MDT 160- Ch 3 5 7 8 10

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  1. A Gaussian distribution is usually what shape?
    Bell - Shaped
  2. For a data value set that is Gaussian distributed, what is the likelihood % that the data point will be w/in +/- 1 SD from the mean?
  3. What  indicates the strength of relationship in a linear regression?
    the correlation coefficient
  4. If two methods agreed perfectly in a method comparison study, the slope equals ____ and the y-intercept equals ____?
    • slope: 1.0
    • y-intercept: 0.0
  5. Systemic error can best be described as consisting of?
    Constant and proportional error
  6. Examples of typical reference interval data distribution plot include ?
    • Nonparametric
    • Parametric
    • Binomial
  7. a rafarance range can be verified by?
    testing as few as 20 normal donor specimens.
  8. what is used verify a reference interval?
    reference interval transference study
  9. ability of a test to correctly identify the absence of a given disease or condition is ?
    Diagnostic specificity
  10. Which light sours is not necessary for obtaining the spectrum of a compound from 190 to 500 nm?
  11. Stray light in a spectrophotometer places limits on?
    Upper range linearity
  12. which light source is used in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?
    Hollow-Cathode Lamp
  13. which is true concerning fluorometry?
    Fluorescence is and inherently more sensitive technique than absorption
  14. which of the techniques has the highest potential sensitivity?
  15. which electrochemical assay measures current at fixed potential?
  16. Electroendosmosis refers to?
    the movement of buffer ions and solvent relative to the fixed support
  17. reversed-phase liquid chromotography refers to?
    a polar mobile phase and non polar stationary phase
  18. advantages of CE are?
    • very small sample size
    • use of traditional detectors
    • rapid analysis
    • Cations, neutrals and anions move in the same direction at different rates.
  19. Tandem mass spectrometers are?
    two mass spectrometers placed in series with each other.
  20. which is usually not true concerning the principles of point of care testing device?
    That the device does not require quality control testing.
  21. which is the most sensitive detector for spectrophotometry?
  22. formula for Beer's law is?
    A=ε x b x c
  23. correctly rank electromagnetic radiation from low energy to high?
    Microwavs, infrared, visible light, UV x-ray, gamma, cosmic.
  24. what is the purpose of the chopper in an atomic absorption spectrophotometry?
    correct for the amount of light emitted by the flame.
  25. which best describes the process of fluorescence?
    molecules emit a photon at lower energy when exited electrons return to the ground state
  26. which procedure is not currently or routinely used for point of care testing devices?
    Polymerase chain reaction
  27. - Identifying novel proteins as potential new bio markers for disease
    - Identifying post transitional modifications of proteins
    - understanding the mechanism of disease. 
    - determining which genes are expressed and which genes are dormant.

    all are objectives of?
    Proteomics research .
  28. T or F?
    mass spectrometers can be used to sequence DNA?
  29. what is the driving force for more automation?
    • High-volume testing
    • Fast turn around time
    • Expectation of high quality, accurate results.
  30. Which of the approaches to analyzing automation can use mixing paddles to stir?
    Discrete analysis
  31. which type of analyzer offers random access capabilities?
    Discrete analyzer
  32. Primary considerations in the selection of an automated chemistry analyzer are?
    • Total instrument cost
    • The cost of consumption 
    • The labor component
  33. An example of a modular integrated chemistry/immunoassay analyzer would be?
    Dimensions Vista 3000T
  34. Time between initiation of a test and the completion of the analysis is know as ?
    Dwell time
  35. What are the advantages of automation?
    • increased number of tests performed
    • Minimized labor component
    • Use of smaller amounts of sample and reagents in comparison to manual procedure.
  36. which steps in automation generally remain a manual process in most labs?
    peroration of the sample.
  37. which chemistry analyzer uses slides to contain entire reagent system?
    Vitros analyzer
  38. what kind of lamp is used by reflectance spectrometry ?
    Tungsten - halogen lab
  39. modification in micro-sampling and reagent dispensing improves what phase of clinical testing?
  40. Bidirectional communication between chemistry analyzer and laboratory information system had the greats impact of which of the phases of clinical testing?
  41. Strength of binding between an antigen and antibody is related to ?
    Goodness of fit between the epitop and the F(ab) fragment
  42. In monoclonal antibody production the specificity of the antibody is determined by ?
    Sensitized B lymphocytes
  43. which unlabeled immune precipitation method in gel is used to quantitate a serum protein?
    Immunofixation electrophorises
  44. In immunofixation electrophorises , discrete bands appear at the same electrophoretic location. One reacted with IgA( alpha chain specific) reagent and the other reacted with antihuman λ reagent. This is best described as?
    an IgA λ polyclonal protein
  45. In nephelometry, the antigen - antibody complex formation is enhanced in presence of?
    Polyethylene glycol.
  46. Which homogeneous immunoassay on inhibiting the activity of the enzyme label when bound to antibody reagent to eliminate separating free-labeled reagent?
  47. In flow cytometry, the side scatter is related to?
    Granularity of the cell.
  48. The nucleic acid technique in which RNA is converted to cDNA  which is then amplified, is known as?
  49. you analyze the dna content on the sample for breast tissue for suspected malignancy using flow cytometry and gel the following results. DI = 2.5 and % cells in S phase = 29%.
    What can you conclude based on this results?
    likely indicative of malignant breast tumor.
  50. A CLIA waived test requires that operators?
    must follow manufacturer's instructions.
  51. quality control lockout
    prevents testing when quality control has not been performed.
  52. EQC per CLIA means?
  53. for laboratory with a provider performance microscopy procedure CLIA certificate, which would Not be approved?
    Hematology differential.
  54. Connectivity for POCT provides the ability to?
    transmit patients results to the medical record
  55. which specimen is NOT used for a waived POC test?
  56. for non - waived testing is?
    NOT required for physicians in their specialty
  57. Standardization produces?
    • Decreased work
    • Improved regulatory compliance 
    • Compatibility of test results between separate locations in the hospital.
  58. Information needed to determine whether POCT should be used include?
    • who will perform the test 
    • How will the test results be documented
    • How many tests will be performed per month
  59. which of the positions is not a part of well organized POCT program ?
    manufacturer representation
Card Set:
MDT 160- Ch 3 5 7 8 10
2015-10-01 19:49:24
MDT 160 10

MDT 160- Ch 3,5,7,8,10
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