AO NAVTRA CH 6-10

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coop4rilla
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310934
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AO NAVTRA CH 6-10
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2015-11-04 21:21:04
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  1. How is an M61A1/A2 automatic gun is (1) driven and (2) controlled?
    (1) Hydraulically (2) electrically
  2. At what prescribed rate can an M61A1/A2 gun fire M50 series ammunition?
    4,000 to 7,200 rpm
  3. What components are the primary parts of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun?
    Barrels, rotor assembly, and housing assembly
  4. What means are used to secure the gun barrels to the stub rotor of an M61A1/A2
    automatic gun?
    Interrupted locking lugs
  5. On an M61A1/A2 gun, what component picks up a round as it enters the gun?
    Breech-bolt assembly
  6. On an M61A1/A2 gun, a full firing cycle requires what prescribed number of
    actions?
    7
  7. What are the two distinct cycles of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun operation?
    Firing and clearing
  8. What component of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun ejects the empty case from the
    gun?
    The extractor lip
  9. On an M61A1/A2 automatic gun, what sequence of actions is performed by the
    breech-bolt assembly during one full firing cycle?
    Feed, chamber, lock and fire, unlock, extract, and eject
  10. A drum unit assembly consists of the drum unit and what other major parts?
    Entrance cover, scoop disk, and exit cover
  11. The mechanical drive unit in an F/A-18 aircraft has what total number of output
    shafts?
    1
  12. A gun gas purge system is used for what purpose?
    Cool the gun barrels and purge gas from the gun compartment
  13. The air required to operate the gun gas purge system in an F/A-18 aircraft is
    provided by what air source?
    Engine bleed air and the ram air scavenge door
  14. In an F/A-18 aircraft, the M61A1/A2 automatic gun system can be operated in
    what computer mode?
    A/A, A/G, or CCIP
  15. In an F/A-18 aircraft, what component is used to manually clear the M61A1/A2
    automatic gun?
    Clearing section clamp
  16. An M61A1/A2 automatic gun must be sent to a depot-level maintenance activity
    under which of the following conditions?
    • When major repair is required
    • When an alteration is authorized
    • When 120,000 rounds have been expended
  17. Which of the following gun maintenance procedures should be accomplished
    during scheduled maintenance?
    • Lubrication
    • Normal disassembly and parts replacement
    • A functional check of the components based on the round interval
  18. Scheduled maintenance for an M61A1/A2 automatic gun handling and drive
    system should be performed after what maximum number of rounds has been
    fired?
    30,000 rounds
  19. What is the rapid rate of fire for the GAU-21?
    950 to 1100 rounds per minute
  20. What is the maximum air-to-ground range of the GAU-21?
    6,500 meters
  21. How is the GAU-16 cooled after firing?
    By air
  22. What is the performance firing rate of the GAU-16?
    750 to 850 rounds per minute
  23. The GAU-17 major gun assemblies include the barrels and barrel clamp,
    housing, rotor, and what assembly
    Clutch
  24. What is the sustained firing rate of the M240D?
    100 rounds per minute
  25. What weapon can be easily removed from the helicopter and used for ground
    defense if needed?
    M240D
  26. A complete M50 service cartridge consists of what total number of components?
    5
  27. Which of the following cartridge cases is made of steel?
    M103A1
  28. All projectiles have essentially the same configuration with the exception of which
    of the following projectiles?
    HPT
  29. What is one way to identify the type of 20 mm ammunition?
    The painted color on the projectile and the lettering on the body
  30. What is the PGU designation for the Semi-armor Piercing High Explosive
    Incendiary (SAPHEI) cartridge
    PGU-28/B and PGU-28A/B
  31. What is the container that the M50/PGU series ammunition is normally packed
    in?
    M548
  32. Small arms ammunition’s intended use is in various types of mounted, hand-held,
    or shoulder-fired weapons, _______ through _________caliber.
    .22, .50
  33. What are ball cartridges used against?
    Personnel and unarmored targets
  34. What is the preferred .50 caliber cartridge that is used against combustible
    targets?
    Incendiary, M1
  35. What kind of configuration is the .50 caliber cartridge when used in the aircraft
    machine gun?
    Metallic link belts
  36. What cartridge is used in the GAU-17, M240, and M14 rifle for signaling,
    incendiary, target designation, and range estimation?
    NATO Tracer, M62
  37. The LALS A/E32K-7 consists of the ammunition loader, ammunition transfer
    system, or what other component?
    An ammunition replenisher
  38. What weapons handling equipment is used with the LALS when afloat?
    MHU-191
  39. What must be done to ensure that the ammunition loader is empty?
    • One marked dummy round must be cycled completely through the storage
    • container assembly, transfer unit assembly, and conveyor assembly.
  40. In what type of environment must transporter loading or downloading operations
    be conducted?
    RADHAZ-free
  41. To prevent explosive primers on gun ammunition from being exposed to static
    electricity, what is one action that should be taken?
    • Make sure that the primer button of the ammunition doesn't come into
    • contact with the human body.
  42. What tow target is used for air-to-air and surface-to-air gunnery or missile firing
    training exercises?
    TDU-32A/B
  43. The Navy currently uses which of the following powered targets?
    BQM-34S and BQM-74E
  44. ABQM-74E missile target can be launched from which of the following launching
    environments?
    • An aircraft
    • A shore installation
    • A ship
  45. The BQM-74E target is controlled through normal flight maneuvers with the
    capability of performing 75-degree bank angle turns by what means?
    By fixed or portable integrated tracking and control system transponder
  46. There are a total of how many types of TALD vehicles?
    3
  47. What does the TALD use to provide false imagery to defense acquisition
    systems?
    Chaff, electromagnetic, and radar signature augmentation
  48. What air-launched decoy has the product improvement that added turbojet
    propulsion, radar control, low-level flight, and GPS navigational capability?
    ITALD
  49. Target logbooks provide a history of maintenance, operation, and ___________
    control of the target.
    24, 36
  50. Current expenditure/allocation information will be available as part of the target
    site on what database system?
    AWIS
  51. Target logbooks provide a history of maintenance, operation, and ___________
    control of the target.
    configuration
  52. What is the purpose of the individual target performance report?
    To document target performance
  53. The ammunition handling equipment identified by Mk and Mod numbers is under
    the control of what command?
    NAVSEASYSCOM
  54. The ammunition handling equipment identified by ADU, ADK, and HLK is under
    the control of what command?
    NAVAIRSYSCOM
  55. The command that has control over a particular piece of ammunition handling
    equipment can be identified by what means?
    Item designation
  56. A standard four-way wood pallet has what maximum SWL?
    4,000 pounds
  57. What is the maximum SWL of the Mk 3 Mod 0 pallet?
    4,000 pounds
  58. A Mk 12 Mod 1 pallet is _________long and _________wide?
    45.5 inches, 35 inches
  59. A Mk 43 Mod 1 is used with what weapons carrier to lift Mk 82/BLU 111 bombs in
    tandem?
    Mk 49 Mod 1
  60. What is the maximum SWL of the Mk 49 Mod 1 weapons carrier?
    2,500 pounds
  61. A Mk 51 Mod 1 weapons carrier has what total number of lifting eyes?
    8
  62. How many interchangeable and interlocking 49-inch sections make up the A/F
    32K-1A bomb assembly stand?
    3
  63. What does the tray permit for the weapon during weapon assembly/disassembly?
    Permits a 360-degree rotation of the weapon
  64. To use an HLU-256/E manual hoisting bar in a tee configuration, you should perform what action?
    Relocate the nose plug to a position at the bar's midpoint
  65. What beam is used to lift harpoon missiles?
    Mk 37 Mod 1
  66. The Mk 85, 86, 87, Mod 1 and Mk 100 Mod 2 pallet slings can handle what range
    of load heights?
    16 to 70 inches
  67. When two leg assemblies are used with a Mk 105 hoisting sling, what is the rated
    capacity?
    6,000 pounds
  68. The ratchet crank on an HLU-288/E bomb hoist is used for what purpose?
    To help hoist a load
  69. What is the double-point cable lift capacity of the HLU-196D/E?
    3,000 pounds
  70. Aero 12C bomb skid has what maximum SWL?
    1,250 pounds
  71. An Aero 12C bomb skid with an Aero 9C bomb skid adapter installed has what
    maximum SWL?
    1,000 pounds
  72. What is the maximum SWL of an Aero 64B soft-belt adapter?
    2,500 pounds
  73. What is the maximum SWL of an MHU-191/M munitions transporter?
    5,000 pounds
  74. Two pairs of ADU-483/E adapters have a maximum SWL of how many pounds?
    4,000 pounds
  75. What is the maximum SWL of an Aero 71A skid flatbed adapter?
    4,000 pounds
  76. Forklift trucks are powered by gasoline engines, diesel engines, and what other
    source of power?
    Electric motors
  77. An A/S 32K-1E weapons loader has what maximum SWL?
    4,500 pounds
  78. Bomb racks are used for which of the following purposes?
    To carry, release, and arm stores
  79. What is the acronym LEMA?
    Linear Electro-mechanical Actuator
  80. The power required to operate the secondary release assembly of a BRU-14/A
    bomb rack is provided by what source?
    An electromechanical device
  81. What bomb rack can be installed in the weapon pylon of the H-60 aircraft?
    BRU-14/A
  82. A BRU-32A/A bomb ejector rack is used on which of the following types of
    aircraft?
    F/A-18
  83. A BRU-33/A bomb ejector rack is used to carry two external stores each
    weighing up to what maximum weight?
    1,000 pounds
  84. How many impulse cartridges are required to be installed in the ejection unit of a
    BRU-33 (series) bomb ejector rack to generate the required gas pressure for
    rack operations?
    2
  85. The BRU-55 bomb ejector rack provides the interface from aircraft to rack and
    rack to weapons that allows the carriage of what weapons?
    Two JSOW or two 1,000 pound JDAM
  86. When the gas-generating cartridge is fired in an IMER/ITER ejector unit
    assembly, which of the following movements is part of the process of unlocking
    the suspension hooks?
    • The aft movement of the breech
    • The aft movement of the hook release rod
    • The downward movement of the cranks
  87. During ejection, the weight of the store, plus gas pressure, forces the suspension
    hooks of an IMER/ITER ejector unit assembly to open. Which of the following
    component(s) hold(s) the suspension hooks in the open position?
    The hook toggle spring and the coil spring
  88. What maintenance level is responsible for maintaining both the hardware adapter
    kit and the practice bomb adapters used with an IMER/ITER?
    Organizational
  89. What is the maximum weight of the SUU-25F/A dispenser when it is loaded with
    eight aircraft parachute flares?
    490 pounds
  90. When the SUU-25F/A dispenser is fully loaded, it contains what maximum
    number of impulse cartridges?
    8
  91. The AN/ALE-39 dispensing system is capable of cartridge ejecting which of the
    following load configurations?
    • Chaff
    • Flares
    • RF jammers
  92. What manual should be referenced when handling of impulse cartridges shall be
    accomplished in accordance with the general HERO requirements?
    NAVSEA OP 3565/NAVAIR 16-1-529
  93. For proper disposition, who must be notified in the event a decoy flare has visible damage or the device's pyrotechnic load is visible?
    Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD)

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