COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 NAVAL AVIATION MAINTENANCE PROGRAM (NAMP) CHAPTER 10

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COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 NAVAL AVIATION MAINTENANCE PROGRAM (NAMP) CHAPTER 10
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2015-11-14 13:27:06
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AO1 STUDY GUIDE
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  1. What maintains and increases technical knowledge and proficiency? (Page 10-1)
    Maintenance IST
  2. What consists of personnel performing maintenance tasks, by demonstration and simulation, under the supervision of designated, qualified personnel? (Page 10-1)
    OJT
  3. What program is in-service training for aviation units designed to encompass and standardize technical training and quantify maintenance proficiency levels across all aviation platforms? (Page 10-1)
    QPT
  4. What QPT Certification level is generally for E-4 and below personnel, this syllabi includes general and rating specific items addressing flight-line and work place safety, basic aircraft servicing and inspection, SE licensing, basic maintenance documentation/NALCOMIS, minimal rating knowledge (typically limited to the identification and removal of components), the identification, use and handling of hazardous material, and any additional qualifications deemed appropriate for QPA certification? (Page 10-2)
    Qualified and Proficient Apprentice (QPA)
  5. What QPT Certification level is generally for E-5 and E-6 personnel, this syllabi includes incomplete QPA items for personnel new to the T/M/S, more in-depth technical data specific tot he T/M/S aircraft (T/M/S specific PQS), advanced maintenance documentation/NALCOMIS, shop and shift workload management, and any additional qualifications deemed appropriate for QPJ certification? (Page 10-2)
    Qualified and Proficient Journeyman (QPJ)
  6. What QPT Certification level is generally for E-7 and E-8 personnel, this syllabi includes items appropriate for the efficient and safe management of aircraft maintenance/production and the administration of personnel? (Page 10-2)
    Qualified and Proficient master (QPM)
  7. What library contains more than 1,200 modules of training that includes, but is not limited to, eleven T/M/S aircraft, Ordnance, I-level Avionics, and SE? (Page 10-2)
    Media Trax
  8. What is an on-line tool that supports life-cycle management related to the upkeep and revision of training procedures, training applications, software, and hardware for IMI items? (Page 10-3)
    TTCMS
  9. The MP&T Coordinator is only assigned to CV IMAs and the larger (how many or above manning during the year, including TAD personnel) Navy shore IMAs which provide I-level support for a significant number of aviation activities? (Page 10-5)
    500
  10. Indoctrination training per NAMP Training Requirements shall be provided to personnel within 30 days of reporting to the Maintenance Department, but may be extended to how many days if mitigating circumstances exist? (Page 10-8)
    60
  11. What Program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing procedures to maintain a satisfactory level of aircraft and engine fuel systems purity? (Page 10-19)
    Fuel Surveillance
  12. What can introduce small amounts of free water in empty or partially filled fuel cells/tanks? (Page 10-19)
    Condensation of moist air
  13. who shall designate, in writing via the MMP, a QAR (normally, a Power Plants QAR) as the Fuel Surveillance Program Monitor? (Page 10-20)
    QA Officer
  14. Take fuel samples prior to first engine run of the day, or how often as a minimum? (Page 10-23)
    Weekly
  15. What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly? (Page 10-24)
    navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP)
  16. Process and return all sample results via the fastest possible means. For samples with abnormal results, advise the customer activity of the laboratory recommendation no later than how long after sample receipt per NAVAIR 17-15-50.2? (Page 10-25)
    24 Hours
  17. Ensure aircraft on extended cross country flights have the last how many oil sample results annotated on reverse side of Oil Analysis Request (DD 2026) in case of potential sampling requirements at a transient station oil laboratory (Page 10-26)
    Three
  18. What Program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing and maintaining techniques to prevent contamination of aircraft oxygen systems and components through careful and safe handling, surveillance, and quality control? (Page 10-31)
    Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO)
  19. Oxygen comes in what two states? (Page 10-31)
    Gaseous and Liquid
  20. All LOX/gaseous oxygen operations shall be performed by how many or more qualified persons, except for removal and replacement of aircraft LOX converters? (Page 10-32)
    Two
  21. What causes hydraulic system and component failures and presents a serious threat to flight safety? (Page 10-36)
    Hydraulic fluid contamination
  22. Maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate contamination levels are Navy Standard Class what for aircraft and Navy Standard Class what for SE? (Page 10-36)
    5/3
  23. What is the preferred hydraulic fluid contamination analysis equipment and shall be used when available? (Page 10-36)
    An electronic particle counter
  24. What is the process of removing air, water, solid particles, and chlorinated solvents from hydraulic fluids? (Page 10-37)
    Purfication
  25. All servicing SE will be equipped with what type of filtration? (Page 10-39)
    3-micron (absolute)
  26. RFI aircraft tire/wheel assemblies shall not exceed how many pounds PSIG or 50 percent of test pressure, whichever is less, while be stored? (Page 10-46)
    100
  27. All RFI tires being transported off station shall not exceed how many pounds PSIG of pressure? (Page 10-46)
    25
  28. Ensure bearings are protected from careless handling and contamination from abrasives, improper greases, solids, fluids, and salt water per what? (Page 10-48)
    NAVAIR 01-1A-503
  29. What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for evaluating performance throughout the Maintenance Department? (Page 10-66)
    QA Audit Program
  30. What serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies on a scheduled and unscheduled basis? (Page 10-66)
    Audits
  31. Ensure corrective action and QA follow-up on discrepant areas are performed within a reasonable time frame (normally how many working days) and that the corrective action is adequate? (Page 10-66)
    Ten
  32. Maintain audit files for how long? these files shall include completed CSEC discrepancy sheets, corrective actions, QA follow-up annotations, and accompanying routing forms. (Page 10-67)
    One Year
  33. What provide a systematic, coordinated method of investigating suspected or known deficiencies in specific maintenance work centers, programs, or personnel? (Page 10-69)
    Special audits
  34. What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring aircraft equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly? (Page 10-70)
    Oil Consumption Program
  35. What establishes policy, responsibilities and requirements for reporting substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications? (Page 10-74)
    Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program (NAMDRP)
  36. Audit the unit users enrolled in JDRS on what basis, for example, identifying users who have transferred or no longer require access, and provide feedback via the Contact Us tool to update, delete, or change unit personnel profiles? (Page 10-77)
    Monthly
  37. Who is responsible for processing HMRs, EIs, and HMR/EIs for assigned material? (Page 10-78)
    ISSC
  38. What is any activity having the responsibility for shipping/receiving EI related material? (Page 10-80)
    Support Activity
  39. Per what instruction, the NAVSAFECEN may provide a representative to assist an AMB, and in certain special cases, conduct an independent safety investigation? (Page 10-81)
    OPNAVINST 3750.6
  40. Ensure the interim or final reply does not exceed how many calendar days for CAT I PQDRs not requiring exhibits or how many calendar days after receipt of exhibit for CAT I PQDRs with exhibits? (Page 10-83)
    28/45
  41. Ensure the interim or final reply does not exceed how many calendar days for CAT II PQDRs not requiring exhibits or how many calendar days after receipt of exhibit for CAT II PQDRs with exhibits? (Page 10-83)
    45/60
  42. JDRS, shall be made how many days after Preliminary Disposition Report release, but the period may be extended if it is known that shipment will take longer? (Page 10-83)
    20 days
  43. What is defined as material procured under contract from commercial or government sources or manufactured by an organic facility? (Page 10-91)
    New Material
  44. What defects constitute hazardous or unsafe conditions, or as determined by experience and judgment could conceivably become so, thus making the aircraft unsafe for flight or endangering operating personnel? (Page 10-93)
    Critical
  45. What defects could result in failure or materially reduce usability of the unit for its intended purpose?  (Page 10-93)
    Major
  46. What defects are not likely to materially reduce usability of the unit or product for its intended purpose or department from established standards? (Page 10-93)
    Minor
  47. What provide a simplified procedure for reporting safety hazards and routine deficiencies found in COMNAVAIRSYSCOM technical publications? (Page 10-99)
    Technical Publications Deficiency Reports (TPDRs)
  48. CAT 1 TPDR priority message shall be submitted within how many hours of discovery of a safety related deficiency? (Page 10-99)
    24 Hours
  49. Every effort shall be made to complete resolution and issue corrective action within how long of receipt of CAT 1 TPDRs? (Page 10-101)
    30 Days
  50. The preferred method to submit BTRs is by what method? (Page 10-102)
    E-mail
  51. What is the only authorized medium for directing the modification or the accomplishment of one-time inspections of naval aircraft and is associated per NAVAIRNINST 5215.12? (Page 10-115)
    TD Compliance Program
  52. Who are authorized to prepare and issue bulletins, changes, interim changes, and RAMECs, except those which restrict flight operations? (Page 10-116)
    ISSCs
  53. The CNO and CMC (as appropriate) shall be advised of the cause and effect of the pending action using a Red Stripe memorandum per what instruction? (Page 10-117)
    NAVAIRINST 5216.11
  54. What system provides on-line configuration status accounting for naval aircraft, engines, SE, maintenance trainers, and serial numbered weapon system components? (Page 10-117)
    TDSA
  55. Copies of TD summaries shall be annotated and maintained on file by each activity for a period of how long? (Page 10-127)
    6 Months
  56. All TDs shall be prepared and processed by the ISSC or PMA per what requirements? (Page 10-130)
    NAVAIR 00-25-300
  57. When a TD is to be issued in parts, the first or basic issuance of the TD will always be what, even though it will not be identified as such in the TD number? (Page 10-131)
    Part 1
  58. What TD category is assigned when unsafe conditions exist which, if uncorrected, could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property; and such conditions embody risks which are calculated to be unacceptable? (Page 10-132)
    Immediate Action

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