Testables 2c

  1. What are 5 common signs or symptoms of congestive heart failure?
    • 1) Tachypnea
    • 2) Pallor
    • 3) Poor feeding
    • 4) Lethargy
    • 5) Hepatomegaly
  2. What are the 5 P's of compartment syndrome?
    • 1) Pain
    • 2) Pallor
    • 3) Paresthesia
    • 4) Paralysis
    • 5) Pulselessness
  3. Which of the 5 P's of compartment syndrome is NOT a late finding?
    Pain - the rest are all LATE findings
  4. What is the test of choice for diagnosis of compartment syndrome?
    Measurement of muscle compartment pressures
  5. What is the MOST common cause of rectal prolapse in children?
    Chronic functional constipation
  6. What are 5 causes of rectal prolapse in children?
    • 1) Functional constipation (30%)
    • 2) Cystic fibrosis (10%)
    • 3) Rectal polyps
    • 4) Repaired anorectal malformation
    • 5) Constipation secondary to myelomeningocele
  7. What is the mode of inheritance of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
    Autosomal dominant
  8. How do you estimate general population risk?
    2 x square root of disease incidence
  9. When someone tells you that a disease is rare, what is a good estimate of the incidence?
    1 in 10,000 to 1 in 50,000
  10. Copious, purulent penile discharge in a sexually active male indicates what type of urethritis?
    Gonococcal urethritis
  11. What are 7 examples of nongonococcal urethritis?
    • 1) Chlamydia trachomatis
    • 2) Ureaplasma urealyticum
    • 3) Mycoplasma genitalium
    • 4) Trichomonas vaginalis
    • 5) Herpes simplez virus
    • 6) Adenovirus
    • 7) Enteric bacteria
  12. In a pre-pubertal boy, what are the effects of exogenous androgen exposure, virilizing adrenal tumor, or late-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia? (3)
    • 1) Pubic hair growth
    • 2) Penile enlargement
    • 3) Growth spurt (with bone age advancement)
    • *** Testes remain < 4ml
  13. What are possible causes of isolated premature thelarche?
    • 1) Exogenous estrogen
    • 2) Estrogen-secreting tumor
    • 3) Early activation of HPA
  14. At what age do children have enough refined finger coordination to button and unbutton clothing?
    36 months (or 3 years)
  15. At what age do most kids achieve day-time continence?
    36 months (or 3 years)
  16. For infants born to HIV-positive mothers, empiric antiretroviral therapy should be started within what time frame?
    6-12 hours
  17. What is the test of choice to confirm HIV infection in an infant with positive antibodies to HIV on serology testing?
    HIV DNA polymerase chain reaction
  18. Why is HIV serology not a good test in an infant younger than 18 months?
    Because positive results can be attributed to passive transfer of maternal antibodies
  19. What are 3 classic lab findings in Fanconi SYNDROME?
    • Proximal tubulopathy
    • 1) Hypophosphatemia
    • 2) Hypokalemia
    • 3) Metabolic acidosis
  20. What are 3 classic symptoms in Fanconi SYNDROME?
    • 1) Polydipsia/polyuria (with subsequent dehydration)
    • 2) Failure to thrive
    • 3) Photophobia
  21. What causes the photophobia in kids with Fanconi SYNDROME?
    Cystine crystal accumulation in the cornea
  22. What diagnostic exam tool do you use in a kid suspected of having Fanconi SYNDROME? (not a lab!)
    Slitlamp ophthalmic exam
  23. What are 2 electrolyte abnormalities in kids with cystic fibrosis?
    • 1) Severe hypochloremia
    • 2) Metabolic alkalosis
  24. What are 3 electrolyte abnormalities in kids with hyperparathyroidism?
    • 1) Hypercalcemia
    • 2) Hypophosphatemia
    • 3) Slightly low bicarb
  25. What are 4 electrolyte abnormalities in kids with salt-wasting nephropathy (Bartter syndrome, Gitelman syndrome)?
    • 1) Hypokalemia
    • 2) Hypomagnesemia
    • 3) Hypochloremia
    • 4) Metabolic alkalosis
  26. When do skin symptoms of serum sickness typically manifest?
    1-2 weeks after starting offending agent (i.e. penicillin)
  27. What are symptoms of serum sickness?
    • 1) Fever
    • 2) Malaise
    • 3) Lymphadenopathy
    • 4) Arthralgia/arthritis
    • 5) Urticarial plaques
  28. Besides supportive therapy, what is the treatment for serum sickness? (2)
    • 1) Antihistamines
    • 2) Corticosteroids
  29. Which hypersensitivity classification is serum sickness?
    Type III hypersensitivity: immune complex reaction
  30. What are the 2 most common viral etiologies of erythema multiforme?
    • 1) HSV
    • 2) Mycoplasma sp.
  31. What are 6 common drug etiologies of erythema multiforme?
    • 1) Sulfonamides
    • 2) Phenytoin
    • 3) Barbiturates
    • 4) Phenylbutazone
    • 5) Penicillin
    • 6) Allopurinol
  32. Zinc absorption is impaired when given at the same time as what food product?
    Dairy
  33. Which 2 elements Interfere with intestinal copper absorption?
    • 1) Zinc
    • 2) Iron
  34. What is the etiology of Menkes syndrome?
    Mutation of copper ATPases that impairs copper absorption and transport
  35. What are 3 clinical features of Menkes syndrome?
    • 1) Developmental delay
    • 2) Seizure
    • 3) "Steely hair"
  36. What are 3 classic clinical features of an infant with copper deficiency?
    • 1) Hypochromic normocytic anemia
    • 2) Hypotonia
    • 3) Osteoporosis
  37. Where is zinc absorbed?
    Intestines
  38. Where is copper absorbed?
    Intestines
  39. What is the etiology of Wilson disease?
    Copper accumulation caused by mutation in hepatic copper transport; copper cannot be excreted from liver
  40. What are 4 classic clinical features of zinc deficiency in kids?
    • 1) Diarrhea
    • 2) Skin lesions
    • 3) Altered taste
    • 4) Behavioral abnormalities
  41. What is the etiology of acrodermatitis enteropathica?
    Congenital defect in zinc transport
  42. How does acrodermatitis enteropathica present?
    • 1) Severe oral and perianal rash
    • 2) Intractable chronic diarrhea
    • 3) Growth failure
  43. Beside low serum zinc level (duh), what is an expected lab value associated with zinc deficiency? (1)
    Decreased alkaline phosphatase
  44. How does cool mist work for the treatment of croup?
    Cool mist thins and moistens airway secretions to improve clearance
  45. When is nebulized racemic epinephrine indicated?
    Moderate-to-severe croup (with respiratory distress or inspiratory stridor)
  46. When counseling teens about illicit activity, what are 2 nonhelpful tips?
    • 1) Lecturing about long-term sequelae (i.e. cancer)
    • 2) Discussing ilegality of such activity
  47. The parents of a delayed kid think she's deteriorating. What are 3 things you can verify to rule out degenerative CNS disorder?
    • 1) No decline in IQ (school evaluation)
    • 2) No loss in acquired skills
    • 3) Stable neuro exam
  48. What 3 electrolyte abnormalities are associated with use of furosemide?
    • 1) Hypokalemia
    • 2) Hypomagnesemia
    • 3) Metabolic alkalosis
  49. For patients with history of "penicillin allergy," which cephalosporin is less likely to cause reaction?
    2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporins (less allergenic than 1st gen)
  50. Toxic appearance, high fever, brassy cough, inspiratory stridor, "ragged" tracheal air column on neck radiograph - diagnosis?
    Bacterial tracheitis
Author
charlietri818
ID
31078
Card Set
Testables 2c
Description
Third 50
Updated