Instrument Oral Test Prep

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1. Name the three fundamental skills in instrument flying?
• Scan
• Interpret
• Control
2. What instrument is the master instrument in the cockpit?
Attitude Indicator
3. Explain the Control and Performance method?
• Start your scan with attitude indicator move  to manifold pressure and then back to the AI and continue with performance verifying control with performance
• Pitch + power = performance
4. What are the control instruments
• Attitude
• Manifold pressure
5. What are the Performance Instruments?
• ASI
• VSI
• Alt
• TC
• HI
• compass
• VOR IND
• GPS
6. Explain the pitot static system. What will happen if the static is blocked, if the pitot is blocked?
• Consists of 3 instruments, asi , vsi , alt.
• ASI measures ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure.
• VSI and Altimeter only use atmospheric pressure(static)
• Static block: Altimeter will freeze. VSI will bleed to 0.
• Pitot block: ASI will read 0, if drain blocked will act as altimeter
7. How often must the pitot/static system be checked for IFR flight?
• 24 months
• (every flight)
8. How does the ASI work?
Uses the pitot tube and static line and compares the different pressures from the pitot and from the static inlet. Diaphragm expands from pressure change (air going in pitot)
9. Explain IAS-CAS-TAS-GS
• IAS: Reading shown on gage
• CAS: IAS corrected for instrument/installation error
• TAS: CAS corrected for non standard temp/press
• GS: TAS corrected for wind
10. How does the VSI work?
Measure momentary pressure in the capsule and delayed static pressure in the case.
11. How does the Altimeter work?
• Static line enters capsule, has sealed aneroid wafers that extend and contract with change in altitude.
• We use a sensitive atlimeter
12. What is rigidity in space?
A weighted spinning object will continue spinning unless acted upon by an outside force.
13. How does the AI work?
A horizontal gyro with a vertical axis mounted in a double gimbal. Shows pitch and roll
14. How does the TC work?
A vertical gyro with a horizontal axis, mounted in a canted single gyro. Shows rate and roll
15. How many degrees can the HI precess every 15 min?
HI is a vertical gyro with a horizontal axis mounted in a double gimball. If it precesses more than 3 degrees in 15 minutes in straight and level flight, have serviced.
16. What is a flux-valve detector?
Mounted away from magnetic influences of the aircraft. The sensor reads the magnetic field and sends electrical signals to automatically align the HI. Known as a slaving system.
17. What is the definition of a standard day for the atmosphere?
At sea level 15c (59f) and 29.92" (1013.2 mb) 14.7 PSI
18. What is pressure alt?
• True alt corrected for non standard pressure.
• Altitude read when altimeter set to 29.92
19. How would you find out your pressure altitude at an airport?
• 29.92 in kollsman window
• mode c transponder
• math equation
20. What is density alt?
Pressure alt corrected for non standard temp
21. How would you establish your density alt?
• asos
• math
• poh chart
• e6b
22. What does the ball in the TC indicate?
Whether you are in a coordinated turn or in trim.
23. What are the pre flight checks for the magnetic compass?
• Secure
• check against a known heading
• no magnetic influences stored next to compass
24. Describe the different errors in the magnetic compass
• Variation: difference between magnetic north and true north
• Deviation: Instrument error, aircraft specific
• Magnetic dip:closer to the poles the worse it gets, pulls needle down.
• Oscillation: Compass is free to move in turbulence
• North/south: under shoot north over shoot south
• Accel/Decel: accel north decel south
25. What is a standard rate turn?
360 degree turn in 2 minutes
26. What is your bank angle if performing a standard rate turn at 60, 90, 110 knots?
• 60/10=6x1.5=9
• 90/10=9x1.5=13.5
• 110/10=11x1.5=16.5
27. How do you recover from an unusual attitude? How would you recover with the AI & HI inop?

• Bank: turn coord, compass
• pitch: vsi, alt, asi
• power: map, asi
28. On a 3 degree glide slope approach at 90 kias what is your rate of descent in feet per minute?
• 90 kias X 5=450
• (ground speed more accurate)
29. What is a mode A transponder?
4096 codes
30. What is a Mode C Transponder? Where is it required?
• 4096 codes plus altitude reporting
• A, B, C, Mode C veil, above 10,000 msl
31. What is Mode S?
Mode C plus aircraft registration and type. Assists  TCAS
32. How often must you have a transponder tested/inspected for use in controlled airspace under IFR? How often must you test/inspect its pressure altitude reporting system?
Both 24 months
33. What is DME?
• Distant measuring equitment
• Measures in slant range, operates inline of sight.
• Required above 24,000msl
34. How often do you have to perform a vor test?
For IFR use every 30 days
35. WHat are the different ways of conducting a vor test?
• VOT: in AF/D error+-4 degrees
• Ground: AF/D error+-4 degrees
• Airborne: AF/D error+-6 degrees
• Airway: check +-6 degrees
• Dual: 4 degree difference
• Repair station
36. What information do you have to record for a vor test and where must you record it?
• Signature
• Place
• Date
• Error

Where ever you can keep track of it.
37. What does it mean when you tune a vor and you hear no ident or hear -. ...-?
Vor is not working do not use, other code means test
38. Name the 3 different types of service volumes
• Terminal
• Low
• High
39. Explain a MVA?
• Minimum vectoring Altitude
• 1000' clearance in normal terrain
• 2000' mountainous terrain
• 300' above airspace floor
• AIM 5-6-5
40. Explain a MEA?
• Minimum En route Altitude
• Lowest published altitude between fixes that ensures acceptable navigation signal (not necessarily two way radio) and meets obstacle terrain clearance
41. Explain a MOCA?
• Minimum obstruction clearance altitude
• Lowest published altitude between fixes
• meets obstacle clearance requirements
• but only ensures acceptable navigation signal coverage within 22nm of a vor
• Depicted by *
42. Explain MRA
• Minimum reception altitude
• Lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined
43. Explain a MAA
• Max Authorized Altitude
• Highest usable altitude for a airspace structure or segment at which accurate reception of nav signal is assured.
44. Explain a MCA
• Minimum Crossing Altitude
• Lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft may cross when proceeding to a higher MEA. Usually specified for obstacle clearance. But may assure adequate reception for nav signal
45. Explain a vor cop
• Change overpoint
• Tells you when to switch from one navaid to another to assure acceptable nav coverage
46. Explain MAP
• Missed Approach Point
• Precision app: Intersection of glideslope and DH
• Non precision: defined by either a fix, facility, dme/atd, or timing and your MDA
47. Explain a DH
• Decision Height
• Point at which pilot must have visual reference to runway environment to proceed to land on a precision approach
48. Where is the MAP on a precision approach for a helicopter
at the Decision Height
49. Where is the MAP on a Precision Approach for a helicopter?
At decision height and glide slope intersection.
50. Under what conditions can you descend below MDA or DH on an instrument approach?
• 1. Must be able to make a safe normal landing
• 2. Must have weather minimums
• 3. Must have airport environment in sight.
• ALS
• Runway markings/lights
• TDZ markings/lights
• Threshold markings/lights
• VASI/PAPI
• REIL
51. What category of aircraft is a helicopter for Instrument Approach minimums? Where in the FAR's does it specify?
• Category A
• FAR part 97
• AIM 5-4-7
52. What is the absolute minimum visibility prescribed for a helicopter instrument approach?
1/4 or 1200 RVR
53. When must you limit your speed on a GPS copter approach procedure to 70 kias?
• Final approach segment
• departure segment
• map segment
54. Explain "point in space" approach?
• Landing on a building or platform.
• Navaid takes you to a specific point in space about 2 miles from intended landing spot. From there you must go VFR or SVFR (with permission)
55. Explain the three sectors in a GPS or RNAV TAA
AIM 5-4-5
56. Explain a IAF
• Initial Approach Fix
• Where the initial approach fix commences and may consist of a particular course radial , dme distance, holding pattern, radar vectoring or any combination of these
57. Explain a FAF?
• Final Approach Fix
• a point where you will typically start to descent to land.
58. Define IMC
• Instrument Meteorological Condition
• Less than 3sm vis, and/or ceiling less then 1000'
59. Explain VDP
• Visual Descent Point
• Point at which a normal descent from the mda may be commenced if the runway environment is visible on non precision approaches.
60. Explain ILS
• Instrument Landing System
• Is a precision approach, most common
61. Name the 4 elements in an ILS. Explain their purpose
• 1. Localizer: Lateral guidance
• 2. Glideslope: Vertical guidance
• 3. Marker Beacons: Located along approach
• 4. ALS. Transition you from IFR to VFR
62. What is RVR?
Runway Visual Range: distance seen down the runway in feet
63. What is OM?
• Outermarker
• Located 4 to 7 miles from the threshold
• Visual indicator is blue
• Morse code: _ _ _ _
64. What is MM?
• Middle Marker
• Located 3500' from the threshold
• Visual indicator is amber
• Morse code_._._._.
65. What is a Fan Marker?
• A general use marker , usually found on the back course localizer approach.
• Visual indicator is white
• Morse code is .. .. .. ..
66. What is a LOM?
• Locator outer marker: a radio beacon collocated with an outer marker detected by a two letter Morse code identifier.
• (NDB)
67. What is the receiving range of a localizer?
From the localizer antenna 35 degrees out to 10nm and 10 degrees to an additional 8nm for a total of 18nm
68. What is a back course localizer approach?
A localizer approach used from the opposite direction, can receive a false glide slope and reverse sensing. Can only use if on a published approach.
69. How is the Localizer morse code identifier different from a VOR?
Localizer has 4 letters starting with "I"
70. What is reverse sensing on a Localizer?
If you are flying a back course localizer approach fly away from the needle with a vor indicator. With an HSI setting inbound course on the bottom
71. What is ASR?
72. What is a PAR?
Precision approach radar: Used as a precision approach through radar vectors, more precise
73. What is LDA?
Localizer type directional aid: can be used as a precision approach if equipped with glide slope. Has a course width of 3 to 6 degrees. Usually aligned within 30 degrees of the runway.
74. What is SDF?
Simplified directional facility: Is a non precision approach, has a 6 OR 12 degree course width. Usually not aligned with the runway.
75. Where would you find the Inoperative Components or Visual Aids Table?
On the back of the front cover of your approach plates
76. With approach lights inop on a ILS approach, what happens to your minimums?
Increase visibility depending on what category and what approach you will be doing.
77. Define Instrument flight time for logging purposes
Anytime you are solely flying the aircraft by the instruments
78. In what types of airspace must you file and IFR flight plan to fly in IFR conditions?
All controlled airspace
79. What is the difference between ground and in flight visibility
• Ground: distance you can see on the ground
• In-flight: distance you can see from the cockpit
80. Instrument currency
• 61.57
• In 6 the preceding 6 months you must have done 6 instrument approaches with intercepting, tracking and holding on radials.
81. How long do you have if you are not current to become current before you need an IPC?
6 additional months to the prior 6 months before you need and IPC
82. What is an IPC
• Instrument Proficiency Check
• In the PTS, a Flight Instructor, DPE, Examiner can do these
83. What additional equipment other than VFR do you need for IFR flight?
• GRABCARD
• Generator/Alternator
• Radio, two way and Nav
• A sensitive altimeter
• B inclinometer ball
• Clock with sweeping second or digital
• Attitude indicator
• Rate of turn coordinator/indicator
• Directional gyro
84. What are the oxygen requirements?
• 12,500: if at or above for cumulative 30 minutes.
• 14,000: Pilot and crew required continuously
• 15,000: Pilot and crew required and passengers supplied
85. What are the minimum fuel requirements?
30 minutes fuel reserve at normal cruising speed to airport of first intended landing and then to an alternate if needed. (helicopter)
86. In order to not file and alternate what must the weather be at your primary airport?
• 2 sm visibility
• 400' above the lowest approach minima
• 1000' ceiling whichever is higher
• At ETA and 1 hr after
87. What weather minimums do you need at your alternate airport for flight planning purposes?
• Vis 1sm
• 200' above the lowest approach minima at ETA
88. What weather minimums do you need to land at your alternate?
Whatever it states on the approach plate for that alternate
89. What is the definition of a ceiling? (BOO)
• Broken
• Overcast
• Obscured
90. Your first leg has a course of 030 degrees and an MEA of 6000' what altitude should you file? What altitude should you put in the altitude block on your flight plan?
7000' (WEEO)
91. What are the IFR minimums for take off part 91?
• No minimums for part 91
• 91.175f
92. How wide is a victor airway?
8nm total
93. What is a clearance void time and why would you receive one?
A given time to take off from an airport with out a tower, must contact ATC within 30 minutes.
94. What is a clearance limit?
If ATC does not tell you "cleared as filed" they will give you a clearance limit. Clearance along a route to a specific point.
95. What is EFC, and when should you recieve one from ATC?
Expect further clearance, typically given when cleared during a hold
96. What is an Abbreviated Clearance?
Clearances are usually issued for the route and altitude as filed and will be stated "cleared as filed"
97. Explain the lost communication procedure for IFR flight in IMC conditions.
• Trouble shoot!
• Squak 7600
• If you encounter VFR stay VFR and land
• Route: "AVEF"
• A: last assigned
• V: last vectored
• E: Expected
• F: Fly as Filed
• Altitude: MEA
• MEA
• Expected
• A last assigned
98. If the runway lights are out or inoperative, what type of notam would you find it in?
Notam D
99. If the localizer at your destination is inop what notam would you find it in?
Notam D
100. What is a DP (SID) Standard Instrument Departure?
Departure procedure, previously referred to as a standard instrument departure. Published and simplifies work load for ATC and pilot. ODP's guide you out of an airport to avoid obstacles and terrain. Not efficient for Helicoopters
101. What is a STAR?
Standard terminal arrival routes: A published procedure that  provides transition from the enroute structure to a fix or way point in the terminal area guiding you to an instrument approach. Reduce work load for pilot/ATC. Not efficient for helicopters.
102. To accept a DP or a STAR you must have what in the cockpit?
You must have at least a textual description in the cockpit
103. What is a TEC?
Tower enroute control routes: They link approach control areas between certain city pairs, allowing the flight to be completed using tower communications app/depp only. Designed for short low level flights in a busy traffic environment. May request tec with clearance delivery and don't have to file a flight plan.
104. Explain CRAFT
• Clearance
• Route
• Altitude
• Freq
• Transponder code
105. Before departing on an IFR flight from a controlled airport, what radio stations (in order) would you listen and talk to?
• Atis
• Clearance delivery
• Ground
• Tower
• Departure
• Center (ARTCC)
106. What ways can you get an IFR clearance to leave from a non towered airport?
• FSS: by phone or radio
• ARTCC: by phone or radio
107. How would you operate VFR on top? Is it and IFR or VFR flight plan?
• IFR flight plan
• Must be requested by pilot, it allows you to climb through cloud layers if necessary to reach VFR conditions on top of clouds. Stay in VFR conditions with appropriate VFR cloud clearances and vis.
108. ATC clearance: "Hold SE on 140 degree radial ABC vortac". Your inbound on the 090 radial. What entry would you make.
Direct
109. ATC clearance: "hold SW on 230 radial ABC vortac, 15 DME, non standard 3500' EFC 20 minutes after the hour". You are inbound to the vor at 5nm on the 090 radial.
Tear drop or parallel
110. When should you start your time on the first outbound leg?
When the flag flips or wings level whichever is last
111. What is NoPT?
No procedure turn
112. What is MSA?
• Minimum safe altitude
• Indicates min safe altitudes that provide 1000' obstruction clearance within 25sm of facility on which the msa circle is based
113. What is TDZE?
• Touchdown zone elevation
• Highest elevation in the first 3000' of the rwy and is shown oh the iap chart when straight in landing min. are authorized
114. What is HAT?
• Height above touchdown zone
• used when straight in minimums are published, 200' minimums are referrenced to 200' tdz
115. What is TCH?
• Threshold crossing height
• The height above the threshold at which the aircraft glideslope antenna would be if the aircraft is flown precisely on the ils glideslope
116. If the tower gives you a circle to land clearance following and instruments approach, what are your options?
Do not have to follow, but probably should
117. What are the main differences between a visual and a contact approach?
• Visual Approach
• ATC or pilot may initiate
• Must have airport in sight or proceeding aircraft
• Ceiling 1000' and 3sm vis
• Remain clear of clouds

• Contact Approach
• Pilot must request, ATC can not
• Airport must have published procedures
• Clear of clouds, 1sm vis
• Adequate separation from IFR and SVFR aircraft, you are responsible from VFR and obstacle seperation
118. How often is a Localizer, VOR, DME morse code repeated?
• Localizer: 10-15 seconds
• VOR: 10-15 seconds
• DME: 30 seconds
119. What is a false glide slope?
The 150 MHZ lobe can be reflected off the ground giving a 12.5 degree false glide slope
120. On an IFR flight, what do you do if you have a DME failure? Gyro Failure?
• DME failure: notify ATC, use timing, if above 24000' must report because DME is required
• Gyro failure: Use pitot static instruments and compass, notify ATC and request a no gyro approach
121. Explain the term "cruise"
Can fly anywhere between assigned "cruise" altitude and MEA. But must maintain altitude once we report an altitude.
122. How often are database updates issued for use in an IFR certified GPS?
Every 28 days
123. How do you check the currency of the database of the Garmin 430?
1st screen that comes up automatically
124. Explain RAIM and RAIM prediction on the Garmin 430. Where else can you get RAIM
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring: tests the integrity of satellites that your using, will select the best 4 in view or more, will disregard the weaker. At least 5 must be in view for RAIM to find anomalous situations and needs 6 to actually kick and isolate out. RAIM prediction should be checked for destination airport for your ETA and 1 hour before and 1 hour after
125. What is Auto sequencing on the garmin 430
When shooting an approach or a route the GPS sequences from 1 waypoint to the next will go into suspend on approach once you pass map
126. What is "Suspend" mode on the Garmin 430?
Works like a pause button (OBS) on an approach. Push to execute the MAP
127. What is the GPS full scale deflection CDI sensitivity in Approach mode on the Garmin 430?
• Enroute is 5nm either side
• Terminal is 1nm either side
• Approach is .3nm either side
128. What do you do if the GPS has not sequenced to "Approach Mode" on a GPS approach and you are at the FAF?
Go missed
129. What do you do if you see an "Integrity" message on the Garmin 430 after you are past the FAF?
You have 5 minutes to land or go missed
130. What do you do if you see a "Warning" message on the Garmin 430 before you reach the FAF?
Go missed
131. You have reached the MAP on a GPS approach. How do oyou use the GPS to fly the missed approach procedure on the Garmin 430?
Push OBS and follow GPS and cross reference with approach plate
132. What is WAAS?
• Wide area augmentation system
• 24 space based satellites along with two geosynchronous satellites coupled with several different ground stations on Earth. Makes the GPS more accurate
133. What kind of anti-icing and de-icing do the R22 and the R44 have?
Carb heat on the R22
134. Two conditions must be satisfied for ice to form on a helicopter. What are they?
• Surface area at or below freezing
• visible moisture
135. Where can icing form on a helicopter when the oat in not below 0C
Airfoils, carb
136. Name three different kinds of icing.
• Clear 0c to -10c
• Mixed -10c to -15c
• Rime -15c to -20c
137. List the dangers of ice forming on a helicopter
Extra weight. uneven balance, decreased performance, change the airflow of the airfoil
138. As the pilot, where would you first see icing on the R22/R44? What action would you take?
• Skids, mast
• Turn 180 and depart the area, descend to warmer air
139. Name and describe the different fogs.
• Steam fog: Cold dry air moves over relatively warmer water and the water evaporates.
• Upslope fog: Warm moist stable air is pushed upslope and is cooled to its dew point
• Precipitation Induced: Warm rain or drizzle falls through a cool dry layer of air and evaporates.
• Advection Fog: Relatively warm moist air moves over a cooler surface and cools to its dew point.
• Radiation Fog: On clear, calm, cold, humid nights the ground cools faster than the adjacent air and cools it to its dew point
140. Name the 4 basic families of clouds
• Low
• Middle
• High
• Clouds with vertical development
141. Name the 3 states of a thunderstorm. Which is most hazardous to a aircraft?
• Cumulus
• Mature
• Dissipating

Mature stage is the most dangerous
142. For a TAF, METAR, and Area Forecast, what are cloud heights (base) given in AGL or MSL?
• METAR and TAF in AGL
• Area Forecast in MSL
143. What ways can you obtain in-flight weather updates for current weather and forecasted weather for your destination?
• EFAS "Flightwatch" on 122.0
• Nearest FSS/ARTCC
• TWEB
• HIWAS
• ASOS, AWOS and ATIS
144. What are your mandatory reporting points?
• Safety of flight
• Missed approach
• Entering a hold
• Leaving a hold
• Leaving a assigned altitude
• Leaving a FAF (NIRC)
• True airspeed +- 10kts
• Unforecasted weather
• VFR on top changing altitude
• Compulsory reporting point (NIRC)
• Loss of comm or nav radio
• Unable to maintain 500' rate of climb/descent
• ETA +- 3 minutes (NIRC)
145. What does radar contact mean?
Indicates that your aircraft has been positively identified by ATC on their radar
 Author: heli_pilot ID: 309064 Card Set: Instrument Oral Test Prep Updated: 2015-11-16 22:47:46 Tags: IFR Heli Instrument Test Prep Folders: Description: IFR Test Prep Show Answers: