Sgu anatomy Q and A 15-18

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mlamaste
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31209
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Sgu anatomy Q and A 15-18
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2010-08-25 14:52:17
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sgu vet
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applied anatomy/clinical pgs 15-18
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  1. Where are growing long bones prone to fracture?
    Physis
  2. When do most physes close by what age?
    by one year of age
  3. How many Salter Harris fracture types are there?
    5 different types
  4. List the 5 different types of Salter Harris fractures and what they involve
    • SH1: involves just the physis
    • SH2: physis and through the metaphysis
    • SH3: physis and epiphysis (articular)
    • SH4: through the joint and across the physis
    • SH5: compression fracture of the physis
  5. Why do SH3 and SH4 fractures have poorer prognosis than SH1 and Sh2?
    Articular surfaces are involved, must be aligned automatically or DJD(degenerative joint disease)
  6. How are compression and traction physeal fractures treated?
    • Compression:immobilization
    • Traction: immobilize and counteract pull of the attached muscle
  7. When are the majority of physes of the limb closed? Exceptions?
    • By 1 year of age
    • except the iliac crest (1-2.5yrs)
    • pelvic symphysis (5-6yrs)
    • possibly the head of the humerus
  8. What are the last physes of the shoulder and stifle to close?
    Head of the humerus (13mo.) and the tibial tuberosity
  9. When does the physis of the anconeal process close?
    4-6 months (considered ununited if open at 6 mo.)
  10. Why is the median nerve more in danger in the cat than if the dog humerus is fractured?
    It is in the supracondylar canal
  11. What is the landmark for locating the heart valves during auscultation?
    Olecranon / point of the elbow in the 5th intercostal space
  12. What is failure of the anconeal process to fuse with the ulna by 6mo. of age?
    Ununited anconeal process
  13. What improper development commonly leads to arthritis in the elbow?
    Fragmented medial coronoid process
  14. What small sesamoid bone on the medial side of the carpus may be mistaken for a chip when seen in radiographs?
    sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon
  15. What must be removed when declawing to prevent regrowth?
    dorsal part of the ungual crest
  16. name the fracture: bone twisted apart
    spiral fracture
  17. what fractures do and do not penetrate through the skin?
    compound do, simple do not
  18. fracture where a bone in the skull is pushed inward?
    depressed fracture
  19. what is the name for the separation of a small fragments of bone where a ligament or tendon attaches?
    avulsion fracture
  20. fracture where a small piece of bone chipped off a bone
    chip fracture
  21. fracture that splinters into many fragments?
    comminuted fractures
  22. fracture where the broken ends of the bone are driven into each other?
    impacted fracture
  23. what is the inflammation or infection of bone?
    osteomyelitis, osteitis
  24. what is a piece of dead bone separated from the rest of the bone in myelitis (it must be removed to heal)?
    sequestrum
  25. name 3 or 4 common sources to harvest cancellous bone
    • tibial tuberosity
    • greater trochanter of femur
    • wing of the ileum
    • greater tubercle of the humerus
  26. What is inflammation of a tendon? tendon sheath?
    Tendinitis, tendosynovitis/tenosynovitis(tendovaginitis)
  27. What is osteochondrosis (OC)?
    a defect in endochondral ossification which causes the deeper layers of articular cartilage to die
  28. What is osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)
    osteochondrosis with a dissecting flap or separated piece of cartilage (joint mouse)
  29. what is the most common place for osteochondrosis in dogs?
    shoulder:head of the humerus
  30. List names for inflammation of a joint?
    arthritis, osteoarthritis, osteoarthrosis, osteoarthropathy
  31. What is an infection in a joint(s) with bacteria, virus, and/or fungus that causes cartilage damage?
    Septic (infectious, bacterial) arthritis
  32. DJD stands for what?
    Degenerative joint disease
  33. list a few radiographic signs for hip dysplasia
    shallow acetabulum, flattened femoral head < half of the femoral head inside the acetabulum
  34. when can dogs be certified hip dysplasia free?
    after 2 years of age
  35. what causes patellar luxation?
    a shallow pattelar (trochlear) grove
  36. how is a patellar luxation commonly treated?
    surgically deepening the patellar groove
  37. what other lesions may accompany a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament?
    medial collateral and medial meniscus tears
  38. how is a cranial cruciate rupture physically diagnosed?
    cranial drawer sign
  39. what is an osseous (bony) outgrowth seen radiographically?
    osteophyte/bone spur
  40. what is the term for an increase in the density of bone
    sclerosis
  41. what is immobility and consolidation of a joint due to disease, injury, or sugical procedure?
    ankylosis
  42. what is destruction of a bone, seen as reduced density (i.e. blacker)
    lysis
  43. what is a luxation or dislocation
    complete loss of contact between the articular surface of a joint
  44. subluxation
    partial loss of contact between articular surfaces of a joint
  45. what is the most common direction of hip (coxofemoral) luxation?
    craniodorsal dissection
  46. why are articular fractures difficult to treat?
    must achieve anatomical reduction and rigid skeletal fixation to perfectly align the cartilage surface ( no step defect) or it will rapidly lead to DJD
  47. what is the possible sequela to Salter type 5 fracture (compression)?
    Angular limb deformity (valgus and vargus-deviation of bones from the axis of the limb past the joint)
  48. What is the valgus and varus? how do you remember which is which?
    • VaLgus:lateral deviation of bones past the joint.
    • Varus:medial deviation of bones past the joint.
    • "L" in valgus for lateral deviation.
  49. What results from twisting or overstretching a joint, causing a ligament to tear or separate from its bony attachment?
    Sprain
  50. What is inflammation of a bursae?
    Bursitis
  51. what muscles must be transected to remove the entire forelimb, including the scapula?
    all extrinsic muscle of the forelimb
  52. what is atrophy of supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles causing a prominent scapular spine called and what it causes it?
    sweeney, suprascapular nerve damage
  53. what results from radial nerve paralysis of the extensors of the thoracic limb?
    inability to stand ( the triceps can't extend the elbow), knukling over the digits
  54. what is the most important layer that must be opposed when closing a paramedian midline incision?
    external rectus sheath
  55. what is the most important structure to close in a midline incision?
    linea alba
  56. how would you locate the trachea for an emergency tracheostomy?
    skin incision in the ventral neck, separate the strap mm.
  57. what muscle and nerve must be functional to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
    Quadriceps m., femoral nerve
  58. what muscles are paralysed with obturator nerve damage, resulting in lateral slipping on a slick surface?
    adductor m
  59. why does an animal knuckle over on the pelvic limb with fibular (peroneal) nerve damage?
    paralysis of the extensors of the digits
  60. what is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft?
    cricoarytenoideus dosalis m.
  61. what muscles do the facia nerve innervate? clinical significance?
    muscles of the facial expression, orbicularis oculi m.
  62. what muscles are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve?
    muscles of mastication
  63. what do the 3rd, 4th, and 6th cranial nn (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens) innervate?
    extrinsic muscles of the eye
  64. what does the hypoglossal nerve innervate?
    motor to the muscles of the tongue
  65. what muscles are innervated by both cranial nn.9 and nn.10 (glossopharyngeal and vagus)?
    muscles of the pharynx
  66. what is the injection of a substance into a muscle? how is done?
    intamuscular(IM) injection; always draw back on (aspirate) the syringe before injecting to make sure the needle is not in a vessel (see blood in the hub if in a vessel)
  67. why is a broken neck result in respiratory paralysis?
    phrenic nerve to the diaphram arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses.
  68. what is the panniculus (cutaneous trunci) response?
    contraction of the cutaneoustrunci muscle in response to a pin prick to the trunk
  69. what is the reflex arc for the panniculus response?
    sensation from the skin of the trunk over the thoracic and lumbar spinal nn. to the spinal cord, up the cord to the thoracic nerve, out to the cutaneous trunci m.
  70. clinically, what is the panniculus response used to evaluate?
    level of the thoracic spinal cord damage
  71. where is the spinal cord damage if the panniculus response is absent caudal to the level of the twelfth thoracic vertebrae?
    level of T10
  72. for standing large animal flank surgeries, what must be blocked?
    both the dorsal and ventral branches of the abdominal nerves as the dorsal branches are sensory to the top of the flank.
  73. what nerve must be considered when removing the anal glands?
    caudal rectal n,;damage can result in paralysis of the external anal sphincter, thus, fecal incontinence (likely leading to early demise).
  74. define clonus/ clonic muscular spasms?
    rapidly alternating involuntary muscular contraction and relaxation (UMN sign)
  75. how does a tetanic animal present?
    pump handle tail, saw horse stance, lockjaw, and sardonic grin
  76. how does coonhound paralysis present?
    ascending flaccid paralysis (the pelvic limbs first then the front limbs)
  77. describe the pathophysiology of tick paralysis?
    blocks neuromuscular junctions resulting in a flaccid paralysis that ascends the spinal cord
  78. how does tick paralysis present?
    flaccid paralysis that ascends the spinal cord
  79. describe the pathophysiology of a roarer/recurrent laryngeal n. damage
    paralysis of the crioarytenoideus dorsalis m., (open glottic cleft), resulting in a roaring sound when breathing
  80. what is a common serious injury of all the nerves of the forelimb
    complete avulsion(tearing of the brachial plexus associated with the HBC (hit by car)
  81. what are signs of complete avulsion of the brachial plexus?
    complete paralysis, extended flaccid limb, unable to support weight and dragging dorsum of paw
  82. what is sweeney?
    damage to the suprascapular nerve, resulting in paralysis of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles acutely, thus, lateral instability of the shoulder joint. With time muscle atrophy corrects the instability, but results in a prominent scapular spine most common in horses
  83. what is the most common and clinically significant nerve problem of the forelimb?
    radial paralysis
  84. what are the two types of radial nerve injury?
    high and low radial nerve injury
  85. what are the signs of high radial nerve paralysis?signs of low radial nerve paralysis
    high- inability to bear weight on the limb, dropped elbow and knuckling over on the digits. low- knuckling over on digits
  86. what sensory loss is diagnostic for radial nerve injury?
    loss of sensation on dorsal manus
  87. what results from femoral nerve injury and why?
    can't bear weight, can't extend stifle -analgesia to medial limb (saphenous nerve)
  88. injury to which nerve causes lateral slipping on a slick surface?
    obturator nerve
  89. what are the signs of fibular (peroneal) nerve damage?
    knuckling over, analgesia of the dorsal pes
  90. how does an animal compensate for peroneal nerve damage?
    by flipping paw as advanced.
  91. what is personal (fibular) nerve paralysis similar to in the thoracic limb?
    low radial nerve paralysis, knuckling over
  92. what is an iatrogenic cause of ischiatic n. damage, what does it result in?
    IM injection in the rear limb, resulting in paresis/paralysis of the rear limb
  93. what is the definition of proprioception?
    sensing movements and position of the body parts
  94. what tests are used to evaluate proprioception? give an example
    postural reactions (e.g.,proprioceptive placing reaction: placing the animal's weight on its dorsal paw should result in immediate adjustment to normal placement)

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