R24 Written Study

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R24 Written Study
2015-11-14 11:50:58

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  1. When the cockpit DV windows are not properly locked in the closed position, which of the following indications will be present?
    A yellow pin protruding from plate linkage near opening handle
  2. The three compartment hatches that share the EICAS Caution MSG "ACCESS DOOR OPEN" are:
    Forward avionics, Aft avionics, Control rigging
  3. DV Windows may be used for:
    Cockpit evacuation (only)
  4. If the cabin altitude exceeds 9,900ft. +/-100ft., what can the crew expect?
    • Aural warning "CABIN" and
    • The cabin altitude indication (EICAS) will turn red
  5. The Pneumatic System provides air for:
    • Engine Start
    • Air Conditioning
    • Pressurization and Ice Protection
  6. The Engine Air Inlet Anti-Icing System uses:
    High Pressure Bleed Air
  7. The APU can supply bleed air either on the ground or in flight (T/F).
  8. The Engine Bleed Valves (EBV) and Pack Valves are electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated (T/F).
  9. Pushing the APU STOP button will:
    send a "STOP" signal to the APU FADEC
  10. The APU fuel supply normally comes from:
    Tank 2
  11. The APU is a source of:
    • Electrical power on the ground
    • Pneumatic power on the ground or in flight
    • Electrical power in flight
  12. Which of the following applies during APU operations? ALL
    • Wait 3 minutes after every APU start attempt before opening the APU bleed valve
    • The APU should not be left running unattended for extended periods (30 minutes max)
    • The APU may be left running in flight only if operationally required (MEL compliance)
  13. When climbing from 5,000ft. to 8,000ft. with the autopilot engaged using the FLC mode, what is the climb schedule?
    240 knots
  14. The Takeoff submode:
    • Provides for a fixed pitch of 14 degrees nose up for flaps 9 and
    • Provides for a fixed pitch of 12 degrees nose up for flaps 22
  15. Which of the following conditions are required to obtain a valid green CAT2 annunciation on the PFDs?
    Autopilot engaged
  16. The PMA is capable of supplying power for ignition at N2 speeds above
  17. FADEC A and B should alternate AUTOMATICALLY
    at the beginning of each engine ground start
  18. The FADEC will select TO-1 mode on the EMB-145 when the landing gear transitions from up and locked to down and locked below ___ feet
  19. If the FADEC control knob is placed in the ALTN position, the engine control is transferred to the controlling FADEC of the opposite engine (T/F).
  20. How does the ATTCS system of the EMB-140 differ from that of the EMB-145?
    The EMB-140 are ATTCS capable in both the T/O and ALT T/O modes
  21. Prior to increasing N2 above 83% the Engine oil temperature must be a minimum of __ degrees C. In lieu of this minimum oil temperature limit, it is acceptable to run the engine for at least ___ minutes prior to advancing the Thrust Levers for takeoff.
    40, 8
  22. Turning the Ignition Selector knob to "OFF" with the engine running will cause the engine to shut down (T/F).
  23. The lavatory smoke detector provides an indication of smoke by activating a ___ (all)
    • red alarm on the Smoke Detector Panel
    • horn on the Smoke Detector Panel
    • WARNING message on the EICAS
  24. The Lavatory Fire Protection System consists of
    • A halon filled fire bottle located in the lavatory waste container
    • A smoke detector sensor located in the lavatory ceiling
  25. If it is necessary to repeat the fire detection test, a waiting period of ___ seconds must be adhered to
  26. Pressing the APU Fire Extinguisher button
    • Discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle into the compartment
    • Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve and sends a stop request to the FADEC
  27. Smoke detection will present both a BAGG SMOKE warning message and an illuminated BAGG EXTG button (T/F).
  28. The FMS requires a manual RAIM Predict
    Prior to dispatch, when flying to an airport where GPS stand-alone is the intended and only suitable approach
  29. The FMS NAV Mode Q value must be 10 or less
    prior to conducting an RNAV SID
  30. FMS waypoints must be checked for accuracy by reference to current Approved data
    prior to IFR enroute and terminal navigation
  31. If the FMS database is expired, an AML entry is required (T/F).
  32. The purpose of the ejector pump in the fuel tank is to____
    help keep the collector box filled with fuel
  33. When the "XFEED" selector knob is turned to "LOW 2" what occurs?
    The crossfeed valve opens and the electric pumps in tank 2 are turned off
  34. Each fuel tank is provided with a fuel low temperature sensor (T/F).
  35. A "FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL" alerted Warning MSG will occur when: (all)
    • The respective fuel low level sensor senses less than 584 lb. remaining
    • The fuel quantity indication goes from amber to red
    • The associated tank reaches a level sufficient for approximately 30 minutes of flight
  36. The EMB Ice Protection System heats critical areas using hot air. These heated areas include:
    • The Engine Air Inlet Lips
    • The Wing and Horizontal Stabilizer Leading Edges
  37. The Horizontal Stabilizer & Wing Anti-Icing subsystems are automatically inhibited when the ____
    wheels are on the ground AND wheel speed is below 25 knots
  38. The Wing and Horizontal Stabilizer Anti-Icing subsystems will turn on if an "Ice Condition" is detected with a wheel speed of 25 knots or greater and the Override Knob is set to "ENG" (T/F).
  39. Which EICAS message is NOT presented during the ICE Protection Test (electrical)?
  40. Which of the following conditions must be met to complete The Ice Protection Test (pneumatic in flight)? (all)
    • TAT 10 degrees C or below
    • Ice Detection Override knob - ALL for 60 seconds
    • Before entering icing conditions and before reaching 23,000 feet
  41. When using Pre-Conditioned Air (PCA), you must ensure at least one door is open to prevent inadvertently pressurizing the aircraft (T/F).
  42. The ignition selector should be ON prior to engine start below __ degrees C when the engine has not run in the past ___ minutes.
    5, 90
  43. The FMS Initialization must be accomplished prior to every flight by both pilots for their respective FMS (T/F).
  44. Which of the following would require REF A-ICE to be ON and the Ice Detection Override set to ENG?
    • Icing conditions exist on the ground or for takeoff and
    • OAT on the ground is at or below 10 degrees C and visible moisture is expected prior to reaching 1500' AGL
  45. Minimum Takeoff Fuel (MIN T/O) is defined as:
    The defined legal minimum fuel required for takeoff
  46. Visual Descent Points (VDPs) are incorporated in selected non-precision approach procedures. A VDP is identified on the profile view of the approach chart by the symbol(s):
  47. Both flight crew members must sign next to their respective names on the Station copy of the Dispatch release, which acknowledges that are fit for duty for that particular flight segment (T/F).
  48. The captain may cancel a flight...
    Authority to cancel rests with SOC
  49. Pilots are required to have a valid passport
    in their possession while on duty
  50. How can you verify the currency of the required publications prior to departure?
    Check JetNet (resources center) or crew check in (Manual Revision Status)
  51. All FAA medical examinations
    • Must be completed and the necessary data provided to the company before the 20th day of the month and
    • If not completed by the 20th day of the month, must inform the Domicile Chief Pilot when the examination will be completed
  52. Headsets with boom mics
    are mandatory during all operations conducted below 18,000' MSL including taxi
  53. Sterile Cockpit is defined as critical phases of flight to include
    • All ground operations involving movement of the aircraft under its own power
    • Holding, regardless of altitude
    • The last 1,000 feet of any required or assigned altitude during climb and descent
  54. What is the definition of BUFR fuel?
    The amount represents a portion of the DISP ADD and CAPT ADD fuels, that can be used as taxi out contingency fuel
  55. At Airports without operating control towers
    • The airport must have a suitable means for pilots to acquire airport advisories. These advisories must be obtained regardless of weather conditions, for both inbound and outbound flights.
    • Landing is not authorized if an airport advisory cannot be obtained
  56. According to the following forecast (arrival time 2045 on the 9th)
    TAF KPIT 091730Z 0918/1024 22020KT 2SM -SHRA BKN020
    FM 092030 27008KT 2SM -SHRA OVC010 TEMPO 1/4SM FGBR OVC002
    This forecast requires a second alternate
  57. An additional destination alternate (second alternate) is required and will be listed on the Dispatch Release any time:
    • The destination weather will be considered marginal whenever it is forecast to be less than 1,000 ft. ceiling or less than 3 miles vis from beginning 1 hour prior to, until 1 hour after, the ETA
    • The first alternate weather is considered marginal if it is forecast to have less than a 600 ft. ceiling or less than 2 miles vis at the ETA
  58. Items entered in the Mechanical Discrepancies block by flight crews that do not affect the airworthiness of the aircraft and/or are for information only do not require the Captain to contact MOC (T/F).
  59. A takeoff alternate is required if
    The takeoff airport is below landing minimums for the appropriate Runway
  60. An immediate notification to ATC is required while operating in RVSM airspace if
    • Failure of any required RVSM equipment
    • Primary altimeters differing by 200 ft or more
    • Unable to maintain 300 feet of assigned altitude due to turbulence
  61. When is it required that the remaining pilot don his Oxygen mask, and use it, if the other pilot leaves his station?
    Above FL250
  62. The aircraft security inspection
    is verified by the captain's signature in the Accepted by Capt block in the AML
  63. An airport diagram shall be readily available for use by both pilots (T/F)
  64. In an emergency requiring immediate action, the captain may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency (T/F).
  65. The lowest authorized RVR for takeoff is
    600 RVR
  66. The lowest authorized RVR for a CAT 1 ILS approach is
    1800 RVR
  67. Based on the 43,000 lbs flip card, what is the required landing distance at a field elevation of 2000 feet, flaps 45, poor braking, no reverse, with a 10 knot headwind?
  68. What is the acceleration altitude departing runway 13 KLGA
  69. What is the RWY limit weight for runway 13 KLGA at -2 deg C using ATO?
  70. Departing runway 13 KLGA what is the most limiting for MTOW?
    Dispatcher has manual adjusted MTOW
  71. When departing a contaminated runway using the Automated Performance Analyst, which of the following are PROHIBITED? (all)
    • Takeoff with any tailwind component
    • Takeoff with any brake degraded
    • Takeoff with contamination depths greater than the values on the Automated Performance Analyst depth chart
  72. The EWBS does NOT require a completed Cargo Worksheet prior to departure (see figure B) (T/F).
  73. Prior to dispatch, the flight crew must determine a performance-limited landing weight based upon the expected field conditions at the ETA for the most favorable runway, considering probable wind velocity and direction. In determining the Dispatch Max Landing Weight, which of the following is NOT used in that calculation?
    Maximum landing weight at destination plus enroute fuel burn
  74. The flaps failed at 0 degrees. What would be the landing distance required at 43,000 lbs? Dry runway, elevation 2000 ft., no wind, reverse available.
  75. The flaps failed at 0 degrees. What would be the Vapp speed at 43,000 lbs.? Dry runway, elevation 2000 ft. no wind, reverse available.