs loaded with PBXN-109 can be made by the stencil on the bomb body (front and rear) and by what other means?
    Four yellow bands on the nose
  11. A bomb body is shipped with a plastic plug installed in the nose and tail fuze wells to prevent what occurrence?
    Damage to the internal threads and moisture from entering the fuze wells
  12. When shipping bombs, what type of pallet is used?
  13. When shipping, what factor determines the number of bombs that are loaded on
    each metal pallet?
    Size of bombs
  14. Arming wire assemblies are used for what purpose?
    Maintain ordnance components in a safe condition until the actual release of a weapon from an aircraft
  15. Premature or accidental withdrawal of an arming wire from a component is prevented by the installation of which of the following devices?
    Dexter Safety clips
  16. A conical fin assembly is attached to the aft end of a bomb by what means?
    set screws
  17. What bomb fin is used with the Mk-82/BLU-111 to provide a retarded (high-drag) bomb delivery for the aircraft?
  18. What general-purpose bomb, if any, is used with the BSU-85/B Air Inflatable Retarder?
  19. How do laser-guided bombs detect a target?
    Laser beam illumination
  20. What location is the wing assembly mounted on the Guided Bomb Units?
    The aft end of the bomb body
  21. The computer-control group (CCG) of a laser guidance kit is used for what purpose?
    To detect laser-illuminated targets and to provide an attachment point for the guidance fins
  22. What modification kit is used to convert GP bombs into mines?
    Bomb/Mine Conversion Kit Mk 130 Mod 1
  23. What bomb body, if any, is used to make the Mk 63 mine?
  24. What is the purpose of the Mk 339 Mod 1 mechanical time fuze?
    Initiate the linear-shaped charges in the cargo section wall
  25. What are the components of the Mk 118 Mod 0 and Mod 1 antitank bombs?
    Mk 1 Mod 0 fuzing system
  26. What is the primary purpose of practice bombs?
    • Provide safety when training new or inexperienced pilots and ground handling
    • crews
  27. What type of ammunition causes the most injuries to personnel?
    Practice bombs
  28. The history of rockets covers a span of how many centuries?
  29. What initiating device ignites the propellant grain of a rocket?
  30. What component of a rocket contains the propellant, igniter, and nozzle?
  31. The gases produced when rocket motor propellant burns create what type of
  32. Rockets are propelled by what means?
    Expulsion of gases
  33. Which of the following rocket components is/are a part of the motor?
    Propellant and nozzle and fin assembly
  34. What type of HE-FRAG warhead is used with a 5.0-inch rocket?
    Mk 63 Mod 0
  35. What type of warhead combines the effectiveness of HE-FRAG and HEAT warheads?
  36. What type of warhead is a compromise between the armor-piercing and fragmentation designs?
  37. A 2.75-inch rocket assembly can be carried and launched from which of the following launcher packages?
    7-9 round packages
  38. All 2.75-inch rockets may be shipped in which of the following configurations?
    • - Complete rounds in 7- or 19-tube launchers or in wooden boxes 
    • - Rocket motors in 7-tube launchers and fuze-warhead combinations in
    • separate shipping containers
    • - Separate components in authorized shipping containers
  39. Which NAVAIR publication provides authorized assemblies, safety precautions, and restrictions for airborne rockets?
  40. All 5.0-inch rockets should be received through the supply system in which of the following configurations?
    • - Rocket motors in a 4-round launcher
    • - Separate components in separate shipping containers
    • - Fuzes and warheads in separate shipping containers
  41. A rocket motor should NOT be used if it has been dropped more than what prescribed number of feet?
  42. When, if ever, should you attempt to remove the base fuze from a rocket warhead?
    You should never attempt to remove the base fuze
  43. Long-range missiles are usually capable of traveling what minimum number of miles?
    100 miles
  44. Speeds from Mach 0.8 to Mach 1.2 are referred to by what term?
  45. Speeds above Mach 5.0 are referred to by what term?
  46. A service missile is usually referred to as what type of missile?
  47. A training missile is classified as what type of missile?
    Non service missile
  48. A guided missile is designed to be air-launched as an intercept aerial missile. It is the 9th design and the 13th modification of the design. What designator is assigned to the missile?
  49. What are the classifications of missile homing systems?
    Semi-active, Passive, active
  50. Which of the following statements describes an AIM-7M guided missile?
    • - It is a supersonic missile.
    • - It is an air-to-air missile.
    • - It is launched from an interceptor aircraft
  51. In an AIM-7M guided missile, the warhead is in what location?
    Between the target seeker and flight control section
  52. The missile battery is located in what section of a Harpoon guided missile?
    The sustainer section
  53. An AIM-9M Sidewinder guided missile has how many major components?
  54. The control fins should be attached to what section of a Sidewinder guided missile?
    Guidance and control section
  55. What modification of an Mk 36 rocket motor is equipped with a safe-arm ignition assembly?
    mod 8
  56. To reposition the safe-arm ignition assembly of an Mk 36 Mod 8 rocket motor,
    what tool should you use?
    A hex-head T-handle
  57. An AGM-88C guided missile is designed to operate in what total number of modes?
  58. The designation AGM-65E identifies what missile?
  59. What are the major assemblies of the LAU-7 guided missile launcher?
    Housing, mechanism, power supply, and nitrogen receiver
  60. Which of the following guided missile launchers is a complete launching system used with AIM-9M (series) missiles?
  61. In the LAU-7 guided missile launcher, the missile's IR detector is cooled by what
    A nitrogen receiver
  62. What are the two distinct interface configurations used for the AIM-9X?
    Digital and Analog
  63. What launchers are capable of launching the AIM-9X?
    LAU-7 and LAU-127
  64. What missile is an anti armor terminal homing weapon that uses a variety of warhead configurations, including shaped charge, blast fragmentation, and thermobaric?
  65. All versions of Hellfire missiles in the Navy and Marine Corps inventory are carried on what type of guided missile launcher?
  66. What reusable missile launcher completes the F/A-18, AV-8, and P-3 aircraft suspension and launching system for the Maverick AGM-65 air-to-ground missile?
  67. A hand-manipulated signaling device is used for all EXCEPT which of the
    signaling purposes?
  68. Pyrotechnic pistols includes all EXCEPT which of the following features?
  69. A Mk 124 Mod 0 marine smoke and illumination signal emits what color
    smoke/flame for (1) day use and (2) night use?
    (1) Orange smoke (2) red flame
  70. The day or night end of a Mk 124 Mod 0 signal is marked in which of the
    following ways?
    • (night) end and a label adhered to outer surface of the case identifies the
    • smoke (day) and flare (night) end
  71. A Mk 79 Mod 0 illumination signal kit consists of a _____________ signal
    projector and a total of ________________ Mk 80 Mod 0 signals.
    Mk 31 Mod 0, seven
  72. When fired, the star ejected from a Mk 80 Mod 0 signal burns for what minimum
    amount of time?
    4.5 seconds
  73. Before loading a signal into a Mk 31 Mod 0 signal projector, you should first take
    what action?
    Make sure the signal projector is cocked
  74. The illuminating candle in the LUU-2B/B aircraft parachute flare is made from
    what materials?
    Magnesium, sodium nitrate, and a polymer binder
  75. Approximately how many pounds of force is required to pull the timer knob from
    the timer of an LUU-2B/B aircraft parachute flare?
    30 pounds
  76. When a Mk 25 marine location marker is handled, what component physically
    prevents the base plugs from being accidentally pushed in?
    The arming plate
  77. When a Mk 25 Mod 2 marker is in the water, what liquid serves as an electrolyte
    to produce a current in the battery?
  78. What is the average burn time of a Mk 25 Mod 2 marine location marker?
    13.5 to 18.5 min
  79. A Mk 25 will provide smoke and flame for approximately how long?
    10 to 20 min
  80. IR decoys generate heat and infrared energy which is used to distract what type
    of missile?
    Infrared heat-seeking
  81. Passive expendables are filled with chaff, which is dispensed by aircraft to mask
    or screen other aircraft or to cause tracking radar to do what?
    Break lock
  82. What signal cartridge produces a flash of light and a white puff of smoke?
    Mk 4 Mod 3
  83. What color smoke is produced by a CXU-3 signal cartridge?
  84. To extinguish an aircraft parachute flare that is burning in the open, which of the
    following methods should be used?
    Flooding quantities of water at low pressure
  85. Pyrotechnic hazards are frequently increased by what factor(s)?
    • Age of pyrotechnic
    • Improper storage conditions
    • Excessive temperatures
  86. What is the primary weapon used in antisubmarine warfare?
  87. A Mk 46 Mods torpedo can be assembled into how many recoverable exercise
  88. To ensure a predictable air trajectory and water entry without causing structural
    damage to a Mk 46 torpedo, what means is used?
    Air stabilizer
  89. To suspend Mk 46 torpedoes from the bomb racks or shackles of the launching
    aircraft, which of the following suspension band configurations can be used?
    Two Mk 78 Mod 0 only
  90. Component location information for a Mk 46 torpedo is contained in what
    NAVSEA publication?
  91. What is the major advantage of using Otto fuel II in torpedoes?
    It requires a short turnaround time for exercise weapons
  92. Otto fuel II safety, storage, and handling instructions are contained in which of
    the following NAVSEA publications?
  93. When a person is initially exposed to Otto Fuel II vapors, what symptoms could
    • A headache and dizziness
    • Nasal congestion
    • A drop in blood pressure
  94. Aircraft-laid mines are used in which of the following types of operations?
    Defensive only
  95. Magnetic, acoustic, and pressure mines are grouped into which of the following
    general classifications?
    Influence only
  96. Depending on the type of mine, the explosive system may contain which of the
    following components?
    A booster, a main charge, and an initiating system
  97. Air-laid mines contain which of the following types of explosives?
    HBX, Comp B, H6, or TNT
  98. The arming device in an air-laid mine consist of a _________ switch piston
    and a ___________ aligning piston?
    Hydrostatic, explosive
  99. A Mk 63 service mine is classified as what type of mine?
    A bottom mine
  100. What safety device is used in a Mk 65 mine?
    Mk 45
  101. Mines must be jettisoned in water that is at least how many feet deep?