Science

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rkrouse
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Science
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2015-10-19 07:14:18
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  1. 1. What must be true about a scientific hypothesis?
    A. There must be three hypotheses present for each experiment
    B. Hypotheses must be original to the scientist
    C. Hypotheses must be very complex statements
    D. Hypotheses must be falsifiable
    D. Right! Hypotheses must be capable of being proven wrong
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  2. 2. Which of the following is important for the formation of scientific hypotheses and the advancement of scientific knowledge?
    A. Creativity and cooperation
    B. Isolation and secrecy
    C. Induction and impatience
    D. Lack of communication and competition
    A. Right! The advancement of science depends on the ability of scientists to work together and share their knowledge. Cooperation, creativity, communication, patience, and competition are some of the qualities that are important to help form hypotheses, develop theories, and further our scientific understanding.
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  3. 3. Which of the following correctly describes a theory?
    A. A synthesis of untested predictions that describe the functioning of scientific systems.
    B. Data collected from a single scientific experiment.
    C. A group of well-tested hypotheses that provide evidence to support explanations for scientific phenomena.
    D. A speculation about the outcome of a scientific experiment.
    C. Right! A theory explains many hypotheses and is supported by extensive evidence
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  4. 4. Which statement accurately describes the purpose of the scientific method?
    A. To provide a systematic way for obtaining evidence to support or refute a hypothesis.
    B. To survey individuals living in tribal communities to understand cultural differences.
    C. To make an accurate model of the solar system to understand the relative distances between planets.
    D. To evoke emotion by creating a piece that captures the majesty of a mountain.
    A. Right! The scientific method provides a way to plan and execute a controlled experiment so that data can be collected to support or refute a hypothesis. Other techniques are also used in science such as model building and computer simulations. Which of the following statements correctly describes a scientific hypothesis?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. 5. Which of the following statements correctly describes a scientific hypothesis?
    A. It is an educated guess that loses credibility if it is falsifiable.
    B. It is a truth that has been observed or experienced.
    C. It is supported by a large body of evidence and answers many scientific questions.
    D. It is a postulate that must be testable.
    D. Right! Scientific hypotheses are educated guesses that must be testable and falsifiable (have the ability to be proven wrong). What is the benefit of using a systems approach when studying biology?
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  6. 6. What is the benefit of using a systems approach when studying biology?
    A. A systems approach narrows an investigation by determining the number and function of the parts that make up the whole.
    B. A systems approach is a preferred method of study because of its ability to isolate the function of each part of a system.
    C. A systems approach is a more manageable method of investigation because it focuses on the individual components of an organism.
    D. A systems approach focuses on how component parts interact and can then predict how a change in one component affects the whole system.
    D. Right! A systems approach allows scientists to better understand the unique properties that emerge due to the interactions and relationships that exist between the system components. Which of the following topics are included in a study of physics?
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  7. 7. Which of the following topics are included in a study of physics?
    A. atmosphere, chemical compounds, acids and bases
    B. motion, sound, energy
    C. cells, bacteria, viruses
    D. minerals, molecular structure, volcanoes
    B. Right! Physics is a fundamental study of matter and energy that includes topics such as motion, atoms, forces, and energy. How does a study of science differ from a study of religion?
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  8. 8. How does a study of science differ from a study of religion?
    A. Religion focuses on making and testing hypotheses whereas science studies cultural preferences and social interactions.
    B. Religion studies our physical surroundings and science focuses on our personal interpretation of our world.
    C. Religion is based on faith, beliefs, and spirituality whereas science depends on evidence generated from the experimental scientific method.
    D. Religion attempts to explain the structure of the human body whereas science attempts to explain the purpose of life.
    C. Right! Science and religion seek to find answers to different questions using different means. Science explains physical phenomena using experimentation and evidence whereas religion explains the meaning of life using faith and spirituality. Which of the following units are used to measure electricity?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. 9. Which of the following units are used to measure electricity?
    A. Kelvins, nanometers, Newtons
    B. grams, micrometers, pH
    C. Ohms, millivolts, amperes
    D. Milligrams, Joules, milliliters
    C. Right! Ohms are used to measure electrical resistance, millivolts measure potential difference, and amperes measure the rate of electrical flow (current). What is the advantage of using a lever to lift a boulder?
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  10. 10. What is the advantage of using a lever to lift a boulder?
    A. The lever reduces the amount of total work that is done by converting work input into work output.
    B. The lever multiplies the work input by increasing the resistance force from the boulder.
    C. The lever allows a smaller input force to be exerted over a longer distance to make it easier to move the boulder.
    D. The lever increases the work done on the boulder by decreasing the distance of the input force.
    C. Right! The lever decreases the amount of input force required by increasing the distance over which the force is applied. Work input always equals work output so mechanical advantage comes from either changing the distance or the force.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. 11. How can creativity be helpful to scientists?
    A. It can’t help at all in the field of science
    B. It helps in suggesting hypotheses that are not falsifiable
    C. It helps them to change their variables mid way through an experiment
    D. It helps in generating new ideas and new hypotheses to test
    D. Right! Creativity is useful and helps scientists generate new hypotheses to test using the experimental scientific method. Which of the following definitions correctly describes a fundamental scientific term?
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  12. 12. Which of the following definitions correctly describes a fundamental scientific term?
    A. A law is a synthesis of suppositions that seek to explain observations.
    B. A fact is something that has been observed or experienced by many observers and agreed to be true.
    C. A fact is a prediction about the outcome of an experiment.
    D. A scientific law is agreed upon by competent observers even if a few contradictions exist at the time it is formed.
    B. Right! A fact is something experienced and confirmed by many observers, such as seeing the leaves change color in the fall- we could observe this and agree that it is true, and so leaves changing color in the fall could be considered an example of a fact. Which of the following are scientific methodologies used to understand scientific phenomena?
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  13. 13. Which of the following are scientific methodologies used to understand scientific phenomena?
    A. Creative expression, impressionism, symbolism
    B. Social critique, emotional response, surveys
    C. Field studies, experimentation, building models
    D. Cubism, symbolic interpretation, cultural understanding
    C. Right! Each discipline utilizes different techniques and methods to gain understanding. The discipline of natural science uses techniques such as scientific inquiry, scientific method (controlled experiments), field studies, model building, computer simulations, etc. A student working on a controlled experiment desires to test the effect of water pH on tomato plant size. Which of the following factors should be controlled?
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  14. 14. A student working on a controlled experiment desires to test the effect of water pH on tomato plant size. Which of the following factors should be controlled?
    A. tomato size, type of soil, number of seeds
    B. amount of soil, sun exposure, amount of water
    C. amount of water, type of seed, water pH
    D. seed type, water temperature, water pH
    B. Right! In this experiment the independent variable (what is varied) is the water pH and the dependent variable (what is measured) is plant growth. The variables that need to be controlled (held constant) include: amount of water, amount of soil, type of soil, sun exposure, number of seeds, type of seed, water temperature, tools and materials used, procedures, measurement techniques, etc. Which of the following studies follows a systems approach for biology?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. 15. Which of the following studies follows a systems approach for biology?
    A. Dissecting a frog to investigate the size and location of the digestive organs.
    B. Observing the structure of chloroplasts in a plant cell.
    C. Determining the gene sequence of a fruit fly chromosome.
    D. Analyzing how the concentration of ions in cardiac cells affects the electrical impulse in the heart.
    D. Right! A systems approach analyzes the interactions between the component parts that make up a complex system. Reductionism, the opposite approach, focuses on studying individual components to better understand their structure and function. In this example cells are studied and analyzed to learn more about the heart organ and ultimately, the cardiovascular system. Which of these would be an example of a systems approach to studying a forest ecosystem?
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  16. 16. Which of these would be an example of a systems approach to studying a forest ecosystem?
    A. studying how much rainfall the forest gets in a given year
    B. studying the leaf structure of a single tree
    C. studying the flight pattern of a bee
    D. studying how insects in the forest help pollinate the plants
    D. Right! A system approach focuses on the interactions that occur between the parts of the system. Studying the interactions between insects and plants is an example of a systems approach. Which topics are studied in the Earth science category of the Natural Sciences?
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  17. 17. Which topics are studied in the Earth science category of the Natural Sciences?
    A. Plate tectonics, acid rain, minerals.
    B. Viruses, bacteria, solar wind
    C. Forces, matter, cells
    D. Chemical reactions, genes, motion
    A. Right! Earth science focuses on the structure and processes of the Earth and includes topics such as rocks, minerals, plate tectonics, mountain building, volcanoes, and earthquakes. What is the purpose of science?
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  18. 18. What is the purpose of science?
    A. To test hypotheses on the meaning of life.
    B. To explain the causes of natural phenomenon.
    C. To publish unconfirmed eyewitness accounts and observations.
    D. To provide evidence for supernatural occurrences.
    B. Right! The purpose of science is to explain physical phenomena using techniques such as controlled experiments, model building, and field studies. Which of the following would be measured using micrometers?
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  19. 19. Which of the following would be measured using micrometers?
    A. fingernail width, potential difference across a battery
    B. plant cell nuclei length and mitochondria width
    C. lung capacity, alveoli mass
    D. diameter of H1N1 virus, X-ray wavelength
    B. Right! Micrometers measure the length, width, and height of small objects that can be seen with a light microscope, including plant cell nuclei and mitochondria. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanical advantage of simple machines?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 20. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanical advantage of simple machines?
    A. An inclined plane’s mechanical advantage results from decreasing the distance, making it easier to move a heavy object.
    B. A turn of an axle to move a wheel provides a mechanical advantage by decreasing the input force while increasing the distance.
    C. A single fixed axis pulley provides a mechanical advantage by decreasing the input force by one fourth.
    D. A wedge’s mechanical advantage results when two levers are stationary, making it easier to cut wood.
    B. Right! Turning an axle requires less input force because it increases the distance that the wheel turns.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 21. Which is the best example of the law of conservation of energy?
    A. If a pendulum is one meter off the ground at one end of its swing, it can never be more than one meter off the ground on the opposite end of the swing.
    B. A book on a table exerts a downward force on the table, and the table exerts an upward force on the book.
    C. X-rays can cause damage to human body cells, but radio waves cannot.
    D. The mass of a piece of wood decreases when the wood burns.
    A. Right! The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed. The pendulum has a specific amount of potential energy at the top of its swing, and it cannot have more potential energy than that at the other side of the swing. Which of the following statements correctly describes Earth's magnetic field?
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  22. 22. Which of the following statements correctly describes Earth's magnetic field?
    A. It forms as a result of stationary electrons inside Earth.
    B. It deflects charged particles coming from outer space.
    C. It results from stationary protons in Earth’s atmosphere.
    D. It shields the Earth from uncharged meteors that stray from the main asteroid belt.
    B. Right! The Earth’s magnetic field deflects charged particles from outer space. Magnetism is created by moving charges and affects moving charges, so it has no effect on charged particles that are not moving or uncharged particles like meteors even if they are moving. Which of the following correctly describes the role of gravity in the formation of the solar system?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. 23. Which of the following correctly describes the role of gravity in the formation of the solar system?
    A. Gravitational attraction is responsible for Mercury’s thick, dense atmosphere.
    B. The Sun’s gravity causes sunspots to form on nearby planets.
    C. Gravitational attraction caused matter in a nebula to condense ultimately forming the Sun and planets.
    D. The Sun’s gravitational attraction causes the planets to rotate in a clockwise direction when compared with the Sun’s North Pole.
    C. Right! Gravitational collapse of nebular material resulted in a spinning disk that formed the Sun and the inner and outer planets. Which of the following correctly describes the role of gravity in the Earth-moon system?
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  24. 24. Which of the following correctly describes the role of gravity in the Earth-moon system?
    A. The moon’s gravity has less impact on Earth’s tides than the Sun’s gravity.
    B. Earth’s gravity causes the moon to elongate, changing its shape.
    C. Earth’s gravity is responsible for the moon’s 24 hour rotation.
    D. The moon’s gravity is responsible for the high percentage of water in Earth’s atmosphere.
    B. Right! The gravitational force that exists between the Earth and the moon causes both bodies to stretch to an oval shape. Tides result when the Earth bulges due to the gravitational pull of the moon. How does the law of universal gravitation differ from Coulomb's law of electrical forces?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. 25. How does the law of universal gravitation differ from Coulomb's law of electrical forces?
    A. Gravitational force is inversely proportional to distance whereas electrical force is directly proportional to distance.
    B. Gravitational force attracts protons and electrons in atoms whereas electrical force attracts protons and neutrons in nuclei.
    C. Gravitational force depends on mass whereas electrical force depends on the charge of particles.
    D. Gravitational force is both attractive and repulsive whereas electrical force is only attractive.
    C. Right! Coulomb’s law is the relationship between the charge of two particles and the distance between them whereas the law of universal gravitation is the relationship between the mass of two objects and the distance between them. Which of the following actions would increase both the gravitational force and the electrical force?
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  26. 26. Which of the following actions would increase both the gravitational force and the electrical force?
    A. Double the charge
    B. Half the distance
    C. Half the charge
    D. Double the distance
    E. Half the mass
    F. Double the mass
    B. Right! Gravitational force and electrical force both follow the inverse-square law. Decreasing the distance between the masses or the electrical charges increases the forces. Which type of energy is stored within sugar molecules?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 27. Which type of energy is stored within sugar molecules?
    A. thermal potential energy
    B. gravitational potential energy
    C. chemical potential energy
    D. electrical potential energy
    C. Right! Chemical potential energy is stored within the chemical bonds in sugar, gasoline, protein and other molecules. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between electrical potential energy and electrical kinetic energy?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 28. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between electrical potential energy and electrical kinetic energy?
    A. Electrical potential energy results when charged particles move away from a positive sphere whereas electrical kinetic energy is stored in electrical sources like chemical batteries.
    B. Electrical potential energy results from the position of electrons due to gravity whereas electrical kinetic energy is the energy associated with the motion of atoms and molecules.
    C. Electrical potential energy is the energy associated with an electric current and electrical kinetic energy is the energy contained in chemical bonds.
    D. Electrical potential energy is energy due to the position of charged particles in a charged sphere while electrical kinetic energy is the movement of charged particles through a wire.
    D. Right! Electrical potential energy depends on the position of a charged particle. Electrical kinetic energy is the movement of electrons. Which of the following statements correctly describe Newton's first law of motion?
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  29. 29. Which of the following statements correctly describe Newton's first law of motion?
    A. An object at rest will remain at rest unless a nonzero force acts on it.
    B. An object with inertia will continue to accelerate unless a zero force acts on it.
    C. The net force acting on object A is equal to the net force acting on object B in a closed system.
    D. An object’s mass affects the velocity at which it moves from point A to point B.
    A. Right! Newton’s first law states that an object at rest will remain at rest or an object moving at uniform speed will continue moving at uniform speed unless a nonzero force acts on it. Which of the following statements is an example of Newton’s second law of motion?
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  30. 30. Which of the following statements is an example of Newton’s second law of motion?
    A. A space ship orbits the earth at a constant velocity.
    B. A nail hammered into a wall exerts a force on the pounding hammer.
    C. A textbook rests unopened on a table.
    D. A heavy car requires more force to accelerate than a light car.
    D. Right! Newton’s second law describes the relationship between force, acceleration, and mass. Heavy cars have more mass than light cars and require more force to accelerate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 31. A proton and an electron experience the same amount of electrical force. Which particle accelerates faster?
    A. The proton, because it has a larger mass
    B. They accelerate at the same rate
    C. The electron, because it has a smaller mass
    D. Neither accelerates
    C. Right! Both particles experience the same amount of electrical force, but since the electron has a smaller mass, by Newton’s Second law, it must accelerate faster. Which of the following statements correctly describes magnetic force?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 32. Which of the following statements correctly describes magnetic force?
    A. Charged particles moving through a wire do not cause a deflecting magnetic force.
    B. Nonmoving charged particles interact with magnets with the greatest force.
    C. When particles move parallel to the magnetic field lines the magnetic force is the strongest.
    D. The greatest magnetic force results when charged particles move at right angles to magnetic field lines.
    D. Right! The motion of charged particles causes them to interact with magnetic fields. When charged particles move at right angles to the magnetic field lines the force is the strongest, and is weakest when they move parallel to the field lines. Which of the following is a role of gravity in the Universe?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. 33. Which of the following is a role of gravity in the Universe?
    A. Gravity pushes stars and interstellar dust apart causing the expansion of matter that forms galaxies.
    B. Gravity causes the curvature of light in the universe.
    C. Gravity is the outward force that balances the inward thermal pressure during galaxy formation.
    D. Gravity forms stars by repelling heavy elements such as silicon and iron.
    B. Right! Light curves in a gravitational field. Which of the following correctly explains how gravity affects the universe?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 34. Which of the following correctly explains how gravity affects the universe?
    A. Gravitational force causes heavy elements to repel from one another during a supernova.
    B. Gravity causes a star to collapse completely to form an empty region known as a black hole.
    C. Gravitational contraction in high-mass stars results in fusion reactions that synthesize heavier elements like neon and magnesium.
    D. Gravity moves the outer shells of a dying star away from a white dwarf.
    C. Right! When the amount of nuclear fuel in stars decreases, inward gravitational force overcomes outward thermal pressure causing the core to contract and produce enough heat to fuse elements. High-mass stars produce enough heat to fuse heavier elements like neon and magnesium. Which of the following explains the similarity between the law of universal gravitation and Coulomb’s law of electrical forces?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 35. Which of the following explains the similarity between the law of universal gravitation and Coulomb’s law of electrical forces?
    A. Both formulas are examples of the inverse-square law.
    B. Both formulas use the same value for the proportionality constant.
    C. Both forces depend on the mass of two objects.
    D. Both forces increase as the quantity of charge decreases.
    A. Right! Gravitational force and electrical force both follow an inverse-square law. Both are dependent on the distance between the interacting objects, interacting masses for gravitational force and interacting charges for electrical force. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects when the distance between them is doubled?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. 36. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects when the distance between them is doubled?
    A. It quadruples.
    B. It does not change.
    C. It is one fourth as strong.
    D. It doubles.
    E. It is half as strong.
    C. Right! Gravitational force is inversely proportional to the distance between two objects squared. Therefore, doubling the distance decreases the force by one fourth. Which of the following types of energy is the combined total of the translational, rotational, vibrational kinetic energy and potential energy of atoms and molecules?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 37. Which of the following types of energy is the combined total of the translational, rotational, vibrational kinetic energy and potential energy of atoms and molecules?
    A. Gravitational energy
    B. Chemical energy
    C. Thermal energy
    D. Electrical energy
    C. Right! Thermal energy includes both the kinetic and potential energy associated with atoms and molecules that make up matter. Which statement correctly describes kinetic energy?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 38. Which statement correctly describes kinetic energy?
    A. Kinetic energy is the energy of position due to an object's height.
    B. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy when a ball is dropped off a cliff.
    C. The kinetic energy is greater in a high-mass, fast moving object than a low-mass, slow moving object.
    D. The kinetic energy of an object is calculated by multiplying weight and height.
    C. Right! An object's kinetic energy depends on both its mass and speed. Which of the following laws is described by the statement "for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction"?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 39. Which of the following laws is described by the statement "for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction"?
    A. Newton's first law of motion
    B. Newton's third law of motion
    C. Newwton's universal law of gravitation
    D. Newton's law of general relativity
    B. Right! Newton’s third law describes the relationship between two interacting objects. For example, when a baseball bat hits a baseball the bat exerts a force on the ball and the ball exerts an equal and opposite force back on the bat. Which of the following statements is an example of Newton's first law of motion?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 40. Which of the following statements is an example of Newton's first law of motion?
    A. The acceleration of a piano and bench
    B. A soccer ball exerting a force on the soccer player kicking it
    C. The force of combustion launching a rocket
    D. A seat belt stopping the forward motion of a passenger
    C. Right! Newton’s first law states that a object moving at a uniform speed will continue moving at the uniform speed unless a nonzero force acts on it. The bodies of passengers riding in a moving car continue to move forward when a car suddenly stops. A seatbelt is the nonzero force that stops the forward motion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. 41. Which of the following statements correctly describes the movement of seismic waves?
    A. Surface waves move the fastest and shake up and down and side to side.
    B. Primary waves are longitudinal waves that travel with the greatest speed.
    C. Secondary waves are compression waves that only move through liquids.
    D. Body waves move in a circular motion and penetrate into the mantle.
    B Right! Primary waves (P-waves) and secondary waves are types of seismic body waves. Primary waves are longitudinal waves that move the fastest. Secondary waves (S-waves) are transverse waves that only move through solids and are slower than primary waves. Which of the following correctly describes wave motion?
  42. 42. Which of the following correctly describes wave motion?
    A. Transverse waves occur when vibrations move parallel to the direction of wave movement.
    B. Longitudinal waves move in a circular motion parallel to the direction of the wave energy.
    C. Transverse waves occur when a medium moves parallel to the direction of the wave energy.
    D. Longitudinal waves consist of compressions and rarefactions moving parallel to the wave motion.
    D Right! Transverse waves are vibrations that move at right angles to wave movement in an up and down motion. Longitudinal waves are vibrations that move parallel to the wave movement and consist of compressions and rarefactions. How are light waves different than sound waves?
  43. 43. How are light waves different than sound waves?
    A. Light waves cannot move in a vacuum but sound waves can.
    B. Sound waves are transverse waves while light waves are longitudinal waves.
    C. Light waves result from the acceleration of electrons whereas sound waves result when disturbances cause the movement of molecules.
    D. Light waves require a medium to move whereas sound waves can move through empty space.
    C Right! Light waves are transverse, electromagnetic waves that do not require a medium to move. Sound waves are longitudinal waves that require a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to move. Which of the following statements correctly describes the speed of sound?
  44. 44. Which of the following statements correctly describes the speed of sound?
    A. Sound moves fastest in a vacuum.
    B. Sound moves faster in air than in steel.
    C. Sound moves faster in warm air than cold air.
    D. Loud sounds move faster than soft sounds.
    C Right! Sound energy requires a medium to move and the properties of the medium can affect its speed. Solids and liquids are better at transmitting sound than air. Because air molecules are moving faster when the air is warm, sound can travel faster through warm air than through cold air. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength?
  45. 45. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength?
    A. Gamma rays
    B. X-rays
    C. Microwaves
    D. Radio waves
    A Right! Gamma rays are the type of electromagnetic radiation with the greatest energy. They have the shortest wavelength, and the highest frequencies Which forms of electromagnetic radiation are higher in energy than visible light?
  46. 46. Which forms of electromagnetic radiation are higher in energy than visible light?
    A. gamma rays, X-rays, and ultraviolet radiation only
    B. radio waves, microwaves, and infrared radiation only
    C. gamma rays and X-rays only
    D. radio waves and microwaves only
    A Right! Ultraviolet radiation, X-rays, and gamma rays all have more energy than visible light. Radio waves, microwaves, and infrared radiation have less energy than visible light.
  47. 47. During a thunderstorm, residents of a town see bright flashes of lightning. They hear claps of thunder several seconds later. Which statement best explains these observations?
    A. Light waves travel more slowly through air than through a vacuum.
    B. Sound waves travel more quickly in warm air than in cool air.
    C. Light waves travel faster than sound waves.
    D. Sound waves cause more particle motion than light waves.
    C Right! The light waves from the lightning travel very quickly, so they reach the observers before the sound waves from the thunder do. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency?
  48. 48. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency?
    A. X-rays
    B. microwaves
    C. infrared radiation
    D. radio waves
    D Right! Radio waves have the longest wavelengths, lowest frequencies, and lowest energies of all forms of electromagnetic radiation. Which statement best explains why we can use X-rays to make images of structures inside the body, but we cannot use visible light for this?
  49. 49. Which statement best explains why we can use X-rays to make images of structures inside the body, but we cannot use visible light for this?
    A. X-rays have more energy than visible light.
    B. X-rays travel faster than visible light.
    C. X-rays have longer wavelengths than visible light.
    D. X-rays have lower frequencies than visible light.
    A Right! X-rays have more energy than visible light waves do. Which of the following are applications of gamma rays?
  50. 50. Which of the following are applications of gamma rays?
    A. Determining the location of broken bones and cavities
    B. Communicating using cell phones and stereo signals
    C. Identifying hurricane structure and the location of ocean currents
    D. Decreasing spoilage in foods and killing cancer cells
    D Right! Gamma rays are high energy electromagnetic waves. These rays can be used to kill bacteria, cells, and other microscopic organisms and to kill cancer cells.
  51. 51. Which of the following statements correctly describes sound waves?
    A. Ultrasonic waves have a frequency lower than 20,000 Hertz.
    B. The human ear detects frequencies in the infrasonic range.
    C. High frequency sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate rapidly which is interpreted by the brain as a high pitch.
    D. Sound waves move as transverse waves and do not require a medium to move through space.
    C Right! Sound waves cause a vibration in a medium and move as longitudinal waves. The eardrum senses frequency of the vibrations between 20 Hz to 20,000Hz and interprets high frequency waves as high pitches. Which of the following correctly describes ocean waves?
  52. 52. Which of the following correctly describes ocean waves?
    A. Tsunamis are considered to be a type of ocean wave because the wind is the disturbance that triggers it.
    B. Ocean waves consist of both circular and longitudinal components
    C. Tsunami waves travel mainly underwater but increase in height when they reach the shoreline.
    D. Ocean wave motion increases with depth and continually changes direction as waves move toward the shore.
    C Right! Tsunamis are a type of ocean wave but occur when an earthquake or explosion starts the disturbance. Earth’s gravitational pull causes the tsunami wave to move outward from the disturbance without much height. When the shoreline compresses the wave’s energy its height can reach approximately 30 meters. Which of the following statements provides an example of reflection of light and sound?
  53. 53. Which of the following statements provides an example of reflection of light and sound?
    A. A straw in a beverage appears to bend; AM radio waves bending around large buildings
    B. The red shift of galaxies moving away from Earth; hearing a higher pitch when an ambulance approaches
    C. The blurring of a cell in a microscope; using antinoise earphones on an airplane
    D. The distance of a passing car in a rearview mirror; echoes produced in a mountain valley
    D Right! Reflection occurs when waves hit a barrier and return at the same angle. Polished surfaces like mirrors reflect light; walls and other barriers reflect sound. Which of the following correctly describes wave interference?
  54. 54. Which of the following correctly describes wave interference?
    A. Two transverse waves in phase combine resulting in greater amplitude.
    B. Two longitudinal waves out of phase combine resulting in greater intensity.
    C. When two light waves are out of phase it is an example of constructive interference.
    D. When two sound waves are in phase they combine and result in a quieter sound.
    A Right! Constructive interference occurs when any type of wave is in phase. When at least two waves are in phase, their effects are added together. Destructive interference occurs when waves are out of phase and they reduce or cancel out their effects. Which of the following correctly shows the colors of visible light in order from high frequency to low frequency?
  55. 55. Which of the following correctly shows the colors of visible light in order from high frequency to low frequency?
    A. Green, yellow, red, violet
    B. Red, yellow, green, violet
    C. Violet, green, yellow, red
    D. Yellow, red, violet, green
    C Right! The highest frequency of electromagnetic radiation that we can see with our eyes appears violet and the lowest frequency appears red. Which of the following is an example of a longitudinal wave?
  56. 56. Which of the following is an example of a longitudinal wave?
    A. a gamma ray
    B. a sound wave
    C. a microwave
    D. an S-wave
    B Right! Sound waves are longitudinal waves. Particles in a sound wave vibrate parallel to the direction the wave is travelling in. Which statement correctly compares sound waves and light waves?
  57. 57. Which statement correctly compares sound waves and light waves?
    A. Sound waves are transverse waves, and light waves are longitudinal waves.
    B. Light waves travel faster than sound waves.
    C. Light waves travel faster in high-density substances, and sound waves travel faster in low-density substances.
    D. Sound waves can travel through a vacuum better than light waves can.
    B Right! The speed of light is many thousands of times faster than the speed of sound. Which of the following lists forms of electromagnetic radiation in order from highest energy to lowest energy?
  58. 58. Which of the following lists forms of electromagnetic radiation in order from highest energy to lowest energy?
    A. radio waves, visible light, X-rays
    B. infrared radiation, radio waves, microwaves
    C. ultraviolet light, visible light, microwaves
    D. gamma rays, radio waves, infrared radiation
    C Right! Ultraviolet light has higher energy than visible light, and visible light has higher energy than microwaves. Which of the following describes how electromagnetic waves are used in meteorology?
  59. 59. Which of the following describes how electromagnetic waves are used in meteorology?
    A. Infrared radiation is used to determine cloud temperature and hurricane structure.
    B. Gamma rays are used to determine hurricane structure and atmospheric convection currents.
    C. X-rays are used to determine wind motion in tornados and cloud height.
    D. Radio waves are used to determine thunderstorm intensity and the location of ocean currents.
    A Right! Infrared radiation is used in meteorology to determine cloud temperature, hurricane structure, locations of ocean currents, and thermal anomalies. Which of the following describes the applications of radio waves?
  60. 60. Which of the following describes the applications of radio waves?
    A. Communicating via cell phones and maritime navigation
    B. Determining crystal structure in rocks and minerals
    C. Heating food and identifying heat sources
    D. Disinfecting water supplies and killing fungal spores
    A Right! Radio waves are used to in cell phone communication, maritime navigation, and long distance nighttime voice transmissions.
  61. 61. According to the mass-energy relationship (E=mc2), what happens to the mass per nucleon in a fusion reaction?
    A. Mass converts to energy because the two hydrogen-2 nuclei reactants have more mass per nucleon than the nucleons in the resulting helium-4 nucleus.
    B. Energy converts to mass resulting in a helium-4 nucleus that contains more mass per nucleon than the two hydrogen-2 nuclei reactants.
    C. The greater mass per nucleon of a helium-4 nucleus reactant is converted to energy as it splits into two smaller hydrogen-2 nuclei.
    D. High amounts of activation energy are required to release the extra mass per nucleon in a helium-4 nucleus reactant, forming two hydrogen-2 nuclei with less mass per nucleon.
    A Right! A fusion reaction occurs because the nucleons in hydrogen-2 have more mass than the nucleons in the fused helium-4 nucleus. The lost mass is converted to energy in accordance with the mass-energy relationship (E=mc2). Which of the following is necessary to start a thermonuclear fusion reaction in the Sun?
  62. 62. Which of the following is necessary to start a thermonuclear fusion reaction in the Sun?
    A. Expansion of interstellar gas and dust is needed to increase the temperature to 10 million K and start fusion.
    B. Combustion of volatile gases is needed to heat helium-4 nuclei to the critical temperature causing it to split into two hydrogen-2 nuclei.
    C. High electrical repulsion between nuclei is necessary to contract interstellar gas and dust fusing hydrogen-2 nuclei into carbon nuclei.
    D. Extremely high temperatures are needed to overcome the electrical repulsions between hydrogen-2 nuclei.
    D Right! Thermonuclear fusion reactions require extremely high temperatures because the nuclei must have enough speed to overcome the electrical repulsion that exists between protons. Which statement correctly describes a stable (non-radioactive) atom?
  63. 63. Which statement correctly describes a stable (non-radioactive) atom?
    A. The strong nuclear force is stronger than the electrical force.
    B. The electrical force is stronger than the strong nuclear force.
    C. Only the electrical force is present.
    D. Only the strong nuclear force is present.
    A Right! The strong nuclear force helps to hold nuclei together, and the electrical force tends to cause nuclei to break apart. In a stable atom, the strong nuclear force is at least as strong as the electrical force, but both are present. How does the strong force differ from the electrical force?
  64. 64. How does the strong force differ from the electrical force?
    A. The strong nuclear force attracts protons to electrons whereas the electrical force attracts protons to protons.
    B. The electrical force requires the presence of neutrons to act as nuclear cement and the strong force does not.
    C. The electrical force acts over much larger distances than the strong nuclear force.
    D. The electrical force is responsible for holding protons tightly in the nucleus whereas the strong force allows electrons to move freely.
    C Right! The strong force acts between nucleons and is critical for overcoming the electrical repulsion between protons and holding the nucleus together. It only acts over very short distances and weakens as the nucleus becomes larger in size. Which of the following correctly lists the stages in the life cycle of a massive star (more than ten times the mass of our sun)?
  65. 65. Which of the following correctly lists the stages in the life cycle of a massive star (more than ten times the mass of our sun)?
    A. Protostar, hydrogen-burning, helium-burning, gravitational collapse, planetary nebula, white dwarf
    B. Protostar, main sequence, red giant, gravitational collapse, white dwarf, planetary nebula
    C. Protostar, hydrogen-burning, helium-burning, gravitational collapse, supernova, planetary nebula
    D. Protostar, main sequence, red giant, gravitational collapse, supernova, black hole
    D Right! Massive stars generate more heat energy when they collapse. When the physical pressure of neutrons pushing against each other stops a star’s contraction it explodes in a supernova and the remnant becomes a black hole. How does a star’s temperature affect its appearance?
  66. 66. How does a star’s temperature affect its appearance?
    A. Main sequence stars appear red because they have very high surface temperatures.
    B. Hot stars appear blue because they emit shorter wavelengths of light.
    C. Main sequence blue stars emit longer wavelengths of light because they burn different elements than main sequence yellow stars.
    D. Cool stars appear red because they emit higher average frequency radiation.
    B Right! The surface temperature of a star is directly related to the frequency of the radiation it emits. Hot stars emit shorter wavelengths of radiation and appear blue. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between terrestrial and Jovian planets?
  67. 67. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between terrestrial and Jovian planets?
    A. Terrestrial planets have more satellites because of their rocky composition and high densities.
    B. Jovian planets are less dense because they are large in volume and consist primarily of hydrogen and helium.
    C. Terrestrial planets have greater atmospheric pressure because they are composed of high density materials.
    D. Jovian planets are denser because they are much larger than the terrestrial planets.
    B Right! Terrestrial planets are dense, rocky, relatively small planets whereas the Jovian planets are low in density, gaseous and very large. Terrestrial planets are found closer to the sun, whereas Jovian planets are found further from the sun. How is Venus different from Earth?
  68. 68. How is Venus different from Earth?
    A. The density of Venus is greater than Earth because Venus has no liquid water on its surface.
    B. Venus is smaller than Earth and almost the same size as Mars.
    C. The temperature on the surface of Venus is much hotter than Earth due to the composition of Venus’atmosphere.
    D. Venus rotates much faster than Earth.
    C Right! Venus is similar to Earth in size, density, and distance from the Sun but its high percentage of atmospheric carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation and heats the surface to approximately 460 degrees Celsius. How does Hubble’s Law provide support for the Big Bang theory?
  69. 69. How does Hubble’s Law provide support for the Big Bang theory?
    A. It shows that the rate of expansion of the universe matches the speed predicted by the big bang theory.
    B. It calculates the size of the universe and supports the big bang theory’s prediction that the universe is 13.7 billion light years across.
    C. It determines the ratio of the elements found in the universe and matches the predicted ratios expected from the big bang explosion.
    D. It measures the wavelength of microwaves coming to Earth and is consistent with the value expected in the big bang theory.
    A Right! Edwin Hubble observed the redshift of light from distant galaxies and devised a mathematical equation to determine the velocity of galaxies, supporting the on-going expansion of the universe as an after effect of big bang. In which type of star is hydrogen fusion occurring?
  70. 70. In which type of star is hydrogen fusion occurring?
    A. main-sequence star
    B. red giant
    C. white dwarf
    D. neutron star
    A Right! Main-sequence stars generate energy through hydrogen fusion.
  71. 71. What is the proportionality constant in the mass-energy relationship (E=mc2)?
    A. speed of sound squared
    B. gravitational force squared
    C. speed of light squared
    D. electrical force squared
    C Right! The speed of light (c^2) is the proportionality constant of in the formula (E=mc2), where E = energy, and m = mass. Why is gravity important in thermonuclear fusion reactions in stars?
  72. 72. Why is gravity important in thermonuclear fusion reactions in stars?
    A. Gravitational force provides the outward pressure that stabilizes stars during the reaction.
    B. Contraction of matter due to gravity creates the high temperature needed to start the reaction.
    C. Helium-burning thermonuclear fusion starts when inward thermal pressure overcomes the outward force of gravity.
    D. The gravitational force is needed to overcome the magnetic repulsion between hydrogen-2 nuclei.
    B Right! The attraction of matter due to gravity causes an increase in temperature and pressure. The high temperatures can then overcome the electrical repulsion between nuclei and start thermonuclear fusion. Which statement is true about all nuclear reactions?
  73. 73. Which statement is true about all nuclear reactions?
    A. Light elements are fused to form heavier elements.
    B. Gamma radiation is produced.
    C. Heavy elements break down into lighter elements.
    D. Einstein’s equation E= mc2 applies.
    D Right! All nuclear reactions follow Einstein's equations, E = mc2. With fission of large atoms and fusion of small atoms, matter is converted to energy. With fusion of large atoms, energy is converted to matter. How does the strong force affect two protons placed in close proximity?
  74. 74. How does the strong force affect two protons placed in close proximity?
    A. It attracts the two protons.
    B. It repels the two protons.
    C. It deflects one proton so it moves in a perpendicular path.
    D. It makes the protons move in parallel paths.
    A Right! The strong force attracts protons and neutrons whereas the electrical force would cause the two protons that are electrically charged to repel one another. How does the life cycle of low and medium mass stars differ from high mass stars?
  75. 75. How does the life cycle of low and medium mass stars differ from high mass stars?
    A. Low and medium mass stars become white dwarfs after losing their outer shells.
    B. Low and medium mass stars continue producing elements until they synthesize iron.
    C. Low and medium mass stars eventually become black holes after a supernova event.
    D. Low and medium star remnants become pulsars when their radioactive cores emit radio emissions.
    A Right! As low and medium mass stars accumulate carbon in their cores, their nuclear fuel becomes depleted and they longer undergo fusion. The outer layers of the star are carried away by solar wind leaving behind a cooling core, known as a white dwarf. Why does a star in the red giant stage appear red?
  76. 76. Why does a star in the red giant stage appear red?
    A. Its large volume causes longer wavelengths to be emitted from the core.
    B. Its cool temperature radiates shorter wavelengths of light from the convection zone.
    C. Its radiation zone absorbs core energy which in turn releases shorter wavelengths of light from the surface.
    D. Its surface temperature is relatively cool, emitting longer wavelengths of light.
    D Right! The color of a star depends on the peak frequency of the radiation emitted from the surface. Cool stars emit longer wavelengths of radiation and appear red. Which of the following correctly lists the organization of the solar system?
  77. 77. Which of the following correctly lists the organization of the solar system?
    A. Sun, terrestrial planets, Kuiper Belt, Jovian planets, Oort Cloud, main asteroid belt
    B. Sun, terrestrial planets, main asteroid belt, Jovian planets, Kuiper Belt, Oort Cloud
    C. Sun, Jovian planets, main asteroid belt, terrestrial planets, Kuiper Belt, Oort Cloud
    D. Sun, terrestrial planets, main asteroid belt, Oort Cloud, Jovian planets, Kuiper Belt
    B Right! The main asteroid belt separates the terrestrial and Jovian planets; the disk-shaped Kuiper Belt and spherical Oort Cloud surround the solar system. Which of the following correctly describes the characteristics of Saturn?
  78. 78. Which of the following correctly describes the characteristics of Saturn?
    A. It has no internal source of heat energy.
    B. It is the largest planet in the solar system.
    C. It is less dense than the other Jovian planets.
    D. It has a dense atmosphere of carbon dioxide gas.
    C Right! Saturn is the least dense planet in the solar system. Which of the following statements correctly describes evidence that supports the Big Bang theory?
  79. 79. Which of the following statements correctly describes evidence that supports the Big Bang theory?
    A. Hubble’s law measures the blueshift of light from distant galaxies and supports the Big Bang’s prediction that the universe is contracting.
    B. Measurements of the elements found in the universe indicate that it is composed of 50% hydrogen which is consistent with the amount that would form as the radiation produced by the Big Bang cooled.
    C. Newton’s law calculates the age of the Universe and supports the Big Bang theory’s prediction that the universe is 13.7 billion years old.
    D. Measurements of the wavelength of cosmic background radiation match the expected value of 7.35 cm which is consistent with the value expected from a cooling universe produced by the Big Bang.
    D Right! Radio receivers detected microwaves with wavelengths of 7.35 cm coming to Earth from all directions and calculated that after the Big Bang the universe would have cooled to 2.7 K which would emit wavelengths matching 7.35 cm. Which planet has the shortest year (orbital period)?
  80. 80. Which planet has the shortest year (orbital period)?
    A. Uranus
    B. Earth
    C. Jupiter
    D. Mercury
    D Right! The closer a planet is to the sun, the shorter its orbital period. Mercury is the closest planet to the sun, so it has the shortest year (Mercury's year is about 88 Earth days).
  81. 81. Which of the following statements correctly describes the chemical bond in sodium fluoride? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
    A. Sodium transfers an electron to fluorine, forming an ionic bond.
    B. An ionic bond forms as fluoride cations transfer electrons to sodium anions.
    C. Sodium and fluorine atoms gain stability by sharing two valence electrons.
    D. Sodium cations and fluoride anions are attracted by the magnetic force.
    A Right! Ionic bonds form when electrons are transferred from one atom to another to gain stability. Cations, positively charged ions, and anions, negatively charged ions, result and are attracted by the electrical force forming an ionic bond. How does adding heat to ice affect the water molecules in the ice?
  82. 82. How does adding heat to ice affect the water molecules in the ice?
    A. The added heat causes the water molecules to bond together more strongly.
    B. The added heat causes the water molecules to break down into individual hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
    C. The added heat causes the molecules to vibrate more quickly.
    D. The added heat causes the molecules to react and form new substances.
    C Right! Adding heat energy to a substance increases the kinetic energy of the molecules in the substance. Which of the following correctly describes the difference in the atomic structure of carbon isotopes (C-12 and C-13)? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
  83. 83. Which of the following correctly describes the difference in the atomic structure of carbon isotopes (C-12 and C-13)? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
    A. Carbon-12 has more protons than Carbon-13.
    B. Carbon-12 has 6 neutrons and Carbon-13 has 7 neutrons.
    C. Carbon-12 has more mass than Carbon-13.
    D. Carbon-12 has 6 valence electrons and Carbon-13 has 7 valence electrons.
    B Right! Isotopes are very similar in their atomic structure having the same number of protons and electrons (including valence electrons). They differ because they have different numbers of neutrons which affects their atomic mass. How does the atomic structure of noble gases (He, Ne) differ from alkali metals (Na, K)? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
  84. 84. How does the atomic structure of noble gases (He, Ne) differ from alkali metals (Na, K)? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
    A. Noble gases have seven valence electrons and alkali metals have two.
    B. Noble gases gain two valence electrons to fill their outer shell whereas alkali metals gain one.
    C. Noble gases have full outer shells and alkali metals have one valence electron.
    D. Noble gases form salts and alkali metals react violently when they lose valence electrons.
    C Right! Noble gases have full outer shells and do not react with other substances. Alkali metals have one valence electron in their outer shell and tend to form ionic bonds with halogens forming salts. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between a pure substance and a solution?
  85. 85. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between a pure substance and a solution?
    A. Pure substances are finely mixed homogeneous mixtures whereas solutions consist of only one type of atom or molecule.
    B. Marble is an example of a solution and rose gold is an example of a pure substance.
    C. A salt crystal is a pure substance because it has a definite chemical composition and sugar water is a mixture because it does not.
    D. Solutions, like hydrogen, consist of one type of atom whereas pure substances, like tap water, consist of at least two evenly distributed atoms.
    C Right! Pure substances consist of one type of atom, molecule, or ion. Examples include hydrogen, helium, sodium chloride (salt), etc. Solutions are a type of mixture where the components are evenly distributed and finely mixed. Examples include sugar water and brass. Why does the silicate tetrahedron structural unit form many different kinds of silicate minerals?
  86. 86. Why does the silicate tetrahedron structural unit form many different kinds of silicate minerals?
    A. It can bond with oxygen atoms on other silicate tetrahedra and form chains, sheets, and three-dimensional networks.
    B. It can bond with various nonmetallic ions because each oxygen atom has two unpaired electrons.
    C. It forms many types of ores when metal ions bond with the central carbon atom.
    D. Its triangular structure has a central carbon atom which allows minerals to form in sheets.
    A Right! The silicate tetrahedron structural unit forms many different minerals because of its ability to exist as single tetrahedra, chains, sheets, and three dimensional networks. A geologist discovers igneous rock layers in a particular area. What is the best conclusion for the geologist to form from this observation?
  87. 87. A geologist discovers igneous rock layers in a particular area. What is the best conclusion for the geologist to form from this observation?
    A. The rocks formed at least 500 million years ago.
    B. The area was once covered by a warm, shallow sea.
    C. There was once a volcano in the area.
    D. There were once dinosaurs living in the area.
    C Right! Igneous rocks form when melted rock (magma or lava) cools and hardens. Magma and lava are commonly found at volcanoes. Which of the following correctly describes the conduction of heat?
  88. 88. Which of the following correctly describes the conduction of heat?
    A. Electrons spin in the same direction so their domains align and conduct heat effectively.
    B. Electrons in metals are loosely bound to their nuclei, allowing them to conduct heat easily.
    C. Free electrons are tightly bound to atomic nuclei and conduct heat rapidly through atomic vibrations.
    D. Rubber is a good conductor of heat because it allows stationary electrons to quickly transfer energy.
    B Right! Materials that are good conductors, like metals, contain metallic bonds which cause outer electrons to be weakly bonded to the nucleus. This allows electrons to move freely effectively conducting heat and electricity. How is the lithosphere different than the asthenosphere?
  89. 89. How is the lithosphere different than the asthenosphere?
    A. The lithosphere exhibits rigid behavior and the asthenosphere acts in a plastic manner.
    B. The lithosphere consists of denser materials than the asthenosphere.
    C. The lithosphere borders the outer core and the asthenosphere borders the crust.
    D. The lithosphere has a higher temperature than the asthenosphere.
    A Right! The lithosphere is the uppermost portion of the upper mantle. It is cooler than the asthenosphere and behaves in a rigid manner. The asthenosphere is below the lithosphere, is warmer, and flows slowly over time (plastic). Which statement about the terms used to describe atoms is correct?
  90. 90. Which statement about the terms used to describe atoms is correct?
    A. The atomic number indicates the number of protons contained in an atom of a specific element.
    B. The mass number indicates the number of valence electrons in a specific element.
    C. The atomic number shows the number of neutrons in the nucleus of a specific element.
    D. The mass number shows the number of isotopes that exist in nature for a specific element.
    A Right! The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus of each element. The mass number is the total number of protons and neutrons in a specific isotope.
  91. 91. Which of the following statements correctly describes covalent bonds?
    A. Covalent bonds form between atoms of noble gases.
    B. Covalent bonds form between nonmetal atoms when the atoms share electrons.
    C. Covalent bonds form between metallic atoms found in the middle section of the periodic table.
    D. Covalent bonds form between metal and nonmetal atoms when the metal gives electrons to the nonmetal.
    B Right! Covalent bonds form when atoms share electrons. Two nonmetal atoms will form a covalent bond. Which of the following describes the molecular changes that occur when water condenses?
  92. 92. Which of the following describes the molecular changes that occur when water condenses?
    A. Increased kinetic energy increases the distance between molecules.
    B. Decreased kinetic energy decreases the distance between molecules.
    C. Increased kinetic energy decreases the distance between molecules.
    D. Decreased kinetic energy increases the distance between molecules.
    B Right! When the temperature drops, the kinetic energy of molecules decreases. As a result, molecules move slower and the space between them decreases. Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23. It is in group 1 on the periodic table. How many valence electrons does it have? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
  93. 93. Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23. It is in group 1 on the periodic table. How many valence electrons does it have? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
    A. 11
    B. 12
    C. 2
    D. 1
    D Right! The number of valence electrons depends on the number of electron shells. The first shell holds 2 electrons, the second shell holds 8, and the third shell holds 8. Since sodium has 11 electrons, its outer shell with have 1 electron. Which two elements will form an ionic bond? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
  94. 94. Which two elements will form an ionic bond? (You may consult a periodic table to answer this question.)
    A. carbon (group 14) and oxygen (group 16)
    B. sodium (group 1) and bromine (group 17)
    C. neon (group 18) and sodium (group 1)
    D. oxygen (group 16) and nitrogen (group 15)
    B Right! Sodium and bromine form ionic bonds when sodium donates an electron to bromine thus filling both atoms’ outermost shell.
  95. 95. How are homogeneous mixtures different than heterogeneous mixtures?
    A. Homogeneous mixtures consist of two or more substances evenly mixed whereas the substances in heterogeneous mixtures are not evenly mixed.
    B. Homogeneous mixtures consist of one type of molecule whereas heterogeneous mixtures consist of many types of molecules chemically mixed.
    C. Sodium chloride is an example of homogeneous mixture because the properties of sodium chloride differ from the properties of sodium and chlorine.
    D. Metal alloys are examples of heterogeneous mixtures in the solid state because each metal has a different density which concentrates in different areas of the substance.
    A Right! Homogeneous mixtures exist when two or more substances are evenly distributed. Sugar water is homogeneous because the sugar dissolves evenly in the water, unless the solution becomes supersaturated and the sugar materializes at the bottom. Heterogeneous mixtures are not evenly distributed, like a piece of marble. Which of the following minerals is a nonsilicate?
  96. 96. Which of the following minerals is a nonsilicate?
    A. quartz (SiO2)
    B. halite (NaCl)
    C. mica (KAl2(AlSi3O10)F2)
    D. feldspar (KAlSi3O8)
    B Right! Halite, or rock salt, is a nonsilicate mineral because it does not contain silicon (Si) and oxygen (O). Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between a molecule of table salt (NaCl) and a molecule of methane (CH4)?
  97. 97. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between a molecule of table salt (NaCl) and a molecule of methane (CH4)?
    A. Table salt is found in nature and methane is formed only by humans.
    B. Sodium and chlorine form an ionic bond and carbon and hydrogen form covalent bonds.
    C. Table salt forms a hydrocarbon chain and methane forms a crystalline shape.
    D. Sodium, chlorine, carbon, and hydrogen become ions when they bond and form table salt and methane.
    B Right! The table salt molecule (NaCl) forms when sodium transfers an electron to chlorine forming an ionic bond with sodium and chlorine ions arranged in a crystalline structure. Methane results when covalent bonds form between carbon and four hydrogen atoms and is found in natural gas. Which of the following affects the structure of igneous rocks?
  98. 98. Which of the following affects the structure of igneous rocks?
    A. Amount of pressure and rate of recrystallization
    B. Method of sediment transportation and amount of compaction
    C. Mineral make-up of eroded sediment and amount of organic matter
    D. Chemical composition of parent magma and rate of cooling
    D Right! Igneous rocks form when magma cools. The rate of cooling determines rock texture and the chemical composition of the parent magma determines rock color. Which of the following correctly describes the properties of a metamorphic rock?
  99. 99. Which of the following correctly describes the properties of a metamorphic rock?
    A. Gneiss has a foliated texture due to compressional force.
    B. Marble has visible crystals because of nucleation.
    C. Schist is porphyritic with a glassy texture because of ice wedging.
    D. Slate contains black garnet minerals due to the process of crystallization.
    A Right! Metamorphic rocks are formed when intense heat and pressure recrystallizes sedimentary and igneous rocks changing their mineral structure. Some metamorphic rocks have a foliated appearance when the pressure causes minerals to align in parallel bands. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Earth's core?
  100. 100. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Earth's core?
    A. It is composed primarily of silicate minerals.
    B. It consists of dense nonmetals that exist in a solid state.
    C. It is responsible for Earth's magnetic field.
    D. It is divided into two layers, lithosphere and asthenosphere.
    C Right! The core is divided into the inner and outer core. The inner core consists of iron and nickel in the solid state. The outer core is also composed of iron and nickel but the metals are in a liquid state which allows convection currents to create Earth’s magnetic field.
  101. 101. How do convection currents affect tectonic plate motion?
    A. Tectonic plates move as heat from oceanic plates radiates towards the mantle.
    B. Material in the lithosphere warms, rises, and moves tectonic plates vertically, cools, and sinks because of its plasticity.
    C. Convection cells transfer heat from the core to the crust contributing to the lateral movement of tectonic plates.
    D. Tectonic plates sink into the lithosphere creating convection currents that move the other plates.
    C Right! Convection currents drive tectonic plate motion- Heat from the core moves towards the crust causing convection currents in the plastic asthenosphere. Warm buoyant magma rises, moves laterally, cools, and sinks contributing to the motion of the lithospheric plates. Which of the following statements correctly explains tectonic plate boundaries?
  102. 102. Which of the following statements correctly explains tectonic plate boundaries?
    A. Earthquakes are common at transform plate boundaries because energy is released when plates slip past one another.
    B. Ocean trenches occur at divergent plate boundaries as two plates collide.
    C. Seafloor spreading creates new crust and results when two oceanic plates collide.
    D. Buoyant magma from melting plates form hot spot volcanoes at transform plate boundaries.
    A Right! Transform boundaries occur when plates slide past one another in opposite directions. Friction builds up at the boundary (fault line) and when it slips energy is released causing an earthquake. Which of the following statements correctly describes a landform associated with convergent plate boundaries?
  103. 103. Which of the following statements correctly describes a landform associated with convergent plate boundaries?
    A. Volcanic mountain ranges form at continental-continental convergent plate boundaries.
    B. Volcanic island chains form at oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    C. Jagged, high mountain ranges form at oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    D. Continental rift zones form at oceanic-continental convergent plate boundaries.
    B Right! Subduction of older, denser oceanic plates under less dense oceanic plates results in the melting of the overlying mantle. The resulting buoyant magma rises to the surface and forms volcanic island chains like the Aleutian Islands. How does ice wedging mechanically weather sandstone?
  104. 104. How does ice wedging mechanically weather sandstone?
    A. Melting of ice in the spring causes minerals in sandstone to be carried away, leaving smaller pieces behind.
    B. Repeated freezing and melting of water in the cracks of sandstone breaks the rock into smaller pieces.
    C. Water mixed with atmospheric carbon dioxide reacts with the minerals in sandstone and weakens the bonds so it breaks easily.
    D. Abrasion of ice and water causes the outer layers of sandstone to be removed leaving smooth, rounded rock pieces.
    B Right! Mechanical weathering causes rocks to break into smaller pieces while retaining their chemical properties. Ice wedging occurs when water makes its way into rocks and expands when it freezes and contracts when it melts. Over time the cycles of freezing and melting break off pieces of the rock. Which of the following statements correctly describes the formation of landforms due to the erosional action of glaciers?
  105. 105. Which of the following statements correctly describes the formation of landforms due to the erosional action of glaciers?
    A. Rocks and debris are picked up and carried in the ice; moraines and drumlins form when the ice melts and the debris is deposited.
    B. Rocks and debris are sorted by size during the movement of a glacier; deltas and spits result from the deposited material.
    C. Rocks and debris embedded in the ice scrapes mountain sides forming V-shaped valleys.
    D. Rocks and debris add to the weight of continental glaciers depressing the land and forming sinkholes.
    A Right! Glaciers erode the land slowly by picking up rocks and other debris and carrying it to new locations. Moraines, drumlins, striations, and U-shaped valleys are landforms associated with glaciers. Which of the following landforms result from the activity of groundwater?
  106. 106. Which of the following landforms result from the activity of groundwater?
    A. V-shaped valleys and drumlins
    B. Seamounts and arches
    C. Deltas and striations
    D. Sinkholes and caverns
    D Right! Groundwater dissolves underground rocks and minerals forming sinkholes, caves, and caverns. Land subsidence occurs when sediment compresses because the groundwater in the pore spaces is removed. Which of the following statements correctly describe the gases in the Earth's atmosphere?
  107. 107. Which of the following statements correctly describe the gases in the Earth's atmosphere?
    A.
    B. Nitrogen and oxygen make up 80% of the Earth's atmosphere.
    C. Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas in the Earth's atmosphere.
    D. The percentage of water vapor and carbon dioxide gases in the atmosphere varies between 5% and 10%. 90% of the gas molecules in the atmosphere are located in the stratosphere.
    B Right! Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the making up 78% followed by oxygen at 21%. The elements argon, neon, helium, methane, and hydrogen are permanent gases found in trace amounts. Water vapor, carbon dioxide, ozone, sulfur dioxide, and nitrogen dioxide are also found in the atmosphere in varying amounts. Which of the following statements correctly describes the weather changes associated with a warm front?
  108. 108. Which of the following statements correctly describes the weather changes associated with a warm front?
    A. Increasing cloudiness and light precipitation followed by warm air and scattered clouds.
    B. Shifting winds and cold temperatures followed by thunderstorms.
    C. Increasing warm surface winds and formation of cumulonimbus clouds.
    D. Shifting winds and formation of dense, unstable cumulus clouds as warm air is forced upward.
    A Right! As warm air masses replace cold air masses (warm front), the warm air rises over the cold air forming nimbostratus, stratus, altostratus, cirrostratus, and cirrus clouds. Light to moderate precipitation precedes the warm front with warm air and scattered clouds following it. How does the Greenhouse Effect warm the Earth's surface?
  109. 109. How does the Greenhouse Effect warm the Earth's surface?
    A. Greenhouse gases protect the Earth from incoming infrared energy by reflecting it back towards the Sun.
    B. Oxygen and nitrogen are greenhouse gases that absorb ultraviolet radiation and reemit it Earthward to heat the surface.
    C. Greenhouse gases absorb radiated infrared energy from the ground and reemit it back to the Earth's surface.
    D. Water vapor and carbon monoxide warm the Earth's surface by reemitting energy in the visible range back to the Earth's surface.
    C Right! Water vapor and carbon dioxide are Greenhouse gases that are transparent to visible light emitted from the Sun. They absorb longer-wavelength infrared radiation and reemit it back to the Earth's surface. Which of the following are measured using a seismometer?
  110. 110. Which of the following are measured using a seismometer?
    A. Earthquake magnitude and epicenter location
    B. Changes in mountain height and tectonic plate motion
    C. Depth of land subsidence and earthquake probability
    D. Pressure at fault lines and movement of ocean waves
    A Right! Seismometers (seismographs) measure ground motion and determine earthquake magnitude and the amplitude of earthquake waves. They can also be used to determine the speed of P-waves, S-waves, and surface waves and to infer the structure of Earth's interior.
  111. 111. Which of the following correctly describes the role of convection currents in the atmosphere?
    A. Convection currents cause sea breezes during the night as warm air over the ocean cools the land.
    B. Convection currents cause Hadley cells because the surface of the Earth is heated equally during the day.
    C. Convection currents cause prevailing winds as gases in the troposphere mix with gases in the thermosphere.
    D. Convection currents cause warm, moist air to rise at the equator and cool, dry air to sink at 30o north and south.
    D Right! Convection currents are responsible for mixing the gases in the troposphere on a local and global basis. Globally, Hadley cells cause warm, moist air to rise at the equator and at 60o north and south and for cool, dry air to sink at 30o north and south and at the poles. Which statement correctly describes processes associated with mountain building?
  112. 112. Which statement correctly describes processes associated with mountain building?
    A. As two continental plates collide, the rocks and minerals buckle and are pushed upward into a jagged mountain range.
    B. When two continental plates diverge, lava from the lithosphere fills the gap, creating a chain of non-volcanic rounded mountains.
    C. When two plates at a transform plate boundary pass, friction builds and causes the edges of the plates to fold into a coastal mountain range.
    D. As two oceanic plates collide, the buildup of pressure forms a chain of non-volcanic mountains.
    A Right! The collision of two continental plates results in the formation of mountains ranges like the Himalayan mountain range. The force of the collision causes the granitic crust to fold into mountains. Which of the following landforms are found at a divergent boundary?
  113. 113. Which of the following landforms are found at a divergent boundary?
    A. Ocean trenches and hot spot volcanoes
    B. Volcanic island arcs and deltas
    C. Ocean ridges and continental rifts
    D. Land subsidence and seamounts
    C Right! As plates move apart, material from the asthenosphere erupts through fissures. If the plate boundary is under the ocean, an ocean ridge forms (Mid-Atlantic ridge) and if the plate boundary is within a continent, a continental rift forms (East African Rift Zone). Which of these is the best example of chemical weathering?
  114. 114. Which of these is the best example of chemical weathering?
    A. Carbonic acid breaks down granite into potassium ions, clay minerals, and quartz.
    B. Expanding ice causes a limestone boulder to break into smaller pieces.
    C. The roots of a tree produce cracks in a layer of sandstone as they grow.
    D. Wind carries sand across a desert over long distances.
    A Right! Chemical weathering occurs when rocks decompose by chemical means. Water combines with carbon dioxide in the atmosphere forming carbonic acid which reacts chemically with granite forming potassium ions, clay minerals, and quartz. Which of the following statements describe how deltas are formed?
  115. 115. Which of the following statements describe how deltas are formed?
    A. Rivers pick up sediment when moving downhill; when the river flows into the ocean, its speed decreases and the sediment is deposited at the mouth of the river.
    B. Glaciers pick up debris when moving downhill; when the ice melts, fan-shaped hills of unsorted debris form.
    C. High winds pick up fine and coarse sediment; when the wind speed drops, the sediment is deposited in mounds.
    D. Fast moving groundwater dissolves minerals; when the water evaporates, funnel-shaped cavities form.
    A Right! Deltas form when a river or stream flows into a larger body of water. When the river enters the larger water body, its speed decreases and it deposits the sediment it is carrying to form a fan-shaped delta. Which of following form because of the erosional activity of glaciers?
  116. 116. Which of following form because of the erosional activity of glaciers?
    A. Striations and U-shaped valleys
    B. Land subsidence and caverns
    C. Alluvial fans and soil creep
    D. Sinkholes and V-shaped valleys
    A Right! Striations form when rocks embedded in glacial ice scour the land creating parallel scratches. The movement of glaciers down V-shaped valleys erodes the sides and makes them rounded, wider U-shaped valleys. How is the troposphere different than the other atmospheric layers?
  117. 117. How is the troposphere different than the other atmospheric layers?
    A. It consists of ozone which helps protect Earth from ultraviolet radiation.
    B. It consists of ions and produces a faint glow in the night sky.
    C. Its low density of gases results in cold temperatures even though it absorbs solar radiation.
    D. It has a high density of gases which participate in convection currents, clouds, and precipitation.
    D Right! The troposphere is the thinnest, densest layer of the atmosphere and the movement of the molecules contributes to weather. Which statement correctly describes the Coriolis Effect?
  118. 118. Which statement correctly describes the Coriolis Effect?
    A. Deflection of wind to the left in the Northern Hemisphere is caused by friction with the surface of the Earth.
    B. Winds blowing from the equator toward the poles appear to bend in the opposite direction from winds that blow from the poles toward the equator.
    C. Rough areas of the Earth’s surface increase the wind speed and the angle of deflection of wind motion.
    D. The equator experiences the most deflection of air because it receives the greatest amount of solar radiation.
    B Right! The Coriolis Effect is the apparent deflection of the wind because of the daily rotation of the Earth. Wind that blows from the equator toward the poles is deflected in opposite directions than wind blowing from the poles toward the equator. How does deforestation affect the concentration of Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?
  119. 119. How does deforestation affect the concentration of Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?
    A. The burning of fossil fuels decreases the amount of ozone in the troposphere.
    B. The decreased amount of photosynthesis increases the concentration of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
    C. The burning of trees increases the amount of water vapor in the stratosphere.
    D. The decreased number of trees decreases the amount of molecular oxygen (O2).
    B Right! Deforestation increases the amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide because excess carbon dioxide is used as a reactant in the photosynthesis. When trees are removed less carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere. The global positioning system (GPS) would be most useful in studying which of the following?
  120. 120. The global positioning system (GPS) would be most useful in studying which of the following?
    A. Temperature variation in clouds and ocean currents
    B. Motion of wind and rain in thunderstorms
    C. Magnitude and amplitude of seismic waves
    D. Changes in mountain height and tectonic plate movement
    D Right! GPS is used to determine changes in the height of surface features like mountains, to determine the distance tectonic plates have moved, and to map the Earth’s surface.
  121. 121. Which of the following statements correctly describes an interaction between the abiotic and biotic components of a temperate forest?
    A. The cold temperatures during winter months result in trees losing their leaves, many mammals go into hibernation, and most birds migrate south to warmer climates.
    B. The warm, humid, consistent yearly temperatures result in many plant species competing for sunlight.
    C. The warm temperatures during summer months result in a great diversity of species living in the ecosystem making the soil nutrient deficient.
    D. The cold temperatures during winter result in fewer deciduous trees and shrubs because of permafrost.
    A Right! Temperate forests have four seasons, including a warm summer and a cold winter. Temperatures average approximately 0oC – 30oC. The biotic species in the ecosystem adapt to the cold winter by losing leaves, hibernating, and migrating. What is an example of adaptations of organisms to the cold winter months in a coniferous forest?
  122. 122. What is an example of adaptations of organisms to the cold winter months in a coniferous forest?
    A. The shape and waxy layer of pine needles helps prevent freezing.
    B. The dense structure of bird bones help insulate against the cold.
    C. The permafrost layer protects the cone-bearing trees from losing nutrients.
    D. The close proximity of trees prevents snow from breaking branches.
    A Right! Conifer trees such as spruce and fir trees have pine needles which are well adapted for the cold climate. The cone-shape structure of conifer trees also allows snow to fall off so it does not accumulate and break the branches. Which of the following statements is an example of commensalism?
  123. 123. Which of the following statements is an example of commensalism?
    A. A cuckoo bird lays its eggs in a warbler's nest.
    B. A mosquito drinks the blood of a cow.
    C. A bee gathers nectar from several flowers.
    D. A remora rides on a shark and feeds on its leftovers.
    D Right! Commensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship that occurs when one organism benefits and the other organism is not affected. A remora does not affect the shark but benefits by eating the scraps that the shark does not eat. Which of the following correctly defines a niche?
  124. 124. Which of the following correctly defines a niche?
    A. All of the abiotic and biotic resources used by a species.
    B. The total of the ecosystem resources for which two species compete.
    C. All of the trophic levels contained within as ecosystem.
    D. The total number of interactions between the abiotic and biotic components in a population.
    A Right! A niche describes the abiotic and biotic resources that a species uses and includes the organisms it eats, the space it inhabits, as well as the water it drinks. Which of the following statements correctly describes primary ecological succession?
  125. 125. Which of the following statements correctly describes primary ecological succession?
    A. Climax communities are established faster in primary succession than in secondary succession.
    B. Shrubs are the first organisms to grow after an ecological disturbance like a fire.
    C. Hardy pioneer species that can withstand changes in temperature and limited nutrients grow first.
    D. Wind-blown seeds germinate in the exposed soil and become the pioneer species.
    C Right! Primary succession occurs when rock is formed or exposed through volcanic or glacial activity. The lack of soil in the ecosystem requires that pioneer species are able to grow on rock without the shelter of other species. Which of the following correctly describes how solar energy affects the Earth's surface?
  126. 126. Which of the following correctly describes how solar energy affects the Earth's surface?
    A. The Northern Hemisphere is warmer during the summer months because its angle to the Sun results in more direct solar energy.
    B. The intensity of solar energy determines the number of global convection cells.
    C. Condensation of water vapor in the hydrologic cycle occurs when the amount of solar energy in the troposphere increases.
    D. Solar energy causes buoyant cold air to rise over dense warm air when two fronts collide.
    A Right! Solar energy affects the Earth’s surface in many ways. Summer in the Northern Hemisphere occurs when the Earth is angled towards the Sun and receives more direct solar energy. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of bacteria in the nitrogen cycle?
  127. 127. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of bacteria in the nitrogen cycle?
    A. Nitrifying bacteria convert organic nitrogen molecules into inorganic molecules for use by animals.
    B. Denitrifying bacteria absorb ammonium (NH4+) and convert it into nitrates (NO3-).
    C. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonium (NH4+).
    D. Bacteria act as decomposers converting molecular nitrogen (N2) into nitrates (NO3-).
    C Right! Bacteria are essential to the nitrogen cycle and convert inorganic atmospheric nitrogen molecules into organic molecules that can be used by animals. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria start the process by taking atmospheric nitrogen and converting it to ammonium which is then converted to nitrates by nitrifying bacteria. Denitrifying bacteria return convert organic nitrogen into inorganic nitrogen so it can be released back into the atmosphere. Which of the following processes of the hydrologic (water) cycle require an input of solar energy?
  128. 128. Which of the following processes of the hydrologic (water) cycle require an input of solar energy?
    A. Evaporation and wind
    B. Surface runoff and plant transpiration
    C. Groundwater and percolation
    D. Freezing and condensation
    A Right! Solar energy warms the Earth’s surface and causes evaporation of water into the atmosphere. Winds are caused when air moves from warm areas, heated by solar radiation, to cold areas. Which of the following describes the difference between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
  129. 129. Which of the following describes the difference between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
    A. Autotrophs undergo cellular respiration to produce glucose; heterotrophs break down glucose through photosynthesis.
    B. Autotrophs generate the glucose they need by converting inorganic molecules into organic molecules; heterotrophs must consume other organisms to obtain the glucose they need.
    C. Autotrophs can be described as primary, secondary, tertiary, or quaternary; heterotrophs all belong to the same group.
    D. Autotrophs consume photosynthetic organisms; heterotrophs break down dead organic matter.
    B Right! Autotroph (“self-feeders”) is a term used for organisms that are producers, such as plants, that can make their own food via the process of photosynthesis. These organisms use the sun’s energy to convert the inorganic molecules carbon dioxide and water into the organic molecule glucose with water as a by-product. Heterotrophs (“other-feeders”) must consume outside food sources for energy. Examples of heterotrophs include: humans, snakes, dogs, mice, horses, butterflies, turtles, etc. Why is only 10% of energy transferred between trophic levels in an energy pyramid?
  130. 130. Why is only 10% of energy transferred between trophic levels in an energy pyramid?
    A. Most of the energy is used directly by the organism for breathing, finding food, and mating.
    B. The organism uses 25% of its total energy for reproduction and growth.
    C. Less biomass is available at the first trophic level therefore less energy is transferred.
    D. The energy transferred to higher trophic levels is heat resulting from the maintenance of the organisms in the lower level.
    A Right! The organisms at each trophic level use most of the energy for maintenance (breathing, finding food, repairing injuries), reproduction, and growth. Some energy is also lost to the environment as heat leaving only 10% of the energy available to be transferred up to the next trophic level.
  131. 131. Which of the following statements correctly describe an interaction that exists between abiotic and biotic factors in temperate grasslands?
    A. Dry, cold winters reduce the amount of nutrients in the soil.
    B. Grazing by large mammals reduces the number of shrubs and trees.
    C. Frequent summer precipitation causes rich, fertile soil.
    D. Periodic droughts and fire discourages the growth of trees, and foster an abundance of grasses.
    D Right! Droughts and fire are abiotic factors that affect the biotic factors in the temperate grassland biome. Grasses quickly repopulate the ecosystem after a fire whereas tree growth is limited. Which of the following statements correctly describes how the permafrost layer affects the tundra biome?
  132. 132. Which of the following statements correctly describes how the permafrost layer affects the tundra biome?
    A. It favors the growth of low shrubs and lichens because they do not require a deep root system.
    B. It decreases the amount of water infiltration, resulting in nutrient rich soil.
    C. It promotes fire because the shrubs and grass dry out during the long summer.
    D. It prevents large mammals from living in the ecosystem due to the lack of vegetation.
    A Right! Permafrost is a permanent layer of frozen subsoil which prevents the growth of many species. The plant species in the tundra include low shrubs, moss, and grasses, and lichen are also common. Which of the following statements correctly describes a mutualistic relationship between organisms?
  133. 133. Which of the following statements correctly describes a mutualistic relationship between organisms?
    A. A tapeworm living in the intestine of a pig and obtaining nutrients.
    B. Honey bees mediating pollination of flowers while eating nectar.
    C. Seals and squid obtaining energy by eating fish.
    D. An insect camouflaged to look like a branch that is part of its niche.
    B Right! This is an example of a mutualism, where both organisms involved benefit from the relationship. The bee is able to acquire energy from eating the nectar and the flowers benefit from having their pollen distributed over a large area with more precision than other pollen distribution methods. Which of the following are parts of a deer's niche?
  134. 134. Which of the following are parts of a deer's niche?
    A. Migrating distance, limestone, and hawks
    B. Rabbits and insects
    C. Soil pH, insects, and nuts
    D. Grass, shrubs, and water
    D Right! A niche is a total set of abiotic (non living) and biotic (living) resources used by an organism. Deer are herbivores (plant eaters) and will consume the biotic factors of grass and plant shrubs as part of their diet, and of course require the abiotic factor of water to sustain life. Which of the following disturbances would most likely be followed by secondary succession?
  135. 135. Which of the following disturbances would most likely be followed by secondary succession?
    A. Volcanic eruptions form a new island.
    B. Glaciers retreat, leaving rocky moraines.
    C. Fire on a prairie consumes existing biotic species.
    D. Erosion removes soil, exposing bare rock.
    C Right! Secondary succession occurs in areas that have been disturbed by a fire or other event but the soil remains intact for colonization by biotic species like grasses. What is the relationship between solar energy and photosynthesis?
  136. 136. What is the relationship between solar energy and photosynthesis?
    A. During photosynthesis, solar energy is used to convert carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and glucose.
    B. During photosynthesis, solar energy excites cellular mitochondria to form inorganic molecules.
    C. Solar energy is captured by cytoplasm in plant cells for use in photosynthesis.
    D. Solar energy is used to convert chemical energy to light energy during photosynthesis.
    A Right! Solar energy is used in the light-dependent reaction of photosynthesis. During this reaction, solar energy excites chlorophyll, ejecting an electron. Oxygen becomes a by-product as the chlorophyll uses an electron from water to replace the missing electron. Which of the following correctly describes part of the carbon cycle?
  137. 137. Which of the following correctly describes part of the carbon cycle?
    A. The Krebs cycle fixes atmospheric carbon dioxide for use by photosynthetic organisms.
    B. Solar energy is required to return carbon dioxide to the atmosphere through the process of cellular respiration.
    C. Burning fossil fuels decreases the amount of carbon dioxide returned to the atmosphere.
    D. Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is absorbed during photosynthesis and then returned to the atmosphere during cellular respiration.
    D Right! Photosynthetic organisms convert atmospheric carbon dioxide into glucose. Organisms release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere when they break down glucose through cellular respiration. Both of these processes are parts of the carbon cycle. Which of the following pair of processes is part of the carbon cycle?
  138. 138. Which of the following pair of processes is part of the carbon cycle?
    A. Ammonification and nitrification
    B. Volcanic eruption and burning of fossil fuels
    C. Evapotranspiration and percolation
    D. Glacial retreat and wind erosion
    B Right! Carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere when fossil fuels are burned or when a volcano erupts. In a terrestrial food chain, rabbits ingest plants, snakes ingest rabbits, and hawks ingest snakes. Which of the following terms correctly identifies the role of snakes in this food chain?
  139. 139. In a terrestrial food chain, rabbits ingest plants, snakes ingest rabbits, and hawks ingest snakes. Which of the following terms correctly identifies the role of snakes in this food chain?
    A. Producer
    B. Primary consumer
    C. Secondary consumer
    D. Decomposer
    C Right! In this terrestrial food chain, plants are the producers, rabbits are the primary consumers, snakes are the secondary consumers, and hawks are the tertiary consumers. Which of the following statements correctly describe the energy available at the various trophic levels?
  140. 140. Which of the following statements correctly describe the energy available at the various trophic levels?
    A. The production of ADP through photosynthesis at each trophic level releases energy into the environment.
    B. Less energy is available at the first level of the energy pyramid because there are more organisms using the available energy.
    C. Few tertiary consumers exist in an ecosystem because the amount of usable energy decreases moving from one trophic level to next.
    D. The production of glucose at the tertiary trophic level provides ATP for consumers at the next trophic level.
    C Right! The base of the energy pyramid is the first trophic level and consists of producers that carry out photosynthesis. The first trophic level contains the most energy. At each trophic level, only 10% of energy is transferred to the next level. As a result, there is less energy available to support tertiary consumers resulting in fewer of these organisms.
  141. 141. Which of the following adaptations did Darwin observe in finches in the Galapagos Island that suggested natural selection had occurred?
    A. Differences in beak size and shape varied with the types of food available in the environment.
    B. Differences in feather structure and coloration varied with seasonal temperatures.
    C. Differences in plumage allowed finches to access various food sources.
    D. Differences in body size allowed finches to build nests in various locations.
    A Right! Darwin observed that the finches exhibited different beak sizes and shapes depending on the type of food available in the habitat. A scientist is studying a new species of rabbit. The observation of which of the following traits would suggest that the rabbit is well adapted to a desert environment?
  142. 142. A scientist is studying a new species of rabbit. The observation of which of the following traits would suggest that the rabbit is well adapted to a desert environment?
    A. small, furry ears
    B. blood vessels close to the skin
    C. thick layers of fur and fat
    D. dark fur
    B Right! Animal adaptations in hot, dry, desert climates include: longer appendages, blood vessels close to the skin, and paler coloration. Which of the following is an example of anatomical homologies that can be explained by the theory of evolution?
  143. 143. Which of the following is an example of anatomical homologies that can be explained by the theory of evolution?
    A. The cells of mammal species have different genetic machinery than reptile species.
    B. Organisms that occupy the same ecological niche in different parts of the world are closely related.
    C. Mammal forelimbs contain the same sets of bones but perform different functions.
    D. Transitional fossils link bird species to dinosaur species in the fossil record.
    C Right! Human, cat, whale, and bat forelimbs contain the same bones but have differing functions. Humans use their forelimbs for carrying things, bats use them for flying, whales use them for swimming, and cats use them for walking. This is an example of an anatomical homology that supports the theory of evolution. Which of the following statements correctly describes how biogeography supports the theory of evolution?
  144. 144. Which of the following statements correctly describes how biogeography supports the theory of evolution?
    A. Organisms in tropical forests evolved from a common ancestor because they occupy the same ecological niche.
    B. Island species closely resemble the organisms found on the nearest mainland because they share a common ancestor.
    C. Sugar gliders and flying squirrels both have the ability to fly because they share a common ancestor.
    D. Desert species progress through the same stages of embryological development as forest species because they share a common ancestor.
    B Right! Biogeography explains that closely related species are found in close proximity to one another. Organisms with similar adaptations found in different parts of the world are not closely related; the adaptation evolved independently due to natural selection not from a common ancestor. Which of the following statements correctly describes characteristics of an organism in the Domain Eukarya?
  145. 145. Which of the following statements correctly describes characteristics of an organism in the Domain Eukarya?
    A. Bacteria are classified in this domain because they have no true nucleus.
    B. Humans are classified in this domain because their cells contain nuclei.
    C. E. coli are classified in this domain because they are autotrophic, multicellular organisms.
    D. Extremophiles are classified in this domain because they are unicellular chemoautotrophs.
    B Right! The domain Eukarya includes all organisms with nucleated cells and includes the Kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia. Which statement correctly describes the characteristics of an organism in the Kingdom Fungi?
  146. 146. Which statement correctly describes the characteristics of an organism in the Kingdom Fungi?
    A. Mushrooms are classified in this kingdom because they are stationary heterotrophs.
    B. Sunflowers are classified in this kingdom because they are autotrophs with stems and roots.
    C. Bacteria cells are classified in this kingdom because they are unicellular organisms with no true nucleus.
    D. E. coli are classified in this kingdom because they are unicellular heterotrophs.
    A Right! Mushrooms, truffles, and yeast cells are all examples of organisms in Kingdom Fungi. They are classified as types of fungus mainly because they are stationary heterotrophs. Which trait can become more common in a mouse population due to natural selection?
  147. 147. Which trait can become more common in a mouse population due to natural selection?
    A. maximum size of ears
    B. loss of a tails due to injury
    C. learning to visit a barn to find food
    D. change in fur color due to an illness
    A Right! Natural selection can affect only inherited traits, which are passed from parent to offspring. The shape and size of ears is something that is inherited. Traits that an organism acquires during its life, such as injuries or things it has learned, are not passed on to offspring and therefore cannot be affected by natural selection. A scientist discovers a new organism. It is a unicellular prokaryote that is an autotroph. In which group does this organism most likely belong?
  148. 148. A scientist discovers a new organism. It is a unicellular prokaryote that is an autotroph. In which group does this organism most likely belong?
    A. Kingdom Plantae
    B. Domain Bacteria
    C. Kingdom Protista
    D. Domain Eukarya
    B Right! The organisms in Domain Bacteria are all unicellular prokaryotes Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between mammals and reptiles?
  149. 149. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between mammals and reptiles?
    A. Mammals are invertebrates with hair and reptiles are invertebrates with leathery skin.
    B. Mammals are endotherms and reptiles are ectotherms.
    C. Mammals have an internal skeleton and reptiles have an exoskeleton.
    D. Mammals have hollow bones and reptile bones are made of chitin.
    B Right! Mammals are endothermic organisms that produce milk and have hair. Reptiles are ectothermic organisms with scales that lay leathery eggs. Which of the following traits are Arthropod characteristics?
  150. 150. Which of the following traits are Arthropod characteristics?
    A. Endothermic metabolism and hard shelled eggs
    B. Internal skeleton and chemoautotrophism
    C. Hollow bones and circular musculature
    D. Jointed appendages and segmented bodies
    D Right! Arthropods are invertebrates that have jointed appendages, segmented bodies, and exoskeletons composed of chitin.
  151. 151. Which of the following adaptations are common in animals that live in a cold climate (such as the Arctic)?
    A. Larger ear size and bold coloration
    B. More blood vessels near the skin and pale coloration
    C. Larger body size and smaller appendages
    D. Larger surface area-to-volume ratio and thicker skin
    C Right! Animal adaptations in cold climates include smaller surface area-to-volume ratios, insulating layers from fur and feathers, blubber, and smaller appendages. If a few members of a butterfly population produce caterpillars that have the ability to eat toxic milkweed and make themselves unappetizing to potential predators, what will likely happen to the population over time?
  152. 152. If a few members of a butterfly population produce caterpillars that have the ability to eat toxic milkweed and make themselves unappetizing to potential predators, what will likely happen to the population over time?
    A. The caterpillars with the ability to eat milkweed will survive to adulthood more often than those that lack this trait and will pass the trait on to their offspring so that the trait becomes more common in the population with every generation.
    B. The caterpillars with the ability to eat milkweed will spontaneously develop other new traits within one or two generations, resulting in a new butterfly species incapable of mating with butterflies that cannot eat milkweed.
    C. The number of butterflies with the ability to eat milkweed will remain relatively constant from generation to generation as caterpillars learn to eat it entirely by chance and the probability remains constant.
    D. The number of caterpillars with the ability to eat milkweed will decrease over each generation since the majority of the butterflies cannot eat milkweed and the traits of the individuals that are most numerous will dominate the population.
    A Right! Natural selection occurs when organisms born with a specific advantageous trait live and pass that trait to their offspring. Monarch butterflies become toxic when they eat a milkweed plant as caterpillars, which over time discourages predators from eating them, since the toxin makes them taste bad to predators like birds. Which of the following statements correctly explains how embryological development supports the theory of evolution?
  153. 153. Which of the following statements correctly explains how embryological development supports the theory of evolution?
    A. Mice, humans, and pigs have very different DNA sequences, causing skeletal differentiation during the development of the embryo.
    B. Snakes and fish develop tiny hind legs in their skeleton during embryological development.
    C. Turtles, humans, and chicks develop gill slits and a tail posterior to the anus during one stage of their embryological development.
    D. Whales and cats convert amino acids into lipids during the development of the embryo and form identical forelimb bones.
    C Right! During the development of the embryo of vertebrate species, there is a stage where throat pouches form in addition to a tail posterior to the anus. A common ancestor explains these embryological similarities among developing vertebrate embryos. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial organ that supports the theory of evolution?
  154. 154. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial organ that supports the theory of evolution?
    A. Gill slits in human embryos
    B. Pelvis bones in snakes
    C. Bones in bat forelimb
    D. Tail posterior to anus in mice
    B Right! Vestigial organs are the remnants of an organ that served a purpose in an ancestral species but no longer functions and is still part of the organism’s anatomy. Pelvis and leg bones are still found in snakes even though they no longer function. Which statement correctly describes the characteristics of an organism in the Kingdom Protista?
  155. 155. Which statement correctly describes the characteristics of an organism in the Kingdom Protista?
    A. Dinoflagellates are classified in this kingdom because they are unicellular eukaryotes that can be autotrophs or heterotrophs.
    B. Amoebas are classified in this kingdom because they have roots and stomata.
    C. Slime molds are classified in this kingdom because they consist of multicellular cells with chloroplasts but no nuclei.
    D. Plasmodia are classified in this kingdom because they capture the nuclei from red blood cells and acquire nucleated cells.
    A Right! The Protista kingdom is very diverse but mostly includes unicellular organisms with nucleated cells. Some protists are producers and others are consumers. Organisms in this kingdom can be unicellular, multicellular, autotrophic, or heterotrophic but all organisms in this kingdom are eukaryotes, meaning that their cells contain a true nucleus. Which of the following domains of classification would include E. coli?
  156. 156. Which of the following domains of classification would include E. coli?
    A. Eukarya because E. coli has cells that contain nuclei.
    B. Archaea because E. coli are chemoautotrophs.
    C. Protista because E.coli are unicellular heterotrophs.
    D. Bacteria because E. coli have prokaryotic cells.
    D Right! E. coli are classified in the Domain Bacteria because they are unicellular prokaryotes. Dogs and cats share a more recent common ancestor than dogs and birds share. What is most likely true?
  157. 157. Dogs and cats share a more recent common ancestor than dogs and birds share. What is most likely true?
    A. Dogs and birds are classified in the same genus.
    B. Dogs and cats are classified in different domains.
    C. Dogs and birds have more physical traits in common than dogs and cats do.
    D. Dogs and cats have more genetic similarities than dogs and birds do.
    D Right! The more recent the common ancestor of two species, the more similar their genetic material is likely to be. Which of the following best describes natural selection?
  158. 158. Which of the following best describes natural selection?
    A. Organisms that have beneficial traits are more likely to survive and pass on their traits to their offspring. Over time, the beneficial traits become more common in the population.
    B. Organisms that are injured are less likely to survive and reproduce. Over time, fewer members of the population become injured.
    C. Humans choose organisms with desirable traits to breed with each other. Over time, the traits become more pronounced in the offspring.
    D. Environmental changes separate groups of organisms. Over time, the separate groups become less genetically diverse because they started from a smaller population.
    A Right! Natural selection occurs when beneficial traits are passed on to offspring more often than harmful traits are. Over time, more individuals in the population have the beneficial traits. Which of the following traits are characteristic of plants?
  159. 159. Which of the following traits are characteristic of plants?
    A. They are always motile and serve as tertiary consumers.
    B. They are autotrophic and multicellular.
    C. They lack specialized tissues needed for obtaining nutrients.
    D. They use chloroplasts to ingest photosynthetic microorganisms.
    B Right! Plants are multicellular and use the energy of sunlight to build organic molecules from inorganic Carbon Dioxide, making them autotrophic, which means ‘self-feeding’. Which statement correctly describes characteristics of one of the animal groups?
  160. 160. Which statement correctly describes characteristics of one of the animal groups?
    A. Sponges use tentacles for movement and protection.
    B. Cnidarians create water currents to trap food.
    C. Lampreys have a true jaw for obtaining food.
    D. Mollusks have hinged shells for protection and a muscular foot for movement.
    D Right! Mollusks are organisms in the animal kingdom that often consist of hinged hard shells, a muscular foot, and a mantle, and they are soft bodied. Examples of mollusks include oysters, clams, and mussels
  161. 161. What is a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
    A. A substance which produces light when chemical bonds are broken
    B. A substance that is consumed by the chemical reaction and must be replaced
    C. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction by lowering its activation energy
    D. A substance that inhibits all chemical reactions from taking place
    C Right! A catalyst is a substance that increases (speeds up) the rate of a chemical reaction by lowering its activation energy. A catalyst also remains chemically unchanged in a chemical reaction. Enzymes are examples of biological catalysts, important in chemical reactions common to living systems. Which of the following best describes a difference between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
  162. 162. Which of the following best describes a difference between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
    A. Photosynthesis converts solar energy into chemical energy, whereas cellular respiration converts chemical energy in glucose into a more useable form.
    B. Cellular respiration produces oxygen, whereas photosynthesis uses oxygen as a reactant and energy source.
    C. Animal cells undergo photosynthesis only, whereas plant cells go through cellular respiration only.
    D. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are the same process given different names depending on whether it occurs in plants or animals.
    A Right! During photosynthesis, solar energy is converted into chemical energy that is stored in glucose. During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down to release the stored energy so that it can be used for various life processes. How is a eukaryotic cell different from a prokaryotic cell?
  163. 163. How is a eukaryotic cell different from a prokaryotic cell?
    A. A eukaryotic cell contains a nucleus, but a prokaryotic cell does not.
    B. A eukaryotic cell has pilli, but a prokaryotic cell does not.
    C. A eukaryotic cell contains genetic material, but a prokaryotic cell does not.
    D. A eukaryotic cell has a cell membrane, but a prokaryotic cell does not.
    A Right! A key difference between eukaryotic (“true nucleus”) and prokaryotic (“before nucleus”) cells is that eukaryotic cells contain a nucleus. What is the main function of the respiratory system in humans?
  164. 164. What is the main function of the respiratory system in humans?
    A. transportation of nutrients through the body
    B. exchange of gases with the environment
    C. conservation of water during hot weather
    D. directing responses to environmental stimuli
    B Right! The respiratory system (the mouth and nose, trachea, and lungs) is the body system that is primarily responsible for gas exchange. Inside the lungs, carbon dioxide leaves the bloodstream and oxygen enters the bloodstream. Which of the following is a characteristic of mitosis?
  165. 165. Which of the following is a characteristic of mitosis?
    A. It involves crossing over
    B. It occurs in reproductive (sex) cells
    C. It occurs in body (somatic) cells
    D. It results in four genetically-diverse cells
    C Right! Mitosis is a form of body cell division in which one parent cell divides into two daughter cells that contain the same genetic information as the parent cell. A scientist observes a cell under a microscope and concludes that it is a eukaryotic cell. What did the scientist most likely observe that led to this conclusion?
  166. 166. A scientist observes a cell under a microscope and concludes that it is a eukaryotic cell. What did the scientist most likely observe that led to this conclusion?
    A. the presence of mitochondria and chloroplasts in the cell
    B. the presence of genetic material in the cell
    C. the absence of a cell membrane
    D. the absence of a cell nucleus
    A Right! Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria and chloroplasts and a nucleus. Mendel's Law of Segregation states that:
  167. 167. Mendel's Law of Segregation states that:
    A. an individual inherits an allele for each trait from each parent and during gamete formation the alleles inherited are a matter of chance
    B. one allele of each pair is randomly removed during gamete formation and therefore not passed on to the next generation.
    C. 50% of all siblings will exhibit the exact same genotype and phenotype as the dominant parent.
    D. The genes and alleles for certain traits are always passed down in the same sequence and proportion from each parent.
    A Right! Mendel put forth that heritable factors that determine traits consist of two alleles, one inherited from each parent. This is known as Mendel’s law of segregation. Why do radiation treatments for cancer negatively affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
  168. 168. Why do radiation treatments for cancer negatively affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
    A. GI tract cells are rapidly dividing cells and are not able to repair damage done by radiation.
    B. GI tract cells rarely divide and so they sit and absorb vast amounts of toxic radiation.
    C. Radiation prevents food from being digested.
    D. Radiation increases the temperature inside the GI tract.
    A Right! Since the cells of the GI tract are naturally rapidly dividing at all times, radiation can negatively affect these cells by not allowing sufficient time for cell repair; a side effect from this cancer treatment is diarrhea in the patient undergoing the radiation treatment. Which of the following reactions absorbs energy from the environment?
  169. 169. Which of the following reactions absorbs energy from the environment?
    A. cellular respiration
    B. burning wood
    C. dynamite exploding
    D. photosynthesis
    D Right! Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction. Cells, tissues, ______, and organ systems work together to perform bodily functions:
  170. 170. Cells, tissues, ______, and organ systems work together to perform bodily functions:
    A. Nodes
    B. Genes
    C. Organs
    D. Homeostasis
    C Right! Cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems work together to perform bodily functions. Organ systems in the human body include the cardiovascular system, the immune system, the nervous system, and the digestive system.
  171. 171. The addition of which of the following might help to increase the rate of a given chemical reaction?
    A. Pepper
    B. ice
    C. Sunlight
    D. Darkness
    C Right! The addition of sunlight or heat would help to increase the rate of a given chemical reaction, as higher temperatures tend to increase reaction rates. The higher the temperature of the material, the faster its molecules are moving, and the more forceful the collisions between them become. Which of the following is a characteristic of BOTH photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
  172. 172. Which of the following is a characteristic of BOTH photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
    A. The end product is glucose in both processes.
    B. ATP is produced at some point in both processes.
    C. The end product is oxygen in both processes.
    D. Light is required for the reaction to proceed in both processes.
    B Right! Both cellular respiration and photosynthesis produce ATP to carry out the respective processes. Prokaryotic cells may contain:
  173. 173. Prokaryotic cells may contain:
    A. Pili
    B. A Nucleus
    C. Membrane bound organelles
    D. Mitochondria
    A Right! Prokaryotic cells may contain pili. All other choices listed are characteristics of eukaryotic cells. Which of the following processes occurs only in organisms that reproduce sexually?
  174. 174. Which of the following processes occurs only in organisms that reproduce sexually?
    A. mitosis
    B. meiosis
    C. cellular respiration
    D. natural selection
    B Right! Meiosis produces sex cells, so it occurs only in organisms that use sexual reproduction. All of the following are associated with Mitosis except:
  175. 175. All of the following are associated with Mitosis except:
    A. Crossing Over
    B. Prophase
    C. Somatic (body) cell division
    D. identical daughter cells
    A Right! Crossing over occurs during meiosis, not mitosis, and is a key contributor to genetic diversity. Which two organ systems are primarily responsible for support and movement?
  176. 176. Which two organ systems are primarily responsible for support and movement?
    A. nervous system and endocrine system
    B. muscular system and skeletal system
    C. circulatory system and respiratory system
    D. digestive system and reproductive system
    B Right! The skeletal system (the bones, joints, and ligaments) helps to support the body, and the muscular system (muscles and tendons) allows the body to move. Which statement best describes Mendel's law of independent assortment?
  177. 177. Which statement best describes Mendel's law of independent assortment?
    A. Male offspring receive more genetic material than female offspring.
    B. The genes for most physical traits are found on the same chromosome.
    C. The inheritance of one trait does not affect the inheritance of another trait.
    D. All offspring receive the same genes from each parent.
    C Right! The law of independent assortment states that traits are inherited independently of one another. For example, inheriting a certain flower color is independent of inheriting a certain flower shape. Why can radiation be an effective treatment of cancer cells?
  178. 178. Why can radiation be an effective treatment of cancer cells?
    A. Cancer cells cannot survive when exposed to components of the electromagnetic spectrum.
    B. Radiation stops meiosis.
    C. Cancer cells have less time to repair damage caused by radiation.
    D. Radiation causes cells to shrink.
    C Right! Cancer cells are frequently dividing cells (literally mitosis gone awry) and so doses of radiation damage the cancer cells and their DNA and leave these frequently dividing cells little time for repair. Which statement correctly compares photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
  179. 179. Which statement correctly compares photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
    A. Only plants carry out photosynthesis, and only animals carry out cellular respiration.
    B. Photosynthesis is endothermic, and cellular respiration is exothermic.
    C. Cellular respiration requires sunlight, and photosynthesis requires darkness.
    D. Only unicellular organisms carry out photosynthesis, and only multicellular organisms carry out cellular respiration.
    B Right! Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction because it absorbs sunlight and converts it to stored chemical energy. The products of photosynthesis contain more stored chemical energy than the reactants contain. Cellular respiration is exothermic because it releases energy. The products of cellular respiration contain less stored chemical energy than the reactants do. How do the respiratory and circulatory systems work together to support body functions?
  180. 180. How do the respiratory and circulatory systems work together to support body functions?
    A. The respiratory system controls body temperature, and the circulatory system controls blood glucose levels.
    B. The circulatory system carries oxygen to the lungs, and the lungs transfer carbon dioxide into the blood.
    C. The respiratory system senses the oxygen level of the blood and increases or decreases heart rate to make sure tissues have enough oxygen.
    D. The respiratory system maintains the oxygen content of the blood, and the circulatory system carries the oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
    D Right! The primary function of the respiratory system is gas exchange—taking in oxygen and getting rid of carbon dioxide. In the lungs, oxygen enters the bloodstream. The circulatory system moves the oxygenated blood to the rest of the body so that all of the body's cells have enough oxygen.
  181. 181. Which of the following is an example of science's impact on another discipline?
    A. Science fosters a global movement towards world peace
    B. The economy is improving due to science
    C. Legal cases are more easily solved based on DNA evidence.
    D. There is no risk of endangered or extinct species due to advances in cloning.
    C Right! Advances in DNA analysis and technology have led to improvements in legal and criminal justice fields. How does earth science relate to chemistry?
  182. 182. How does earth science relate to chemistry?
    A. Chemistry’s periodic table of elements is crucial in understanding Earth’s structure, especially when studying rocks and minerals.
    B. Chemistry explains seismic wave motion, leading to a better understanding of earthquake behavior.
    C. Chemistry helps to explain the speed and properties of light.
    D. Chemistry is related to the key force which helps drive tectonic plates.
    A Right! The properties of different elements determine their ability to form various rocks and minerals. How does chemistry relate to biology?
  183. 183. How does chemistry relate to biology?
    A. Chemistry is involved in molecular reactions in living organisms.
    B. Chemistry has nothing to do with biology
    C. Chemistry and biology combine to help explain the motion of the planets.
    D. Chemistry and biology help to explain how energy is transferred in sound wave vibrations.
    A Right! Molecular reactions in cells and in living organisms provides an example of a strong connection between chemistry (the study of molecules, molecular interactions, compounds, and reactions) and biology (the study of life; the study of living things). How is the Big Bang theory a unifying theme in astronomy/space science?
  184. 184. How is the Big Bang theory a unifying theme in astronomy/space science?
    A. It accounts for the on-going expansion of our universe.
    B. It accounts for the strong force field that is pulling all of the planets into a dense area of the universe.
    C. It accounts for the fact that our planet is becoming warmer due to solar flares.
    D. It accounts for the lack of life forms anywhere but Earth.
    A Right! The Big Bang theory accounts for the on-going expansion of the universe, and accounts for the beginning of both time and space in the universe. The big bang theory states that our universe began in a primordial explosion, known as the Big Bang, around 13.7 billion years ago and has been expanding ever since. Some evidence for Big Bang includes: the slowing of the galaxies as they recede/expand, element abundance in the universe, and also the long wavelength radiation that permeates the universe. How is evolution a unifying theme in biology/life science?
  185. 185. How is evolution a unifying theme in biology/life science?
    A. It accounts for acquired traits and characteristics in species distributed worldwide.
    B. It accounts for the adaptations of populations to the environment over time.
    C. It helped confirm abiogenesis
    D. It helps explain the movement of the plates.
    B Right! Evolution accounts for the adaptations of populations to the environment over time, and a key driving mechanism in evolution is the process of natural selection.
  186. 186. Which of the following illustrates how science has impacted another discipline?
    A. Science has not made any useful contributions outside of the laboratory.
    B. Advances in meteorology have led to advances in space travel and partnership building among nations.
    C. Research on oil spills has led to science advances and technology that will prevent oil spills from happening in the future.
    D. Research on the environment, habitat, climate change, and endangered species have led to implementation of policies that impact other areas such as business, commerce, politics, and foreign relations.
    D Right! Research on ecosystems and the environment has led to policies such as the clean air act and endangered species act and other global conservation programs. How does earth science relate to physics?
  187. 187. How does earth science relate to physics?
    A. Tectonic plates are guided by the laws of chemistry.
    B. The properties of minerals depend on the elements that make them up.
    C. Convection cells transfer heat from the core to the crust, contributing to the lateral movement of tectonic plates.
    D. Tectonic plates sink into the lithosphere, creating convection currents that in turn cause the vertical movement of the continental plates.
    C Right! Convection cells and convection currents help to drive the movement of the plates. These currents are driven by imbalanced forces within the mantle. Which of the following is an example of how physics relates to astronomy/space science?
  188. 188. Which of the following is an example of how physics relates to astronomy/space science?
    A. The universal law of superposition explains the elliptical movement of the planets.
    B. The formation of the Jovian, outer planets was due to the kinetic energy of the Sun’s radiation.
    C. Gravity helped formed the shape and movement of planets in the solar system.
    D. Physics has nothing to do with space science/astronomy.
    C Right! Gravity is a key force in the development of our solar (sun) system. For example, the sun, the center of our solar system, organizes the shape of the solar system and influences the system’s evolution due to its gravity. How is plate tectonics a unifying theme in geology/earth science?
  189. 189. How is plate tectonics a unifying theme in geology/earth science?
    A. It is a key contributor towards global warming and climate change
    B. It accounts for the geographical distribution of species around the world
    C. It accounts for movement of the Earth's plates as well as geologic structures and processes observed on Earth
    D. It accounts for the fossilization process of ancient organisms.
    C Right! Plate tectonics accounts for the movement of the Earth’s plates as well as geologic structures and processes observed on Earth, such as the formation of mountain ranges, volcanoes, and fault lines where earthquakes can occur. How is biogeography a unifying theme in ecology?
  190. 190. How is biogeography a unifying theme in ecology?
    A. It accounts for the geographical distribution of species around the world
    B. It accounts for the adaptations of individuals.
    C. It is the key influence in biogeochemical cycling on Earth.
    D. It accounts for genetic variation and reproductive success of ectotherms.
    A Right! Biogeography accounts for the geographical distribution of species around the world and it explains that closely related species are found in close proximity to one another

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